# COMAR Title 11 — Department of Transportation ## Subtitle 03 — Maryland Aviation Administration ### Chapter 01 — Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport **Authority:** Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland **Administrative History:** Effective date: November 26, 1975 (2:27 Md. R. 1628) **Administrative History:** Chapter revised effective June 9, 1976 (3:12 Md. R. 643) **Administrative History:** Chapter recodified from COMAR 11.03.04 to 11.03.01 **Administrative History:** Regulation .01D-1, G-1, I-1, K-1, U-1, U-2 adopted effective May 30, 1980 (7:11 Md. R. 1037) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01G-1, I-1, I-2 and J amended, and .01L-1 adopted effective November 5, 1984 (11:22 Md. R. 1900) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01J-1, K-2, K-3 adopted effective July 1, 1981 (8:12 Md. R. 1063) **Administrative History:** Regulations .01F; .02B—E, G, H, K, M, O, Q, R, V, Y; .03C, G, J, U,.04A, B, H, L, M, O, Q, S; .05D—I; and .08C, E amended effective May 30, 1980 (7:11 Md. R. 1037) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01 amended effective December 31, 1988 (15:26 Md. R. 2984) **Administrative History:** Regulation .03W amended effective April 3, 1989 (16:6 Md. R. 728) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04E amended effective April 20, 1979 (6:8 Md. R. 657) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04I amended effective May 21, 1984 (11:10 Md. R. 864) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05D amended as an emergency provision effective April 1, 1981 (8:8 Md. R. 716); adopted permanently effective June 26, 1981 (8:13 Md. R. 1140) Regulation .05D amended as an emergency provision effective April 21, 1986 (13:10 Md. R. 1153); adopted permanently effective July 15, 1986 (13:14 Md. R. 1633) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05D amended effective January 25, 1980 (7:2 Md. R. 116); June 21, 1982 (9:12 Md. R. 1224); April 9, 1984 (11:7 Md. R. 626); May 4, 1987 (14:9 Md. R. 1081); May 16, 1988 (15:10 Md. R. 1202); May 1, 1989 (16:6 M. R. 728); April 30, 1990 (17:8 Md. R. 976) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05E amended effective December 5, 1983 (10:24 Md. R. 2189); March 6, 1989 (16:4 Md. R. 497) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05F repealed effective November 5, 1984 (11:22 Md. R. 1900) **Administrative History:** Regulations .05I and .06 amended effective July 1, 1981 (8:12 Md. R. 1063) **Administrative History:** Regulation .08I amended effective March 10, 1986 (13:5 Md. R. 546) **Administrative History:** Regulation .11 adopted effective November 5, 1984 (11:22 Md. R. 1900) **Administrative History:** Regulation .11 amended effective December 31, 1988 (15:26 Md. R. 2984) **Administrative History:** Chapter revised effective January 7, 1991 (17:26 Md. R. 2976) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01B amended effective October 11, 1993 (20:20 Md. R. 1572); April 1, 1996 (23:3 Md. R. 169); July 1, 1999 (26:5 Md. R. 392) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05 amended effective April 1, 1996 (23:3 Md. R. 169) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05D amended as an emergency provision effective May 21, 1991 (18:13 Md. R. 1480); amended permanently effective September 16, 1991 (18:18 Md. R. 2006) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05D amended effective July 1, 1996 (23:13 Md. R. 944) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05E amended effective March 16, 1992 (19:5 Md. R. 578) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05E—L amended effective October 11, 1993 (20:20 Md. R. 1572) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05F amended effective July 1, 1999 (26:5 Md. R. 392) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05H repealed effective July 1, 1999 (26:5 Md. R. 392) **Administrative History:** Regulations .05-1—.05-3 adopted effective July 1, 1999 (26:5 Md. R. 392) **Administrative History:** Regulation .08A amended effective November 8, 1993 (20:22 Md. R. 1708) **Administrative History:** Regulation .11 amended effective July 1, 1996 (23:13 Md. R. 944) **Administrative History:** Regulation .12 adopted effective December 30, 1993 (20:25 Md. R. 1948) **Administrative History:** Regulation .12 amended effective March 23, 1998 (25:6 Md. R. 488) **Administrative History:** Chapter revised effective October 30, 2000 (27:21 Md. R. 1976) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01 amended effective September 1, 2001 (28:16 Md. R. 1483) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01B amended effective January 2, 2006 (32:26 Md. R. 1998); November 6, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978); January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22); April 5, 2010 (37:7 Md. R. 572); July 15, 2019 (46:14 Md. R. 622); April 3, 2023 (50:6 Md. R. 219); October 13, 2025 (52:20 Md. R.1002) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01-1B amended effective December 24, 2001 (28:25 Md. R. 2192); November 6, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978); January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22); December 24, 2012 (39:25 Md. R. 1614); December 22, 2014 (41:25 Md. R. 1485); April 19, 2021 (48:8 Md. R. 310) **Administrative History:** Regulation .01-1C amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .02I, Y amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .03 amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .03-2 amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04 amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04E amended effective October 22, 2007 (34:21 Md. R. 1916) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04Q amended effective April 3, 2023 (50:6 Md. R. 219) **Administrative History:** Regulation .04T adopted effective October 13, 2025 (52:50 Md. R. 1002) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05 amended effective September 1, 2001 (28:16 Md. R. 1483) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05D amended effective November 6, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05G amended effective April 5, 2010 (37:7 Md. R. 572) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05J amended effective January 2, 2006 (32:26 Md. R. 1998) **Administrative History:** Regulation .05-1A amended effective September 1, 2001 (28:16 Md. R. 1483); January 2, 2006 (32:26 Md. R. 1998) **Administrative History:** Regulation .06C amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .06F amended effective November 6, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978) **Administrative History:** Regulation .08A amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .09C amended effective January 12, 2009 (36:1 Md. R. 22) **Administrative History:** Regulation .09D amended effective July 15, 2019 (46:14 Md. R. 622); December 12, 2024 (Md. R. 51:24 1081) **Administrative History:** Regulation .12 amended effective November 6, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978) **Administrative History:** Regulation .12B amended effective December 22, 2014 (41:25 Md. R. 1485) **Administrative History:** Regulation .12B, C amended effective April 19, 2021 (48:8 Md. R. 310) **Administrative History:** Regulation .13 adopted effective December 16, 2019 (46:25 Md. R. 1131) **Administrative History:** Regulation .13 amended effective October 13, 2025 (52:20 Md. R. 1002) #### Regulation .01 Definitions. *COMAR 11.03.01.01* A. As used in these regulations, the following terms have the meanings indicated unless the context requires otherwise. Words not specifically defined that relate to aeronautical practices, processes, and equipment shall be construed according to their general usage in the aviation industry. B. Terms Defined. (1) “Abandoned” means forsake, desert, give up and surrender one’s claim or right. (2) “Administration” means the Maryland Aviation Administration of the Maryland Department of Transportation, established pursuant to the Transportation Article, §2-102(b)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland. (3) “Air carrier” means the commercial system of air transportation consisting of the certified air carriers, supplemental air carriers, and commercial operators of large aircraft. (4) “Airfield operator's permit” means a license issued by the Maryland Aviation Administration for operating motor vehicles, loading bridges, or any other motorized equipment on the air operations area. (5) “Air operations area” means the nonmovement area (taxilanes, loading ramps, apron, parking, cargo areas, and vehicle service roads within the airport operations area used for servicing aircraft and movement of vehicles), and movement area (runways, taxiways, and other areas of the Airport which are used for taxiing, takeoff, and landing of aircraft). (6) “Airport” means Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport (BWI), owned by the State of Maryland and operated by the Maryland Aviation Administration, as it exists or may be developed. (7) “Airport Director” means the Executive Director or the Executive Director's designated representative. (8) “Airport police” means any person vested with a police power of arrest on the Airport and providing police services on behalf of the Maryland Aviation Administration, either as an employee of the Administration or under contract to the Administration. (9) “Airport police office” means an office established in the Airport terminal by the Maryland Aviation Administration for use by the Airport police. (10) “Airport taxicab” means a taxicab driven by an authorized person who is working for, or under contract to, the authorized Airport taxicab concessionaire. (11) “Airport taxicab concessionaire” means a company, partnership, corporation, or proprietorship which holds a contract with the Administration for the provision of taxicab service at the Airport. (12) “Authorized” means acting under or pursuant to a written contract, permit, or other evidence of right issued by the Maryland Aviation Administration. (13) “Authorized signatory” means an individual designated by an Airport tenant or contractor and approved by the Administration to sign for the company and verify that each identification badge applicant for the company has a continuous need for an Airport identification badge. (14) “Bus” means a motor vehicle operated by an appropriately authorized agent on a fixed route and predetermined schedule to and from the Airport. (15) “Combustible liquid” means any liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 100°F. (16) “Commercial activity” means the sale, exchange, trading, buying, merchandising, hiring, marketing, promotion, or selling of commodities, goods, services, or property of any kind, or any revenue-producing activity. (17) “Commercial vehicle” means any vehicle operated in connection with a commercial activity at the Airport as defined by §B(14) of this regulation and Regulation .06A of this chapter. (18) “Courtesy service” means the operation of a business involving transportation of persons, baggage, or message/package delivery to or from the Airport in a courtesy vehicle. (19) “Courtesy vehicle” means a vehicle operated to and from the Airport by a person for the transportation or convenience of its patrons or by a business whose airport activity is directly related to an off-Airport commercial activity. (20) “Curbside” means the curb of the upper or lower motor vehicle ramp adjacent to the terminal building. (21) “Deadheading” means a taxicab being driven to the Airport without a paying passenger in the taxicab. (22) “Derelict vehicle” means very poor condition as a result of disuse and neglect. (23) “Department” means the Maryland Department of Transportation. (24) “Division” means the Division of Transportation and Terminal Services of the Maryland Aviation Administration. (25) “Domestic animal” means any animal of a species usually domesticated in the United States and customarily found in the home. (26) “Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Maryland Aviation Administration, whose office is established pursuant to Transportation Article, §5-202.1, Annotated Code of Maryland, or the Executive Director's authorized representative. (27) Fire Marshal. (a) “Fire marshal” means an individual from the Airport Fire Marshal's Office or a fire prevention inspector who is employed by the BWI Airport Fire and Rescue Department. (b) “Fire marshal” includes any designated representative of the State Fire Marshal's Office. (28) “Fire Prevention Code” means the State Fire Prevention Code as defined in COMAR 29.06.01. (29) “Flammable liquid” means any liquid that has a closed cup flash point below 100ºF. (30) “Grace period” means a period of time not to exceed 120 minutes for which on-Airport rental car businesses do not charge fees for late returns of rental cars. (31) Gross Revenue — Off-Airport Rental Car Business. (a) “Gross revenue — off-Airport rental car business” means all monies paid or payable from Airport customers to the off-Airport rental car business for the rental of its vehicles, or any vehicle-related item or service under a rental agreement with car pick up at the off-Airport site: (i) Regardless of the ownership, area fleet, or location assignment of the vehicles; (ii) Without regard to the manner in which, or place at which, the vehicles are furnished to the rental car business' customers; and (iii) Without regard to whether the vehicles are returned to the off-Airport site or to some other location. (b) “Gross revenue — off-Airport rental car business” includes the total amount billed by the rental car business on its Airport customer invoices, including any separately stated fees and charges related to its rental car business at the off-Airport site. (c) “Gross revenue — off-Airport rental car business” does not include: (i) Federal, State, or local sales, or similar taxes, which are separately stated and collected from customers; (ii) Amounts received as insurance proceeds, or otherwise, for damages to vehicles and other property; (iii) Sums received for loss, conversion, or abandonment of its vehicles; (iv) Sums received from customers under its right to recover from its customers for damages to the rented vehicles to the extent the charges do not exceed the actual cost of repair or replacement; (v) Proceeds from the sale of its vehicles; (vi) Revenues realized as reimbursement for refueling a vehicle rented pursuant to a rental agreement under which the customer is obligated to return the vehicle with the same amount of gasoline furnished at the inception of the rental; and (vii) Revenues realized from advance charges to customers for fuel, pursuant to a rental agreement. (32) “Grounding or bonding” means providing a conductive path to equalize the potential static electricity between fueling equipment and aircraft by use of a cable. (33) “Hazardous waste” means those wastes which are listed by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) or possess the qualities as specified by the EPA in accordance with its criteria as set forth in the Resource Conservation Recovery Act (RCRA) and as defined in COMAR 26.13.02.03. (34) “IBC” has the meaning stated in COMAR 05.02.07.03B(7). (35) “Identification badge” means an official identity card or badge used for the purpose of entering the air operations area and other restricted areas of the Airport, issued and approved by the Administration for Airport employees. (36) “Labeled” means equipment or materials to which has been attached a label, symbol, or other identifying mark of an organization: (a) That is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and is concerned with product evaluation; (b) That maintains periodic inspection of production of labeled equipment or materials; and (c) By whose labeling the manufacturer indicates compliance with appropriate standards or performance in a specified manner. (37) “Law enforcement officer” means any person vested with a police power of arrest under federal, State, county, or city authority, and generally identifiable by uniform, badge, or other indicia of authority. (38) “Limousine” means any motor vehicle having a rated seating capacity of six or more persons, not including the driver, operating to and from the Airport in accordance with a valid certificate issued by the appropriate governmental agency. (39) “Listed” means equipment, materials, or services included in a list published by an organization: (a) That is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction and concerned with evaluation of products or services; (b) That maintains periodic inspection of production of listed equipment or materials; and (c) Whose listing states that either the equipment, material, or service meets identified standards or has been tested and found suitable for a specified purpose. (40) “Motor vehicle” means a device in, upon, or by which a person or property may be propelled, moved, or drawn upon land, except a device moved by human or animal power and except aircraft and devices moved exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks. (41) “Movement area” means the runways, taxiways, and other areas of the Airport that are used for taxiing, takeoff, and landing of aircraft, wherein movement of aircraft is under the control of the Federal Aviation Administration. (42) “NFPA” has the meaning stated in COMAR 29.06.01.05B(5). (43) “Non-Airport taxicab” means any properly licensed taxicab other than an “Airport taxicab”. (44) “Nonmovement area” means the taxilanes, loading ramps, apron, parking, cargo areas, and vehicle service roads within the air operations area used for servicing aircraft and movement of vehicles exclusive of the movement area. (45) “Off-Airport commercial activity” means a commercial activity operated by a business not physically located on Airport property that derives revenue in whole or in part from Airport customers. (46) “Off-Airport rental car business” means a rental car business which: (a) Is not located on Airport property; and (b) Utilizes vehicles to transport Airport patrons to or from the off-Airport rental car business to or from the Airport consolidated rental car facility. (47) “Office of Administrative Hearings (OAH)” means the unit within Maryland's Executive Branch responsible for scheduling and conducting administrative hearings. (48) “On-Airport” means property at Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport which is owned by the State and operated by the Maryland Aviation Administration or its contractors, as it exists or may be developed. (49) “On-Airport rental car business” has the same meaning as “rental vehicle company” stated in Transportation Article, §18-108(a), Annotated Code of Maryland. (50) “Operator” means any person who is in actual physical control of an aircraft or a motor vehicle. (51) “Owner” means a person who holds the legal title of an aircraft or a motor vehicle. If the aircraft or motor vehicle is the subject of conditional sale or lease, with the right of purchase upon performance of the conditions stated in the agreement, and with the immediate right of possession vested in the conditional vendee or lessee or anyone in possession of an aircraft or motor vehicle on the Airport or, if a mortgagor of an aircraft or motor vehicle is entitled to the possession, then the conditional vendee, lessee, or mortgagor shall be deemed the owner. (52) “Permit” means a courtesy/commercial vehicle permit or decal issued to a person or a qualified business permitting use of designated Airport property for conducting commercial activity or courtesy service. (53) “Permit holder” means a qualified business that: (a) Owns, operates, or authorizes a person to operate a permitted commercial or courtesy vehicle as defined in §§B(17) and (19) of this regulation; and (b) Is granted authority to operate commercial and courtesy vehicles by the Maryland Public Service Commission or the Office of Motor Carriers of the Federal Highway Administration. (54) “Person” means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, or joint stock association, and includes any trustee, receiver, committee, assignee, or other representative or employee of one. (55) “Privilege fee” means a certain percent of gross revenue imposed on an off-Airport rental car business by the Administration for the privilege granted to the business to operate a commercial activity on and at the Airport. (56) “Regulations” means these regulations as amended and supplemented. (57) “Restricted area” means airport areas where access by the general public is prohibited or limited to authorized persons only with a business need. (58) “Soliciting” means conducting unauthorized commercial activity including, but not limited to, generating business by speaking, distributing printed material, or any other means. (59) “Solid waste” means any garbage, refuse, sludge, solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous materials which are the by-products of commercial activity, as defined under COMAR 26.03.03 and 26.13.02. (60) “State” means the State of Maryland. (61) “Terminal” means any passenger terminal facility at the Airport, including all roadways and parking facilities associated with it. (62) “Traffic” means pedestrians and vehicles, singly or together, using any Airport area. (63) “Transportation facility charge” means amounts collected by on-Airport rental car businesses to recover actual operation and maintenance costs related to operating a common shuttle bus fleet and a common bus maintenance facility at the Airport. #### Regulation .01-1 Incorporation by Reference. *COMAR 11.03.01.01-1* A. In this subtitle, the following documents are incorporated by reference. B. Documents Incorporated. (1) NFPA 1, Uniform Fire Code, as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.06B(1) and as amended in COMAR 29.06.01.08 and .09. (2) A compendium of Codes and Standards referenced in NFPA 1 as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.06B(2) and as amended in COMAR 29.06.01.07, including: (a) National Electrical Code (NFPA 70); (b) Life Safety Code (NFPA 101); (c) Standard for Aircraft Fuel Servicing (NFPA 407); (d) Standard on Aircraft Hangars (NFPA 409); (e) Standard on Aircraft Maintenance (NFPA 410); and (f) Standard on Airport Terminal Buildings, Fueling Ramp Drainage, and Loading Walkways (NFPA 415). (3) The International Building Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.06B(3). (4) 29 CFR §1910.1200 Toxic and Hazardous Substances, as amended. (5) The certified Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport (BWI) Noise Zone, consisting of the 65, 70, and 75 Ldn contours overprinted on county tax maps as indicated below: (a) Airport Noise Zone Map; (b) Tax Map Index; (c) Anne Arundel County Tax Maps 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, and 15; (d) Howard County Tax Map 44. (6) The Martin State Airport — Airport Noise Zone, certified by the Executive Director, and consisting of the 65, 70, and 75 Ldn contours overprinted on county tax maps as indicated below: (a) Airport Noise Zone Map; (b) Tax Map index; (c) Baltimore County Tax Maps 90 and 91. (7) Airport Design (U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration Advisory Circular 150/5300-13, September 29, 1989, and Changes 1 through 12, January 3, 2008. (8) Heliport Design (U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration Advisory Circular 150/5390-2B, September 30, 2004. C. Incorporation by Reference Locations. Due to limited distribution, the documents incorporated by reference in §B(1), (2), and (3) of this regulation are available for inspection at the following depositories only: (1) Department of Legislative Services, 90 State Circle, Annapolis, MD 21401, (410) 946-5400; (2) Maryland State Law Library, Courts of Appeal Building, 361 Rowe Boulevard, Annapolis, MD 21401, (410) 260-1430; (3) Marshall Law Library, University of Maryland School of Law, 501 West Fayette Street, Baltimore, MD 21201, (410) 706-6502; (4) Hornbake Library, University of Maryland, Marylandia & Rare Books Department, College Park, MD 20742, (301) 405-9210; and (5) State Library Resource Center, Enoch Pratt Free Library, 400 Cathedral Street, Baltimore, MD 21201, (410) 396-1789. #### Regulation .02 Aircraft Rules. *COMAR 11.03.01.02* A. Negligent Operations Prohibited. (1) Operating an aircraft in a careless or negligent manner or in disregard of the rights and safety of others, or without due caution and circumspection or at a speed or in a manner which does or is likely to endanger persons or property, is prohibited. (2) Operation of an aircraft that is so constructed, equipped, or loaded as to endanger or is likely to endanger persons or property is prohibited. B. Compliance with Orders. (1) All aeronautical activities at the Airport shall conform to the current applicable provisions of the Federal Aviation Administration Regulations and Orders, applicable State law, regulations, and orders issued by the Administration or an air traffic controller on duty in the Control Tower. (2) All aircraft operated from the Airport, except aircraft specifically exempt from these requirements by law, shall be registered with the Federal Aviation Administration and shall have a Federal Aviation Administration certificate of air worthiness. (3) The owner of any aircraft based or hangared at the Airport may not operate or allow the operation of that aircraft without a liability insurance policy in force which covers the owner and the pilot for claims by passengers or other persons for injuries to them and their property which might arise out of the operation of the aircraft. (4) The liability insurance policy shall provide coverage for at least $50,000 bodily injury per individual and $100,000 bodily injury per accident, and $50,000 property damage protection. C. Payment of Aircraft Fees. All aircraft operators, upon landing or before take-off, shall register with the Airport Director's office at the terminal building or with the fixed base operator to pay the commercial fees established by the Administration and to receive receipt of payment. Operators of scheduled air carriers operating under special lease contracts or those operators who have established other payment arrangements with the Administration are exempt from these requirements. D. Denial of Use of Airport. The Airport Director may deny the use of the Airport to any pilot in violation of these regulations and shall have the authority to close the Airport or any portion of it to air operations or to any specific aircraft or class of aircraft, if in his opinion the use of the Airport by the aircraft might endanger persons or property or jeopardize the operational efficiency of the Airport. E. Aircraft Accidents. (1) Any person operating an aircraft who is involved in an accident on the Airport resulting in injury to any person or damage to any property, shall stop the aircraft at the scene of the accident, notify the Control Tower and the Airport Director, and comply with applicable provisions of Part 430, National Transportation Safety Board Regulations. (2) Aircraft operators who are involved in accidents on the Airport, and the owner of the aircraft, if other than the operator, shall make a full written report of the accident to the Airport Director within 24 hours after the accident, or as soon as possible, and shall include the names and addresses of the individuals involved, the registration and license number of the aircraft involved, the name of the insurance company shown on the liability insurance policy, the binder or policy number, and all other information relevant to the accident. (3) An aircraft involved in an accident may not be removed from the scene of the accident until clearance to do so has been granted by the Federal Aviation Administration, the National Transportation Safety Board, and the Administration. (4) Damage to any airfield lighting equipment or fixtures by means of contact with an aircraft shall be reported immediately to the Airport Director by the individual involved who is fully responsible for damage as covered in §F of this regulation. F. Damage to Airport. (1) In the event of damage to Airport property from any type of accident, crash, or fire, or resulting from any malfunction or operation, the owner or operator of the aircraft involved is responsible to the Administration for the damage, the amount of which is to be ascertained by the Executive Director who shall require payment by the owner or operator. (2) If the owner or operator fails or refuses to pay the amount of the claim for damage, a full report of the circumstances on which the claim is based and a copy of the claim shall be forwarded to counsel for the Administration, who may institute all necessary legal proceedings for collection of the claim. G. Removal of Disabled Aircraft. (1) Aircraft owners, operators, and Airport tenants promptly shall remove disabled aircraft and parts of disabled aircraft from the Airport unless required or directed to delay removal by the Administration or a federal agency. (2) Disabled aircraft may not block the air operations area unnecessarily. When a disabled aircraft is blocking or delaying the opening or use of any portion of the air operations areas, the owner or operator of the aircraft shall make immediate arrangements to have the aircraft moved. If removal of the aircraft is not initiated as soon as is reasonably possible or is not progressing at a reasonable rate, the Airport Director may have the aircraft moved at the expense and risk of the owner. H. Enplaning and Deplaning. (1) Passengers and cargo shall be enplaned and deplaned only in areas designated by the Administration. If an aircraft is loaded or unloaded at ground level, passengers shall be channeled through established routes across the aircraft apron area under the direction and supervision of the aircraft owner or operator or designated representatives of the aircraft owner or operator. (2) General aviation and noncommercial aircraft operators using the terminal apron facilities for loading or unloading passengers and cargo shall obtain prior permission from the Airport Director. The operator also shall make prior arrangements for ground and passenger services including sky cap services for passenger luggage. I. Cleaning and Maintaining Aircraft. Aircraft cleaning, painting, washing, polishing, or other maintenance shall be conducted only in the areas and under the conditions designated by the Administration's representative according to NFPA 1 Uniform Fire Code. J. Refusal of Clearance. The Airport Director may prohibit aircraft operations when, in the Director's judgment, conditions are such that continued operations would be unsafe or unwise. The Airport Director has the authority to issue a Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) to close or open the Airport, or any portion of it. K. Radio Communication. Operating aircraft shall be equipped with functioning two-way radio, tunable to and capable of operating on the appropriate frequencies for Tower and Ground Control. Persons who land in emergencies without radio equipment shall obtain departure approval from the Airport Director and the Control Tower. L. Aircraft Equipment. Fixed wing aircraft operated on the Airport shall be equipped with a tail or nose wheel, and wheel brakes. M. Landing and Taking Off. (1) Operators taking off an aircraft from the Airport shall do so only on the runway or helipad assigned by, and after clearance has been obtained from, the Control Tower. (2) Operators landing an aircraft shall comply fully with the air traffic control instructions and runway assignments given by the Control Tower. (3) Locked wheel turns are prohibited. (4) All persons operating aircraft in the Airport control zone as described in the Airman's Information Manual shall comply with current established traffic control procedures and shall operate within established traffic patterns as promulgated jointly by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the Airport Director, unless specifically authorized to do otherwise by the FAA Control Tower. (5) Simulated emergencies which require special handling by the Control Tower are prohibited within the Airport control zone as described in the Airman's Information Manual. N. Airport Marking and Lighting. All aircraft operations shall obey all Airport lighting and pavement marking signals. O. Motorless Aircraft. Landing at or taking off from the Airport in a motorless aircraft is prohibited except in cases where prior permission has been granted by the Airport Director and clearance has been obtained from the Control Tower. P. Student Pilots. (1) Student pilots who operate aircraft on the Airport shall be accompanied by a certificated flight instructor unless they are certified as competent to conduct solo operations by the chief instructor of any flight school based at the Airport under a formal lease agreement with the Administration. Student pilots who conduct solo flight operations are required to give prior notice of their student status to Air Traffic Control (e.g., “Cessna 1234—Student pilot requesting landing clearance”). (2) A student pilot may not make his initial solo flight at the Airport. Q. Airport Operational Restrictions. (1) The following types of operations may be conducted at the Airport only with the prior authorization of the Airport Director: (a) Training flights; (b) Experimental or demonstration flights; (c) Air shows involving stunt flying or aerobatics. (2) Equipment demonstrations on the ground also require the prior authorization of the Airport Director. R. Starting and Running Aircraft Engines. (1) Starting, running, or operating an aircraft by persons other than licensed pilots, licensed mechanics, or student pilots, is prohibited. (2) It is prohibited to start an aircraft engine unless blocks or chocks are placed in front of the wheels or unless parking brakes are in the applied position. (3) Aircraft engines may be operated only in places designated by the Administration. Unnecessary engine running is prohibited. (4) Run-up of jet or turboprop engines (for purposes other than take-off preparation) is prohibited except in areas and at times designated by the Airport Director. (5) It is prohibited to leave an aircraft unattended with engines running. S. Radio Ground Control. Any person who taxis or tows an aircraft within the movement area shall monitor the ground control frequency being used by the Control Tower and remain in direct communication with the Control Tower at all times. T. Propeller Slipstream and Jet Blast. Any person who positions, starts, or runs-up engines or who taxis an aircraft is required to exercise due care to assure that propeller slipstream or jet blast will not cause injury to persons, scatter debris, or damage property on the Airport or in areas adjacent to the Airport. U. Pushing, Towing, Backing and Taxiing of Aircraft. Pushing, towing, backing, and taxiing of aircraft shall be done at a safe and reasonable speed and with due care to assure that there is no danger of collision with any person or object in the immediate area. Aircraft may be pushed, towed, backed, or taxied into or within a movement area only under the control and instructions of the Control Tower. V. Aircraft Parking. (1) Aircraft may be parked at a gate position only for the purpose of enplaning and deplaning passengers. (2) When an aircraft gate position on the unleased portion of the terminal apron is not needed for other aircraft, an aircraft operator, following assignment to that gate, may park at the gate position for as long as he chooses subject only to the rate schedule established by the Administration. (3) When an aircraft gate position on the unleased portion of the terminal apron is needed for other aircraft, an aircraft operator to whom the gate position is assigned may park at the gate position only for the maximum allowable turnaround time established by the Administration or permitted by lease for his aircraft type. Failure of the aircraft operator to remove the aircraft from the gate position within the allotted maximum time shall subject the aircraft owner, in addition to any other penalties prescribed by these regulations, to a ramp penalty charge of $50 for each additional 30 minutes or less of parking, or removal of the aircraft from the gate position at the owner's risk and expense, or both. (4) Operators of private, itinerant, nonscheduled, or military aircraft may use the terminal apron only for enplaning and deplaning passengers and cargo. Operators desiring to use the terminal apron for any other purpose are required to obtain the prior authorization of the Airport Director. (5) Only with the approval of the Airport Director is an operator of a private, itinerant, nonscheduled, or military aircraft permitted to use an aircraft gate position assigned for scheduled air carrier use. (6) Aircraft may be parked at the Airport terminal building only in positions and orientations established by the Administration or permitted by lease. (7) Aircraft may be double-parked at a terminal gate position only with prior approval of the Airport Director. (8) Aircraft may not be parked anywhere on the Airport in a position blocking access through hangar doors, unless permission to do so has been obtained from the Airport Director or the operator having jurisdiction over the hangars. (9) Aircraft may be parked and stored at the Airport only in designated areas. Aircraft found to be in violation of this regulation will be removed by the Airport Director at the risk and expense of the owner. (10) Any person parking an aircraft on a public aircraft parking area shall comply with the procedures established by the Administration. Fees for aircraft parking are governed by the Administration's rate schedule. (11) Any person parking and leaving an aircraft is required to assure that it is properly tied down and that the landing gear is chocked with wheel blocks or other approved devices. (12) Cargo may be loaded on or unloaded from an aircraft only in designated areas. (13) Except in a public parking area in compliance with the procedures established by the Administration, an aircraft may not be parked on any portion of the Airport without the express permission of the Administration. Upon instruction from the Airport Director, the operator of any aircraft parked or stored on the Airport shall move the aircraft to any other designated place on the Airport. If the operator refuses to comply with the instruction, the Airport Director may order the aircraft towed to a designated place at the operator's risk and expense. W. Aircraft Lights. Operators taxiing or towing an aircraft during periods of low visibility shall keep the aircraft's navigational lights fully illuminated. X. Removal of Passengers from Aircraft. At the request of the owner or operator of an aircraft, Airport law enforcement officers may use reasonable force to remove from the aircraft any person who creates a nuisance or a threat to persons, property, or aircraft operations. Y. Derelict Aircraft. (1) Abandoning aircraft anywhere on the Airport is prohibited. The Airport Director may remove derelict aircraft from the Airport at the sole risk and expense of the owner or operator. (2) Storage and retention of aircraft parts or components being held as inventory is permissible only in enclosed facilities that have been approved by the Administration for that purpose and in accordance with NFPA 1 Uniform Fire Code, Chapter 10 and Chapter 34. Z. Based Aircraft. It is prohibited to base an aircraft at the Airport unless a written agreement has been obtained from the Administration or a fixed base operator. #### Regulation .03 Fire Hazards. *COMAR 11.03.01.03* A. Cleaning of Equipment. The use of flammable or combustible liquids in the cleaning of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or other appliances, equipment, or parts of aircraft is prohibited, unless those cleaning operations are conducted in facilities specifically approved by the Administration for that purpose and are performed in accordance with COMAR 29.06.01. B. Cleaning Fluids. All cleaning fluids of a vaporizing nature shall be stored or transported in containers with dispensing devices which comply with the applicable sections of COMAR 29.06.01. C. Open Flame Operations. Open flame operations may be conducted on the Airport only after obtaining either a Welding and Burning permit or a Special Use permit through the Airport Fire Marshal's Office. D. Storage of Material. (1) The storage of combustible materials in hangars at the Airport shall be conducted in accordance with NFPA 1 Uniform Fire Code, Chapter 10 and Chapter 34. (2) The height of stored material may not exceed that of the lower or bottom side of roof trusses or of a point 18 inches below sprinkler lines or heads, whichever is lower. Storage areas shall have spaces between them as well as aisles throughout the areas of sufficient size to allow passage of fire department personnel and equipment. Sufficient spaces for aisles shall be determined through inspection by the fire marshal in compliance with COMAR 29.06.01. E. Storage of Hazardous Material. (1) Flammable and combustible liquids, gases, explosives, signal flares, or other hazardous materials shall be stored and kept in containers and receptacles and in structures and areas specifically approved by the fire marshal in accordance with COMAR 29.06.01. (2) Tenants and concessionaires shall ensure that drums and containers are properly marked in accordance with 29 CFR §1910.1200. (3) In addition to the labeling requirements of 29 CFR §1910.1200, each tenant and concessionaire shall mark its drums and containers with its company name and date of initial receipt of the item on the Airport premises. (4) Tenants and concessionaires shall properly store drums and containers and shall ensure proper disposal of materials in accordance with COMAR 26.13.03. (5) Tenants and concessionaires shall provide adequate documentation regarding the contents of drums and containers to inspectors of the Administration, the Maryland Department of the Environment, or other law enforcement agency. (6) If as a result of a routine inspection of the Airport premises an improperly marked or stored drum or container is found, the tenant or concessionaire shall be cited. The tenant or concessionaire shall correct the deficiency within 1 working day. This inspection may be conducted by the fire marshal or representatives of the Administration, the Maryland Department of the Environment, or the Maryland Division of Labor and Industry. (7) If the tenant or concessionaire fails to correct the noted deficiency, the Administration may correct the deficiency or cause it to be corrected by a private contractor at the expense of the responsible party. (8) Owners of containers which have been apparently abandoned and consequently collected by the Administration and placed in storage shall be charged for all costs incurred by the Administration in connection with them, including: (a) Removal to storage; (b) Storage fees; (c) Chemical analysis; (d) Disposal; (e) Record keeping; and (f) Any actions required by federal and State statute or regulation. F. Airport Hazardous Material Spill Decontamination Procedures. (1) Spills involving flammable materials, regardless of size, shall be reported immediately to the Administration. (2) The tenant or agency responsible for causing the spill shall provide for cleanup of the spill by either calling in a commercial organization which is licensed through the Maryland Department of the Environment to clean up and remove the spilled material or by accomplishing the cleanup itself. (3) If the tenant or agency accomplishes the cleanup, all contaminated absorbents, fuel-soaked rags, or other materials shall be placed in approved containers and removed by a licensed handler as specified in §F(2) of this regulation. (4) If, in the event of a spill, a determination is made by the Administration that outside assistance must be obtained for removal of spilled materials, the tenant or agency responsible for the spill shall call a commercial organization as specified in §F(2) of this regulation. If the tenant or agency fails to call for this additional assistance, the Administration shall request assistance from the Maryland Department of the Environment or a commercial organization. The tenant or agency shall be charged for the cost of this service. (5) The tenant or agency shall file a report of the spill in accordance with COMAR 26.10.08.04. (6) The tenant or agency shall furnish the Administration with a list of names and telephone numbers of persons to be contacted in the event of a hazardous material spill. (7) The Administration shall maintain a current list of commercial organizations which can be called upon to accomplish cleanup and removal of a hazardous material spill at the Airport. (8) In the event of a sewage spill, the tenant or agency shall decontaminate all affected equipment. A sewage spill may not be flushed so as to contaminate storm drains, surface waters, or streams. (9) Disposal of all contaminated materials shall be conducted in accordance with §F(2)—4), above. (10) Other spills shall be handled by the tenant or agency in the same manner as the procedures for hazardous material spills and sewage spills. (11) The tenant or agency shall be charged by the Administration standard rates and fees for all labor, equipment, and materials that the Administration may provide in support of these activities. G. Lubricating Oils. (1) Lubricating oils shall be stored, kept, or transported in containers and receptacles, and in structures and areas, specifically approved by the fire marshal for these purposes in compliance with the applicable sections of COMAR 29.06.01. (2) The storage of empty lubricating oil drums or cans on the Airport is prohibited, except in approved areas designated by the Administration in compliance with the applicable sections of COMAR 26.13.03. (3) Petroleum products or objectionable industrial waste matter shall be discharged only into pans or containers provided for that purpose in compliance with applicable sections of COMAR 29.06.01 and shall be disposed of in a manner approved by the Administration. (4) A company transporting oil on the Airport shall possess a valid Oil Operations Permit issued by the Waste Management Administration in accordance with COMAR 26.10.01.16. H. Waste. The storage of oily waste, rags, and other rubbish and trash at the Airport is prohibited unless they are in suitable metal receptacles with operating self-closing covers as approved by COMAR 29.06.01. All waste within this general classification shall be removed daily from the Airport premises. I. Smoking. (1) Smoking is prohibited within the fuel farm, except in an area outside and designated by the Administration. (2) Smoking or carrying lighted cigars, cigarettes, pipes, matches, or any open flame within the air operations area or any building owned or leased by the Administration is prohibited. J. Floor Care. The accumulation of oil, grease, or other flammable material on the floors of the Airport is prohibited. The floors of hangars and other buildings shall be cleaned daily and continuously kept free of rags, waste material, or other trash or rubbish. K. Care of Aircraft Ramp, Apron, and Parking Areas. (1) Any person, including the operator of an aircraft, who causes overflowing or spilling of oil, grease, fuel, or any similar material anywhere on the Airport, is responsible for the immediate cleanup of the area. If that person fails to clean the area, the Airport Director may provide the necessary cleaning and charge the responsible person for the expense. The cleaning of aircraft ramp areas, aprons, and parking areas shall be conducted in accordance with NFPA 410 Aircraft Maintenance. (2) Any person who observes any unsafe conditions on the ramp is required to notify the Airport Director. L. Doping, Spray Painting, and Paint Stripping. (1) Doping processes, spray painting, or paint stripping operations are permitted only in properly designed, ventilated buildings or areas that are approved by COMAR 29.06.01. (2) Only persons who are properly clothed for safety and self-protection are permitted to enter or work in a doping or spray painting room while doping and spray painting operations are being conducted. M. Fire Extinguishers. All fire extinguishing equipment shall be maintained in accordance with COMAR 29.06.01. N. Eye Hazards. The use of any material, such as an oil absorbent or similar material, that creates an eye hazard when picked up, swirled, or blown about by the blast from an aircraft engine is prohibited in any passenger loading area or other public area of the Airport. O. Operating Motor Vehicles in Hangars. Operating a tractor, tug, or other motor vehicle without protective screens or baffles to prevent the escape of sparks or flames in any hangar or other building used for aircraft maintenance when an aircraft is present is prohibited, except in an emergency. Storage/parking/maintenance of motor vehicles in any hangar is prohibited. P. Grounding or Bonding of Aircraft. Aircraft in hangars shall be grounded or bonded for removal and control of static electrical accumulations on aircraft while aircraft are undergoing service or repair in accordance with NFPA 409, Aircraft Hangars. Aircraft being serviced on the Airport ramp or other designated area shall be grounded or bonded for removal and control of static electrical accumulations in accordance with NFPA 407, Aircraft Fuel Servicing. Q. Motorized Ground Equipment Near Aircraft or Hangars. In parking motorized ground equipment, the operator shall position it so that it can be readily driven or towed away from the aircraft or hangars in case of an emergency. R. Repairing of Aircraft. Except for minor adjustments, an aircraft may be repaired only in an area specifically designated by the Administration. S. Operating Aircraft Engines in Hangars. Except for the air rotation of jet aircraft without ignition, starting or operating aircraft engines inside any hangar is prohibited. T. Heating Systems in Hangars. The installation and operation of any heating system or device is prohibited in any hangar at the Airport other than systems or devices listed or labeled by an independent testing laboratory or facility as suitable for use in heating aircraft hangars. Those systems and devices shall be installed in the manner prescribed by and standards set forth in NFPA 70, National Electrical Code, and NFPA 409, Aircraft Hangars. The use of portable aircraft engine heating equipment is prohibited inside any aircraft hangar. Only listed or labeled, and Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) approved, equipment shall be used. U. Electrical Equipment and Lighting Systems. (1) All electrical equipment shall be in accordance with NFPA 70, National Electrical. (2) The use of a portable lamp without a protective guard or shield in any maintenance shelter or hangar is prohibited. (3) Power-operated equipment or electrical devices shall be turned off while not in actual use. (4) New or additional electrical equipment or wiring installed in any aircraft hangar shall be in accordance with NFPA 70, National Electrical Code, and NFPA 409, Aircraft Hangars. #### Regulation .03-1 Dangerous Articles. *COMAR 11.03.01.03-1* A. Explosives, Corrosives, Poisons, and Radiological Materials. The storing, retaining, handling, using, dispensing, or transporting of any Class A explosive or hazardous material (as defined by the “Hazardous Material Regulation of the U.S. Department of Transportation”) requires a Special Use permit authorized by the Airport Director and issued by the fire marshal under COMAR 29.06.01. B. Detonators such as blasting caps, electric blasting caps, and detonating primers shall be stored in a separate magazine for blasting supplies and may not be stored in a magazine with other explosive materials. C. Detonators shall be stored in a Type 1, 2, or 3 magazine, except that electrical blasting caps having leg wires at least 4 feet long may be stored in a Type 4 magazine. Whenever specific types of magazines are required by COMAR 29.06.01, magazines of higher classifications may be permitted to be substituted. D. Explosive materials that are bullet-sensitive shall be stored in a Type 1, 2, or 3 magazine. E. Explosive materials that are not cap-sensitive shall be stored in a Type 4 or 5 magazine. F. Magazines shall be in the charge of a competent person at all times who shall be at least 21 years old or a member of the Armed Services, and who shall be held responsible for the enforcement of all safety precautions. G. Magazine doors shall be kept locked, except during the time of placement and removal of stocks of explosives or during inspection. H. Safety rules governing the operation of magazines shall be posted on the interior of the magazine door. I. Smoking, carrying lighted matches, open flames, spark-producing devices, and firearms (except firearms carried by authorized guards) are prohibited inside or within 50 feet of magazines. J. The land surrounding magazines shall be kept clear of brush, dried grass, leaves, and similar combustibles for a distance of at least 25 feet. K. Combustible materials may not be stored within 50 feet of magazines. L. Aircraft involved in loading, unloading, reloading, or temporarily retaining Class A explosives or blasting agents shall be parked on the Airport in areas designated by the Administration. Class B and C explosives shall be handled in the same manner when compliance is considered necessary by the Administration to ensure public safety. M. Explosive cargo shall be transported to and from the designated parking areas in vehicles equipped in accordance with federal regulations. N. A carrier of explosive cargo shall notify the Administration at least 12 hours before the scheduled arrival of the aircraft involved. The Administration will then issue the appropriate NOTAMs. O. Carriers of explosive cargo shall notify the Administration immediately upon arrival of explosives at the Airport and shall also notify a consignee or handling agent who shall remove the explosive cargo from the Airport within 48 hours of notification. P. Clothes Lockers. Only metal clothes lockers may be used. #### Regulation .03-2 Fueling and Defueling. *COMAR 11.03.01.03-2* A. General Requirements. (1) The provisions of this section govern the fueling and defueling of aircraft at the Airport. (2) The fueling or defueling of an aircraft is prohibited while an engine or engines of the aircraft are operating. (3) The operation of any electrical appliance in an aircraft is prohibited when the aircraft is being fueled or defueled. (4) During the fueling or defueling of an aircraft, the aircraft fueling and defueling equipment (such as hoses and funnels) shall be electrically grounded or bonded. (5) When a fuel spill occurs at or near a fuel delivery device, the Administration shall be notified immediately. Valves and dome covers shall be shut down and the fueling vehicle shall remain in place until the arrival of fire department vehicles. If the engine of the fueling vehicle is running at the time of the fuel spill, it shall remain running until orders otherwise are issued by the fire department incident commander at the scene. Conversely, if the engine of the fueling vehicle is shut down at the time of the fuel spill, it shall remain shut down until the fire department incident commander at the scene orders the vehicle removed. Fueling or defueling operations may not resume following a fuel spill until all affected areas are thoroughly cleaned. (6) Only fueling/defueling personnel, and other personnel expressly authorized by an air carrier in accordance with approved operating procedures, are permitted within 50 feet of an aircraft during fueling and defueling operations. Fueling operators shall possess an Oil Operator's Certificate issued in accordance with COMAR 26.10.01. (7) A person may not be aboard an aircraft during fueling or defueling unless a cabin attendant is present at or near the cabin door and unless a passenger boarding ramp or bridge is in place at the cabin door. (8) During fueling or defueling, the use of any material which may cause a static spark is prohibited. (9) Fueling or defueling operations may not begin unless fire extinguishers are within ready reach. (10) Starting the engine of an aircraft when there is any flammable or combustible liquid on the ground in the vicinity of the aircraft is prohibited. (11) It is prohibited to fuel or defuel an aircraft with any equipment or apparatus which is not in a safe, sound, and nonleaking condition. B. The fueling and defueling of aircraft and the maintenance of an aircraft fueling system may not be conducted within 50 feet of any hangar or other building, except as conducted in compliance with: (1) NFPA 407 Aircraft Fuel Servicing; and (2) NFPA 410 Aircraft Maintenance. C. Parking fueling vehicles in areas other than those assigned by the Administration except for the accomplishment of minor adjustments or repairs necessary to move the vehicle to a designated storage or repair area is prohibited. Fuel trucks, empty or otherwise, are not permitted within any building at the Airport unless the building is properly designed and equipped for fuel truck repair purposes. Fueling or defueling aircraft in any building is strictly prohibited. D. An operator may not back a fueling vehicle anywhere on the Airport unless an attendant is present outside the fueling vehicle to assist. E. Fueling operations shall be stopped when a fire is detected within 300 feet. F. The operation or ground testing of airborne radar equipment is prohibited except in areas approved for that purpose. Aircraft radar directional beams may not be operated near another aircraft, fueling operations, fueling trucks or flammable liquid storage when the high intensity beam emitter is within a 300-foot radius or the low intensity beam emitter is within a 100-foot radius. #### Regulation .04 Control of Vehicular Traffic on the Air Operations Area. *COMAR 11.03.01.04* A. Authority to Operate on the Air Operations Area. The only motor vehicle operations permitted on the air operations area are those expressly authorized by the Airport Director, who shall identify the motor vehicles by registration. Permanent registration shall be extended on the basis of need only to Airport activities whose operations are formalized by contract with the Administration. Temporary registration may be extended to agencies whose business is directly related to the aviation activity of the Airport when access to the air operations area is considered necessary to the conduct of business. B. Traffic Control. (1) All motor vehicle operators are required to obey all posted regulatory signs, traffic signals, and all instructions by the Control Tower, the Airport Director, or by an officer charged with traffic control and enforcement. (2) Radio Equipped Vehicle. (a) Operators of vehicles with two-way radio equipment and who possess a valid airfield operator's permit and are authorized by the Airport Director to enter upon the movement area shall first establish and maintain radio contact with the Control Tower and obtain Control Tower authorization to proceed. (b) Operators of vehicles with two-way radio equipment and who possess a valid airfield operator's permit and are authorized by the Airport Director and desiring to cross an active runway shall first obtain specific clearance to do so from the Control Tower. (3) Vehicles Without Radio Equipment. Vehicles without two-way radio equipment are not permitted to enter, or operate within, the movement area unless escorted by an authorized radio equipped vehicle that is in contact with the Control Tower. (4) To supplement control of traffic by radio, the Control Tower also uses standard light signals. It is the responsibility of all vehicle operators to be familiar with these signals and to comply with them when they are in use. C. Operations Near Aircraft. (1) Aircraft servicing vehicles designated for a specific airport are the only motor vehicles that may pass within 20 feet of a parked aircraft. (2) Motor vehicles may not be operated between an aircraft and terminal concourses while passengers are enplaning or deplaning. (3) Aircraft servicing vehicles may not be operated on the loading ramp unless the aircraft to be serviced has come to a complete stop at its designated loading position. (4) Vehicles shall pass only to the rear of taxiing aircraft. D. Designated Vehicular and Pedestrian Routes. (1) Vehicle operators shall use marked roadways and may not use the ramp or cargo areas as a short cut. (2) Vehicle operators who are authorized to pass through a terminal underpass before entering and again before exiting the underpass shall come first to a complete stop. (3) Pedestrians desiring to walk between terminal concourses shall remain within 50 feet of the terminal building at all times to remain clear of the taxilane. E. Speed Limits. (1) Except for authorized emergency vehicles, the maximum allowable speed for a motor vehicle on the outer ramp road is 15 miles per hour. (2) Except for authorized emergency vehicles, the maximum allowable speed for any vehicle within 20 feet of a parked aircraft is 5 miles per hour. (3) Except for authorized emergency vehicles, the maximum allowable speed for a vehicle on the inner ramp road (adjacent to the main Terminal) is 5 miles per hour. (4) The maximum allowable vehicle speed in the main terminal baggage make-up and delivery areas is 4 miles per hour (brisk walking speed). (5) Except for authorized emergency vehicles, the maximum allowable speed for a motor vehicle on connecting ramp roadways, aircraft parking ramps, aprons, and in hangar areas is 10 miles per hour. (6) Except for authorized emergency vehicles, the maximum allowable speed limit for a motor vehicle on the cargo ramp roadway is 20 miles per hour. F. Careless Driving. Motor vehicle operations on the air operations area shall be conducted in a careful and prudent manner reflecting due consideration of driving circumstances so as not to endanger the life, limb, or property of any person. G. Safety Equipment. (1) Motor vehicles operated on the air operations area shall be properly maintained in accordance with all Airport standard operating procedures. (2) Motor Vehicle Lights. (a) Operation of a motor vehicle on the air operations area is prohibited if any of its headlights or tail lights are inoperative. (b) Persons operating motor vehicles on the air operations area shall keep the vehicle's headlights and tail lights fully illuminated between the hours of sunset and sunrise and at all times when passing through unlighted or poorly lighted areas or when visibility is restricted. (c) If a stalled motor vehicle is left on the air operations area between the hours of sunset and sunrise, either its parking lights shall be illuminated or warning lights shall be posted. (d) The headlights of a motor vehicle on the air operations area shall be adequate to meet State requirements in addition to those of the Administration. (e) Baggage, cargo carts, and trailers operating on the air operations area shall be equipped with at least two yellow reflectors on each side and two red reflectors on the rear or marked with reflectorized tape as approved by the Administration. (f) Motor vehicles operating on a taxiway or runway shall be equipped with flashing amber identification lights on top of the vehicle. (g) It is preferred that motor vehicles operating on the air operations area be equipped with headlight dimmer switches. Vehicles not so equipped that are approved for operating on the air operations area shall have headlight beams focused to strike the ground not more than 50 feet ahead of the vehicle. (3) Motor Vehicle Brakes. (a) Operators are required to test the vehicle's brakes before commencing any operation on the air operations area. (b) All motor vehicles operated on the air operations area shall be equipped with an emergency brake capable of holding the vehicle on a 30-degree grade. (4) Motor Vehicle Windows and Mirrors. (a) All motor vehicles operated on the air operations area shall be equipped with at least one mirror, so adjusted that the operator of the vehicle has a clear view for a distance of at least 200 feet to the rear unless the vehicle is a specialized service vehicle not licensed for general highway use and having an open cab which provides the driver with unobstructed, 360-degree visibility. (b) Windows of any motor vehicle operated on the air operations area shall be free of cracks, blisters, discoloration, or any other defect causing distortion or obstruction to the vision of the operator. (c) Posters, stickers, signs, or other objects on the windows of a motor vehicle operating on the air operations area, other than those required by the Administration or by law, are prohibited. (5) All motor vehicles approved for operating on the air operations area are subject to inspection as prescribed by the Administration. H. Emergency Vehicles and Conditions. (1) Emergency conditions existing on the air operations area do not mitigate or cancel any existing regulations. (2) Under emergency conditions such as an aircraft accident or fire, access to the scene is denied to all vehicles or persons except those whose duties require their presence. The Airport Director shall determine when normal operations may be resumed. I. Occupants of Motor Vehicles. (1) While on the air operations area, riding on the outside of a moving motor vehicle, or riding with arms or legs protruding from the body of the vehicle is prohibited. Standing up in a moving motor vehicle is prohibited unless the vehicle is designed and intended for this purpose. (2) Passengers, other than those permitted by these regulations or by other applicable law, are not permitted in any motor vehicle on the air operations area. (3) Seat belts shall be worn in accordance with State motor vehicle laws and regulations on the air operations area. J. Tugs and Trailers. (1) Towing of a train of more than six baggage carts is prohibited on the air operations area. (2) Any trailer or semitrailer operated on the air operations area shall be equipped with proper brakes so that when disengaged from the towing vehicle it will not become free-rolling. (3) All towed equipment operated on the air operations area shall be equipped with positive locking couplings. (4) Tugs, trailers, baggage, or cargo carts shall be returned to an assigned storage area immediately following their use with the brakes set in the locked position. K. Yielding Right-of-Way. (1) Any person operating a motor vehicle on the air operations area shall yield the right-of-way to aircraft in motion or aircraft with engines running, ready to be put in motion. (2) Any person operating a motor vehicle across or into vehicle traffic lanes on the air operations area shall yield the right-of-way to vehicles already in those lanes. (3) All persons operating motor vehicles on the air operations area shall pass to the right of approaching vehicles. (4) All persons operating motor vehicles on the air operations area shall yield right-of-way to emergency vehicles. L. Parking. (1) Parking on the air operations area, except at places designated by the Airport Director, is prohibited. (2) Parking within 15 feet of any fire hydrant or other fire control apparatus is prohibited. (3) Parking on the air operations area which interferes with or prevents the passage or movement of aircraft or emergency or other motor vehicles is prohibited. Vehicles in violation of this regulation may be removed by the Airport Director at the expense and risk of the owner or operator. (4) Parking within 200 feet of the edge of a runway is prohibited. (5) A motor vehicle may not be left unattended with the motor running unless properly chocked and authorized by the Airport Director. (6) Parking within the triple yellow lines that denote the movement area of a loading bridge is prohibited. M. Motor Vehicle Accidents. (1) A person operating a motor vehicle on the air operations area, who is involved in an accident resulting in injury to any person or damage to any property, shall stop the vehicle at the scene or as close as possible without obstructing traffic, notify the Airport Director, and remain at the scene of the accident until he has given a full report to the investigating officer. Upon request, any relevant permit, license, registration, or other document shall be shown to the investigating officer. (2) A person operating a motor vehicle on the air operations area who is involved in an accident as defined in §M(1) of this regulation and the owner, if other than the operator, shall make a full written report of the accident to the Airport Director within 24 hours after the accident. The report shall include the names and addresses of the individuals involved, a description of the property or vehicles involved, the registration and license numbers of the vehicles involved, and any other relevant information. N. Repair of Motor Vehicles. Cleaning, repairing, maintaining, or overhauling of motor vehicles or other equipment is prohibited on the air operations area, except in an approved shop area. O. Contractors' Access and Use of Premises. (1) Construction vehicles and equipment shall use only those entrances and exits designated by the Administration. (2) Construction vehicles and equipment shall enter and exit the airfield area only during times specified in writing by the Airport Director. (3) When not in use, construction vehicles and equipment may not remain at a work site on the airfield area without the written authorization of the Airport Director. (4) Construction vehicles and equipment that have the written authorization of the Airport Director to remain at a work site when not in use shall be marked and lighted so they will not be hazardous to other vehicles and aircraft. (5) Construction vehicles and equipment that are operated by individuals with a valid airfield operator's permit and authorized to operate in the movement area may not operate on or move across an active runway unless they are either in two-way radio contact with the Control Tower, or escorted by an authorized vehicle which is in two-way radio contact with the Control Tower. P. Vehicle Identification and Escort Rules. (1) Vehicles authorized permanent access to the air operations area shall be clearly marked with the company name, logo, or other identification acceptable to the Administration. (2) Vehicles authorized temporary access to the air operations area shall display conspicuously on the windshield an “Official Permit” issued by the Administration. (3) Vehicles not authorized access to the air operations area as in §P(1) and (2) of this regulation shall be escorted by Administration personnel or authorized personnel of an Airport tenant. Q. Airfield Operator's Permit. (1) An Airfield Operator's Permit is required for all individuals who operate a motor vehicle, a loading bridge, or any other motorized equipment on the air operations area. The Administration has a three-tier system for its Airfield Operator’s Permit: (a) Tier 1 is designated for those individuals requiring access to only non-movement areas of the air operations area. An Airfield Operator’s Permit designated as tier 1 shall have a V/P or V/P/L on the individual’s identification badge. (b) Tier 2 is designated for those individuals requiring access to nonmovement areas and limited access to movement areas of the air operations area. An Airfield Operator’s Permit designated as tier 2 shall have a V/P/T on the individual’s identification badge. (c) Tier 3 is designated for those individuals requiring unrestricted access to the non-movement and movement areas of the air operations area. An Airfield Operator’s Permit designated as tier 3 shall have a V/P/R on the individual’s identification badge. (2) An applicant for an Airfield Operator's Permit shall obtain a Request for Access/PIN Change form and the Equipment Training Record form from the Administration. (3) An applicant for an Airfield Operator's Permit of any tier shall possess a valid motor vehicle operator's license from any state. Applicants for an Airfield Operator's Permit shall successfully complete the following: (a) Tier 1: The Non-movement Area Airfield Operator’s Permit written examination with a minimum score of 80 percent. The applicant shall also complete recurrent non-movement area training on a bi-annual basis. (b) Tier 2: The Non-movement Area Airfield Operator’s Permit written examination with a minimum score of 80 percent and the Movement Area Airfield Operator’s Permit written examination with a minimum score of 90 percent. The applicant shall also complete recurrent movement area training on an annual basis. (c) Tier 3: The Non-movement Area Airfield Operator’s Permit written examination with a minimum score of 80 percent, the Movement Area Airfield Operator’s Permit written examination with a minimum score of 90 percent, and a daytime and nighttime movement area practical driving test as follows: (i) Daytime and Nighttime Practical Driving Test. The applicant shall also take a written test and a practical driving test during daylight and nighttime hours with an Airport Operations supervisor. A minimum score of 90 percent is required on the written test. The written test also contains core questions of which have no numerical value but are pass/fail. A fail on any of the core questions ends the test and results in a denial of the permit. The practical driving test demonstrates the ability to move around the Airport with knowledge, technique, and in a safe manner. (ii) The applicant shall also complete recurrent movement area training on an annual basis. (4) The Airfield Operator's Permit shall be annotated to indicate the class of equipment and level of authorization that an individual is permitted to operate on the air operations area in accordance with the regulations specified by the Airport Director for Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport, or the Director's designee. (5) The expiration date of all tiers of Airfield Operator's Permits shall coincide with the expiration date of the applicant's identification badge issued by the Administration. If renewal of an Airfield Operator's Permit is desired, this renewal shall be done at the time of the employee identification badge renewal. (6) An applicant for an Airfield Operator's Permit shall complete the applicable training and submit an Equipment Training Record form. Training shall take place before issuance of an Airfield Operator's Permit. (7) Citations for violations of Airport regulations concerning airfield vehicular operations may be issued by the Airport Police and the Airport Director and individuals designated by the Airport Director. A copy of the citation shall be given to the individual charged with a violation. (8) The Airport Director or the Director's designee may issue warning letters, conduct conferences, issue and modify orders of suspension and revocation of Airfield Operator's Permits, conduct hearings, and implement a point system for violations of Airport regulations. (9) The Airport Director or the Director's designee may send warning letters to individuals who have accumulated three points. Individuals who have accumulated five points shall be required to meet with the Airport Director to review their driving record. Upon receipt of eight points, the individual's Airfield Operator's Permit shall be suspended. Upon receipt of 12 points, the individual's Airfield Operator's Permit shall be revoked. (10) If an individual accumulates eight or more points, the Airport Director shall issue a notice of suspension or revocation to be served personally through the tenant manager. The notice shall state the duration of the suspension or revocation and shall advise the individual of the individual's right to request a hearing before the License Review Board. (11) Each notice of suspension or revocation shall be effective upon receipt, unless a hearing is requested. Points assessed shall be retained on an individual's driving record for 2 years from the date of assessment unless changed by the License Review Board. (12) Upon receipt of a request for a hearing, the Airport Director or the Director's designee shall stay the suspension or revocation pending the outcome of the hearing, unless it appears to the Airport Director that substantial and immediate harm could result to the individual or others if the Airfield Operator's Permit was continued in effect pending the hearing. (13) The duration of any subsequent suspension shall be for not less than 15 days but not more than 90 days. (14) The License Review Board shall consist of a minimum of three persons designated by the Airport Director. In case of revocation or suspension, the Board shall include the tenant manager or immediate supervisor of the individual. The Board shall conduct hearings and render decisions at the request of an individual concerning contested citations, point assessments, suspensions, or revocations. (15) Hearings shall be conducted and decisions rendered in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, State Government Article, §§10-20110-217, Annotated Code of Maryland. (16) The Board may uphold or void citations issued for violations of Airport regulations. The Board may uphold, void, or modify suspensions, revocations, or points assessed for violations of Airport regulations. (17) An individual may appeal from a final decision of the Board. If the individual resides or has a principal place of business in Maryland, the appeal shall be made to the circuit court for the county in which the individual resides, otherwise an appeal shall be made to the Circuit Court for Anne Arundel County. (18) Upon notification that an appeal is filed, the Board shall grant a stay of the Board's decision pending the outcome of the appeal, unless it appears to the Board that substantial and immediate harm could result to the individual or others if the Airfield Operator's Permit was continued in effect pending the appeal. R. Guidemen. If the vision of a motor vehicle operator is restricted in any manner, operation of the vehicle is prohibited unless a guideman is positioned outside the vehicle to assist the operator. S. Special Vehicular Regulations. (1) The operation of any two-wheeled motor vehicle or self-propelled vehicle on the air operations area shall be approved in writing by the Airport Director. (2) Unlicensed motor vehicles approved for use on the air operations area are prohibited from using public roadways unless authorized by the State Motor Vehicle Administration. (3) Only specially equipped vehicles approved by the Airport Director may be operated inside a hangar. T. Abandoned, Derelict, Inoperable, and Surplus Motor Vehicles and Equipment. (1) Abandoning or parking a derelict, inoperable, or surplus motor vehicle or equipment on the Air Operations Area is prohibited. The Airport Director, or the Airport Director’s designee, may remove from the Air Operations Area, any motor vehicle or equipment that is abandoned, derelict, inoperable, or surplus and which presents an operational or security problem for the Air Operations Area. The owner of a motor vehicle or equipment that has been removed pursuant to this regulation shall be held liable for the reasonable costs of the removal and storage of the motor vehicle and/or equipment. (2) Airport tenants are responsible for the prompt removal of abandoned, derelict, inoperable, or surplus motor vehicles and equipment from their leased premises, at the owner’s expense. (3) The Airport Director or Airport Director’s designee will attempt to identify the owner of any abandoned, derelict, inoperable, and surplus motor vehicles or equipment on the Air Operations Area and any which present an operational or security concern on the Air Operations Area. The Airport Director or Airport Director’s designee will attempt to contact the owner via certified mail, return receipt requested, bearing a postmark of the USPS, no less than thirty days to prior to removal, using the most updated tenant provided contact information. The Airport Director or Airport Director’s designee will maintain the certified mail receipts. A removal notice shall also be posted on the windshield of any motor vehicle and on the most visible surface of equipment deemed to be abandoned, derelict, inoperable, and surplus and any which present an operational or security concern on the Air Operations Area. #### Regulation .05 Control of Landside Traffic and Ground Transportation. *COMAR 11.03.01.05* A. Governing Law. Motor vehicle operators using the public streets, ramps, roads, and highways on the Airport shall comply with the Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland. B. Compliance With Orders. (1) Parking or standing is prohibited on all Airport roads, except in designated parking areas. (2) Leaving a motor vehicle unattended at curbside in front of the terminal is prohibited. (3) A vehicle may not enter any area that is closed to vehicular traffic by barricades or other traffic control devices. (4) Private vehicles are prohibited from parking in areas marked “taxi”, “limo”, “buses”, or “commercial delivery”. (5) Areas posted as “Restricted Parking” may be used only by clearly marked emergency vehicles or vehicles authorized in writing by the Administration. (6) Parking in pedestrian crosswalks is prohibited. (7) Parking which in any way obstructs traffic or creates a hazard is prohibited. (8) In addition to these general regulations, the Administration may further regulate parking by posting signs or notices. Parking in violation of any sign or notice is prohibited. (9) The responsibility for finding a legal parking space rests with the motor vehicle operator. Lack of space is no excuse for violation of these regulations. C. Public Parking Lots. (1) Claiming or removing a motor vehicle without first paying the full parking fee is prohibited. (2) Any person claiming a vehicle without a claim check is required to show identification and evidence of ownership or right to use the vehicle. (3) Any person claiming a vehicle without a claim check shall be charged the maximum daily rate and any other accrued charges. D. Employee Parking Lots. (1) Employee parking privileges at Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport shall be limited to those individuals having an employer/employee relationship with a company possessing lease or concession agreements or other contracts with the Administration or with an Administration-approved subtenant of the company who receive salary or wages for work regularly performed at the Airport on behalf of this employer or company. (2) Only vehicles displaying a current and valid BWI employee parking decal are permitted to park in the area or areas designated by the Administration as an employee parking lot. (3) BWI Employee Parking Decals — Display. (a) BWI employee parking decals shall be in the form of a hang tag displayed from the vehicle's rearview mirror with the decal number and expiration date clearly visible when viewed from the outside. (b) BWI employee parking decals for motorcycles shall be in the form of a decal which shall be permanently affixed on the rear of the motorcycle, either on the bumper or other stationary part, so that it is clearly visible from the rear. (4) BWI Employee Parking Decals — General Information. (a) BWI employee parking decals are valid for either a 12-month or a 6-month period as determined and set by the Administration. (b) Fees are payable for each decal cycle and may be charged according to the work location of the employee as determined by the Administration. (c) An employee whose permanent work location is in the Airport terminal and who uses the employee parking shuttle bus system may be charged a rate which allows the Administration to recover the operating costs of the system. (d) An employee whose permanent work location is in one of the Air Cargo Complex buildings on Airport property, or other Airport property, and who does not use the employee parking shuttle bus system may be charged a different rate. (e) Fees for each decal cycle shall be determined by the Administration based upon an analysis of the prior 12 months of operating expenses. (f) Fees for each decal cycle shall be communicated to Airport employees at least 10 days before the beginning of each decal cycle. (5) BWI employee parking decals are issued to authorized Airport employees only after verification by their employers. (6) BWI employee parking decals are for use by Airport employees in vehicles used by them in transport to and from the Airport. (7) BWI employee parking decals which are lost, stolen, or misplaced by the employee and which have not expired may be replaced upon payment of the fee in effect at the time of replacement. (8) Alteration of a BWI employee parking decal voids the decal. (9) Refunds of payments for BWI employee parking decals may be issued at the discretion of the Administration. (10) Failure to display a BWI employee parking decal by the employee may subject the employee to a fine. (11) Fees for each decal cycle may be prorated based on the month of purchase. E. Penalties, Fines and Costs. (1) Abandoned vehicles and vehicles parked in violation of any parking regulation, sign, or notice may be removed by the Administration at the expense and risk of the owner. Towing charges are in addition to any fines. (2) Parking violations are subject to the following fines: (a) Obstructing movement of traffic — $35; (b) Obstructing movement of pedestrians — $35; (c) Unattended vehicle — $50; (d) Meter or other time limit violation — $35; (e) Parking in other than designated areas — $35; (f) Illegally parked in handicapped area — $50; (g) Illegally parked in leased space — $35; (h) Parked in no parking area — upper level roadway system — $35; (i) Parked in no parking area — lower level roadway system — $35; (j) Failure to display current employee parking decal or permit — $35; (k) Failure to display current valid Courtesy/Commercial Vehicle Permit — $50. (3) Fines shall be paid within 15 days of citation to the Maryland Aviation Administration, Office of Business Administration, Accounting Section. (4) Vehicles with three or more unpaid tickets against them may be impounded until all tickets have been cleared. F. Buses and Limousines. (1) Only buses operating on predetermined routes and schedules approved by the Administration or with a valid permit are permitted to operate at the Airport. (2) Only limousine operators who hold a valid certificate issued by the appropriate governmental agency and who have a concession agreement with the Administration may operate from the Airport and solicit customers or serve passengers at the Airport with or without a prearranged reservation. (3) Only vehicles displaying a valid permit may drop off passengers at the Airport and pick up passengers who have a prearranged reservation with the permit holder. G. Rental Cars. (1) An on-Airport rental car business which is located on Airport property and has a written car rental lease and concession contract with the Administration is permitted to engage in an on-Airport car rental business at the Airport. (2) An on-Airport rental car business shall collect from its customers a transportation facility charge per transaction day, which is a 24-hour period, or any fraction of the period that a vehicle is rented under a rental agreement. When an on-Airport rental car business grants a grace period for late returns of rental cars, it may not collect a transportation facility charge for the grace period. (3) The transportation facility charge offsets the actual costs of on-Airport rental car businesses to operate and maintain a common shuttle bus fleet and a common bus maintenance facility. (4) If the total amount of the transportation facility charges collected by the on-Airport rental car businesses during a 12-month period exceeds the actual costs for operation and maintenance in the same 12-month period, the on-Airport rental car businesses shall retain the excess amount and adjust the transportation facility charge for the following 12-month period by a corresponding amount. (5) At least 60 days prior to the commencement of a contract year, the on-Airport rental car businesses shall consult with the Administration to set the amount of the transportation facility charge for the next contract year based upon actual operation and maintenance costs. H. Service Vehicles. Service vehicles operating to or from the airside of the Airport are prohibited on the main Airport entrance and exit roadways. I. Pedestrians. (1) Pedestrians in a marked crosswalk have the right-of-way over all vehicles. Pedestrians shall yield the right-of-way to emergency vehicles. (2) Jaywalking is prohibited. Crosswalks shall be used. J. Off-Airport Rental Car Businesses. (1) A rental car business which is not located on Airport property and which utilizes courtesy vehicles to transport Airport customers to or from the off-Airport rental car business to or from the Airport consolidated rental car facility is subject to a privilege fee of 8 percent of gross revenue. The privilege fee for an off-Airport rental car business may not exceed the percent of gross revenue imposed on an on-Airport rental car business. (2) An off-Airport rental car business' courtesy vehicles shall transport Airport customers to or from the off-Airport rental car business to or from the Airport consolidated rental car facility. The off-Airport rental car business' courtesy vehicles may not transport its patrons directly to or from the Airport terminal building or any other Airport location except for the consolidated rental car facility. (3) Patrons of the off-Airport rental car business shall be transported to or from the Airport terminal building by a consolidated rental car bus along with other rental car Airport customers to or from the Airport consolidated rental car facility. (4) The off-Airport rental car business shall submit a report to the Administration on or before the twentieth day of each month for the preceding month's activity showing the gross revenues and the calculation of the fee due the Administration, including reasonable detail and breakdown of gross revenues as may be required by the Administration. (5) The privilege fee shall be due and payable on or before the twentieth day of each month for the preceding month's gross revenues. (6) The off-Airport rental car business shall provide the Administration with a certificate of commercial general liability insurance and automobile liability insurance in the amounts determined by the Administration. (7) The off-Airport rental car business shall permit the Administration to audit all business records and accounts during business hours upon demand and to make the records and accounts available to the Administration at the Airport. (8) The privilege to operate a commercial activity at the Airport is suspended if the off-Airport rental car business fails to submit the monthly privilege fee including a late charge on any amount past due within 30 days of the due date for payments. #### Regulation .05-1 Commercial Vehicles and Courtesy Vehicles — General. *COMAR 11.03.01.05-1* A. General Provisions. (1) Except as provided in these regulations, and except for vehicles utilized by off-Airport rental car businesses, a commercial vehicle or courtesy vehicle may not conduct business at the Airport unless a permit is first obtained from the Administration and displayed as provided in these regulations. (2) A qualified business conducting a commercial activity as defined in Regulation .01B of this chapter and its vehicles used in transporting passengers shall be approved and registered by either the Maryland Public Service Commission or the Office of Motor Carriers of the Federal Highway Administration. (3) A permit shall be displayed on an area of the vehicle designated by the Administration. (4) Commercial vehicles and courtesy vehicles transporting passengers to and from the Airport shall drop off passengers or pick up prearranged passengers and immediately depart the Airport. Parking is only allowed in the public parking facilities subject to current parking rates and regulations. (5) Commercial vehicles using the Airport for delivery of merchandise shall occupy only the areas designated by the Administration and at the times designated by the Administration. These areas may be eliminated, changed, or reassigned at the discretion of the Administration. (6) Commercial and courtesy vehicles may only pick up passengers who have a prearranged reservation with the company. (7) Soliciting of any kind by a commercial or courtesy vehicle operator, including, but not limited to, hand signals, hand-held lights, audible devices, physical contact, voice, and signs, other than those specified in §A(8) of this regulation, is prohibited on Airport property. (8) A commercial or courtesy vehicle operator may not hold a sign larger than 11 inches × 17 inches designating the prearranged passenger's name and the company name. The company telephone number may not be displayed on the sign. (9) Failure to abide by these regulations may result in forfeiture of the permit or denial of renewal of the permit for the following year. (10) Fees. (a) The fees in this subsection are established for all commercial vehicles and courtesy vehicles using the Airport. (b) For a firm or person operating under a lease or concession contract with the Administration, which already makes payment to the Administration, payment of the fees specified in this regulation may be waived for vehicles specifically associated with the activities authorized under the lease or concession contract, but display of a valid permit on each authorized vehicle is required. (c) For all other firms or persons, other than those meeting the conditions of §A(10)(b) of this regulation, the annual permit fee for each vehicle is $100. (d) Fees for permits are: (i) July 1 through September 30, per vehicle — $100; (ii) October 1 through December 31, each vehicle — $75; (iii) January 1 through March 31, each vehicle — $50; (iv) April 1 through June 30, each vehicle — $25. (11) Permits may be obtained from the Administration upon presentation of the vehicle's Maryland or other state registration card and after payment of the requisite fee. Fees are not refundable. (12) A replacement permit to replace the original permit which has been stolen, lost, or damaged may be obtained but shall be issued only upon proof satisfactory to the Administration that the original permit has been stolen, lost, or damaged. The fee for a replacement permit is $20. B. Denial of Permit. (1) The Division may deny an application for a permit if: (a) An applicant provides information on the application that is: (i) Incomplete; (ii) Inaccurate; (iii) False; or (iv) Not current; (b) An applicant does not have the appropriate governmental authority to operate; (c) An applicant fails to pay the filing fee; or (d) At the time of application, the applicant or applicant's employer or contractor currently has a permit suspended or revoked. (2) If the Division denies an application for a permit, the aggrieved applicant may appeal the Division's decision by filing an appeal with OAH in accordance with Regulation .05-3 of this chapter. C. Prohibited Acts. While conducting commercial activity under a permit, a permit holder or its authorized operator may not: (1) Pick up passengers who do not have a prearranged reservation with the company; (2) Solicit by any means, including hand signals, hand-held lights, audible devices, physical contact, voice, and signs, other than a sign 11 inches × 17 inches or smaller that designates information about prearranged passengers and the company name; (3) Hold a sign larger than 11 inches × 17 inches that designates information about prearranged passengers and a company name, if required; (4) Display a company telephone number on the sign referred to in §C(3) of this regulation; (5) Fail to display a currently valid permit on an area of the vehicle designated by the Administration; (6) Display discourteous or inconsiderate behavior; (7) Use profane or abusive conduct or language; (8) Smoke while transporting a passenger; (9) Violate Regulation .05E of this chapter as evidenced by: (a) A conviction; or (b) Payment of a fine provided for under that regulation; (10) Operate a motor vehicle in a reckless or unsafe manner, or in general disregard of the State laws governing the operation of motor vehicles, as evidenced by: (a) A conviction; or (b) Payment of a fine provided for under the applicable State law; (11) Operate a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, as defined under State law, as evidenced by: (a) A conviction; or (b) Payment of a fine provided for under the applicable State law; or (12) Violate any other applicable law or regulation. #### Regulation .05-2 Commercial Vehicles and Courtesy Vehicles — Disciplinary Proceedings. *COMAR 11.03.01.05-2* A. If a permit holder engages in a prohibited act, as defined by Regulation .05-1C of this chapter, the Division may: (1) Issue a written warning to the permit holder; (2) Suspend a permit; or (3) Revoke a permit. B. If a permit holder engages in a prohibited act under Regulation .05-1C(10)—(12) of this chapter, the Division may suspend or revoke a permit without first issuing a warning to the permit holder. C. Letter of Warning. (1) The Division shall issue a letter of warning to a permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail on: (a) Receipt of a first complaint against the permit holder; or (b) The permit holder's first violation of Regulation .05E of this chapter. (2) The letter of warning shall: (a) State the substance of the complaint or the regulation violated; (b) Give the permit holder an opportunity to provide a written explanation to the Division within 10 calendar days from the date the warning letter is mailed to the permit holder; and (c) State that failure of the permit holder to provide an explanation shall result in the Division sustaining the warning. (3) If the permit holder provides a timely explanation, the Division may accept or reject the explanation within 30 calendar days from the date the Division receives the explanation. (4) If the Division accepts the explanation, the Division shall send written notice to the permit holder and rescind the letter of warning. (5) If the Division rejects the permit holder's explanation, the: (a) Division shall sustain the warning; (b) Division shall send written notice to the permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail; (c) Warning shall become part of the permit holder's record maintained by the Division; and (d) Division shall send a copy of the warning to the Maryland Public Service Commission or the Office of Motor Carriers of the Federal Highway Administration. (6) If the permit holder fails to file a timely explanation, the notice in §C(5) of this regulation shall be mailed within 30 calendar days from the deadline by which the permit holder was required to submit the explanation. D. Suspension of Permit. (1) The Division may suspend any permits issued to a permit holder on: (a) Verification of a complaint against the permit holder under Regulation .05-1C(10)—(12) of this chapter; (b) The issuance of a second warning to a permit holder within a 12-month period before the date of issuance of the most recent warning; or (c) The permit holder's second violation of Regulation .05E of this chapter within a 12-month period before the date of issuance of the most recent violation. (2) The Division shall send a written notice of proposed suspension to the permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail. (3) The notice of proposed suspension shall: (a) State the substance of the complaint or the regulation violated; (b) Identify prior complaints or regulations violated; (c) Give the permit holder an opportunity to provide a written explanation to the Division within 10 calendar days from the date the notice of proposed suspension is mailed to the permit holder; and (d) State that failure of the permit holder to provide an explanation shall result in the Division sustaining the notice of proposed suspension. (4) If the permit holder provides a timely explanation, the Division may accept or reject the explanation within 30 calendar days from the date the Division receives the explanation. (5) If the Division accepts the explanation, the Division shall send written notice to the permit holder and cancel the notice of proposed suspension. (6) If the Division rejects the permit holder's explanation, the: (a) Division shall sustain the notice of proposed suspension; (b) Division shall send written notice of the suspension to the permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail; (c) Notice shall identify the permits suspended and length of the suspension and state the effective date; (d) Notice shall state the grounds for suspension; (e) Notice shall inform the aggrieved permit holder that it may appeal the suspension within 10 calendar days from the date of the letter of suspension; and (f) Division's decision shall become part of the permit holder's record maintained by the Division. (7) If the permit holder fails to file a timely explanation, the notice in §D(6) of this regulation shall be mailed within 30 days from the deadline by which the permit holder was required to submit the explanation. (8) An aggrieved permit holder may appeal the suspension in accordance with Regulation .05-3 of this chapter. (9) If the permit holder fails to file a timely appeal, the Division's decision is the final agency decision. (10) During the suspension period, the Division may not issue a new permit to the permit holder. (11) If no appeal is filed, within 10 calendar days of the date of the decision to suspend, the permit holder shall surrender to the Administration any permits suspended. (12) The Division shall send a copy of a final agency decision suspending the permit holder to the Maryland Public Service Commission or the Office of Motor Carriers of the Federal Highway Administration. E. Revocation of Permit. (1) The Division may revoke any permits issued to a permit holder on: (a) Verification of a complaint against the permit holder under Regulation .05-1C(10)—(12) of this chapter; (b) The issuance of a third warning to a permit holder within a 24-month period before the date of issuance of the most recent warning; or (c) The permit holder's third violation of Regulation .05E of this chapter within a 24-month period before the date of issuance of the most recent violation. (2) The Division shall send a written notice of proposed revocation to the permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail. (3) The notice of proposed revocation shall: (a) State the substance of the complaint or the regulation violated; (b) Identify prior complaints or regulations violated; (c) Give the permit holder an opportunity to provide a written explanation to the Division within 10 calendar days from the date the notice of proposed revocation is mailed to the permit holder; and (d) State that failure of the permit holder to provide an explanation shall result in the Division sustaining the notice of proposed revocation. (4) If the permit holder provides a timely explanation, the Division may accept or reject the explanation within 30 calendar days from the date the Division receives the explanation. (5) If the Division accepts the explanation, the Division shall send written notice to the permit holder and cancel the proposed notice of revocation. (6) If the Division rejects the permit holder's explanation, the: (a) Division shall sustain the notice of proposed revocation; (b) Division shall send written notice of the revocation to the permit holder by certified mail, return receipt requested, and first-class mail; (c) Notice shall identify the permits revoked and the effective date of the revocation; (d) Notice shall state the grounds for revocation; (e) Notice shall inform the aggrieved permit holder that it may appeal the revocation within 10 calendar days from the date of the letter of revocation; and (f) Division's decision shall become part of the permit holder's record maintained by the Division. (7) If the permit holder fails to file a timely explanation, the notice in §E(6) of this regulation shall be mailed within 30 calendar days from the deadline by which the permit holder was required to submit the explanation. (8) An aggrieved permit holder may appeal the revocation in accordance with Regulation .05-3 of this chapter. (9) If the permit holder fails to file a timely appeal, the Division's decision is the final agency decision. (10) During the revocation period, the Division may not issue a new permit to the permit holder. (11) If no appeal is filed, within 10 calendar days of the date of the decision to revoke, the permit holder shall surrender to the Administration any permits revoked. (12) The Division shall send a copy of a final agency decision revoking a permit to the Maryland Public Service Commission or the Office of Motor Carriers of the Federal Highway Administration. (13) For a 1-year period following the effective date of the revocation, the Division may not issue a new permit to the permit holder. #### Regulation .05-3 Commercial Vehicles and Courtesy Vehicles — Appeals. *COMAR 11.03.01.05-3* A. Appeal to OAH. (1) Not later than 10 calendar days from the Division's decision, an applicant whose application has been denied or a permit holder whose permit has been suspended or revoked may appeal the decision by sending a written request for a hearing by certified mail, return receipt requested, addressed to the Executive Director. (2) Not later than 7 business days from the date of receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Executive Director shall forward the request to OAH. (3) OAH shall hold a hearing not later than 20 calendar days from the date OAH receives the hearing request. (4) If the applicant or permit holder fails to appear at the hearing, OAH shall uphold the denial, suspension, or revocation. (5) The hearing is conducted according to the procedures and regulations set forth in COMAR 28.02.01, except as modified by this regulation. (6) Not later than 30 calendar days after the close of the hearing record, OAH shall issue a proposed decision that includes proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law and a proposed order. (7) OAH shall send a copy of the proposed decision to the Executive Director and the parties. B. Appeal to the Executive Director. (1) Filing of Exceptions. (a) Not later than 10 business days from the date of OAH's proposed decision, a party aggrieved by the proposed decision may appeal by filing written exceptions with the Executive Director. (b) The exceptions shall specify the reasons why the proposed decision should be overturned. (c) A party filing exceptions may request an oral argument and shall submit the request with the exceptions. (d) A party filing exceptions shall mail a copy of its exceptions to the opposing party by first-class mail. (e) If exceptions are not filed within the specified time period, the OAH proposed decision is the final agency decision, unless modified by the Executive Director, in which case the modified decision is the final agency decision. (2) Response to Exceptions. (a) Not later than 10 business days after the exceptions are filed, the opposing party may file a response with the Executive Director. (b) A party filing a response may request an oral argument and shall submit the request with the response. (c) A party filing a response shall mail a copy of its response to the party filing exceptions by first-class mail. (3) Decision of the Executive Director. (a) The Executive Director may rule on the exceptions with or without argument. (b) If the Executive Director denies the exceptions, the proposed decision is the final agency decision, unless modified by the Executive Director, in which case the modified decision is the final agency decision. (c) If the Executive Director grants the exceptions, the Executive Director shall modify the proposed decision accordingly and the modified decision is the final agency decision. (d) The Executive Director shall issue the final decision in accordance with State Government Article, §§10-220 and 10-221, Annotated Code of Maryland. C. A party aggrieved by a final agency decision may seek judicial review in accordance with State Government Article, §10-222, Annotated Code of Maryland. D. Filing of a petition for judicial review under §C of this regulation does not operate as a stay of a suspension or revocation of a permit. #### Regulation .06 Commercial Activity. *COMAR 11.03.01.06* A. Commercial activity is permitted at the Airport only when expressly authorized in writing by and in a manner prescribed by the Administration. Commercial activity includes, but is not limited to: (1) The sale or merchandising of any goods or services; (2) The advertising or promotion of any goods or services; (3) All commercial photography and recording, unless specifically exempted by the Administration. B. Maintenance and Repair of Leased Premises. (1) The Administration is responsible for the maintenance, repair, and custodial services as specified in each of the tenant lease agreements. (2) Tenant Responsibility. (a) Tenants shall be responsible for repairs to leased premises which are damaged due to improper operation, misuse, or negligence of a tenant, or agent or agents of the tenant operating under control of the tenant. Repair of the premises shall be made at the tenant's own expense. (b) The Administration shall be notified in writing whenever a tenant engages a contractor for the purpose of repairs and reserves the right to disapprove a contractor if there is reason to believe the contractor's performance will be unsatisfactory. (c) Repair work shall be inspected and approved by the Administration before the release of a tenant from responsibility for the damage and repairs, whether the work was performed by the tenant or by a contractor hired by the tenant. (3) The Administration shall only provide custodial services which are specifically provided for in the contract/lease agreement between the Administration and the tenant. C. Building Permits. (1) Construction or modifications to existing facilities in or on State-owned property under the jurisdiction of the Administration may not be undertaken without prior issuance of a building permit. (2) The application shall be approved and the permit issued before the initiation of any construction or modification activities. (3) The application for a building permit shall be accompanied by a complete set of plans and specifications for the work that is planned to ensure that the project is in compliance with applicable building codes, fire regulations, and other standards. (4) Any construction work, installation, modification, or other work which does not comply with the approved application is subject to removal by the Administration at the applicant's expense. (5) The building permit shall be displayed on the construction site at all times. (6) All building, construction, and modifications to existing or new structures shall comply with the International Building Code, International Existing Building Code, NFPA 1 Uniform Fire Code, NFPA 101 Life Safety Code, and all other pertinent codes adopted by the State and the Maryland Aviation Administration. D. Minimum Standards for Commercial Aeronautical Activities. (1) This section is applicable to any commercial activity which involves or is required for the operation of aircraft or which contributes to the safety of aeronautical operations. (2) The activities in §D(1) of this regulation include: (a) Charter operations; (b) Pilot training; (c) Aircraft rental and sightseeing; (d) Aerial photography; (e) Crop dusting; (f) Aerial advertising and surveying; (g) Air taxi operations; (h) Aircraft sales and services; (i) Sale of aviation petroleum products; (j) Repair and maintenance of aircraft parts; and (k) Air freight ground handling services. (3) The Administration shall establish minimum acceptable qualifications to ensure that the level and quality of service, as well as other conditions, shall be adhered to by those conducting commercial activities at the Airport. (4) The Administration may extend the opportunity to engage in commercial aeronautical activities at the Airport to applicants who meet the Administration's published standards for those activities, providing there is available suitable space at the Airport for the conduct of these activities, and have an Administration approved application for lease. (5) An applicant wishing to engage in commercial aeronautical activities at the Airport shall submit a letter of application to the Administration. The letter shall include the type of activity that the applicant wishes to engage in, what facilities, or space, or both, are requested to accomplish the activity, and an outline of the operation of the intended activity at the Airport. (6) The applicant shall furnish the following documents when submitting a letter of application: (a) Evidence of organizational and financial capability to provide the proposed activity; (b) Business and financial references; and (c) A copy of the applicant's annual financial report, and that of the parent company if a wholly owned subsidiary, for the last complete fiscal year showing the applicant's assets and liabilities and the value of its unencumbered capital assets. (7) The annual report in §D(6)(c) of this regulation shall be certified by a certified public accountant. If unable to provide the annual report, the applicant shall provide bank references and other records necessary to substantiate the applicant's financial status. E. Performance Requirements for the Ground Handling of Passenger-Carrying Air Carriers and Commercial Operations. (1) This section applies to all fixed based operators, ground handling operators, and air carriers performing ground handling services at the Airport. (2) Commercial air carriers operating at the Airport that are not expressly granted ground handling rights in their agreements with the Administration shall be handled by an authorized fixed base operator, ground handling operator, or tenant air carrier (after this referred to as “operators”). (3) Operators shall obtain approval from the Administration for each nontenant operation including assignment of aircraft parking space, holdroom use, and other terminal facilities. Requests for approval shall be submitted at least 10 days before the scheduled flight date or at the earliest practicable time. (4) Costs and financial charges to nontenant air carriers/commercial operators shall be reasonable as measured by comparing the cost of providing these services to charges levied for similar services at other airports. (5) Airport fees including landing, ticket counter, and holdroom fees collected by operators shall be forwarded to the Administration. (6) On the basis of the Administration's evaluation of the activity, operators who fail to meet the prescribed performance requirements may be denied authorization to continue to conduct ground handling for passenger-carrying flights. (7) In agreements between operators and air carriers and commercial operators of large aircraft, operators shall stipulate the requirement that Administration performance standards be met, along with applicable State or federal regulations. F. Standard Rates and Fees at Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport. The Administration has established standard rates and fees for rental of space at the Airport. These rates and fees are available upon request. G. Festivals, Exhibits, and Trade Shows. A public or special event held at the Airport requires a Special Use permit authorized by the Administration and issued by the fire marshal in accordance with COMAR 29.06.01. #### Regulation .07 Environmental Protection and Public Health. *COMAR 11.03.01.07* A. Water Pollution. A person may not introduce or permit to be introduced into any water system or any surface or underground water at the Airport any organic or inorganic matter or deleterious substance which is injurious to human, plant, animal, fish, or other life or property. The types of permissible quantities of discharge shall be governed by the then applicable water discharge standards as promulgated by the United States Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1972, or under any amendment or successor legislation to it, or as established by State statute or by COMAR 26.08.03, whichever is the most stringent. B. Air Pollution. (1) A person may not introduce or permit to be introduced into the atmosphere at the Airport any air contaminants or combinations of them by burning or otherwise which are injurious to human, plant, or animal life or property, or which in any way interferes with the operation of aircraft on the ground or in the air. The types and permissible quantities of discharge into the air shall be governed by the atmospheric discharge standards applicable at the time, as promulgated by the United States Environmental Protection Agency under the Federal Clean Air Act of 1970, or under any amendment or successor legislation to it, or as established by State statute or by COMAR 26.11.06, whichever is the most stringent. (2) A person may not operate a motor vehicle, and the owner of a motor vehicle may not permit it to be operated, upon the air operations area unless the engine power and exhaust mechanism is equipped, adjusted, and operated in accordance with COMAR 11.14.02. C. Sanitary Sewerage, Storm Drainage, and Industrial Waste System. The control of pollutants entering the sanitary sewerage, storm drainage, and industrial waste systems is governed by COMAR 26.04.01—26.04.03. D. Washing Vehicles and Equipment. (1) The Administration maintains an airfield vehicle and equipment wash facility at the Airport. (2) The vehicle and equipment wash facility drain is connected to a fuel and oil separator to eliminate contaminants from storm water drains. It is the only location on the Airport which is approved for washing vehicles and equipment. (3) Anyone using the Airport vehicle and equipment wash area shall ensure that all waste is disposed of in the trash container provided. Materials may not be left on the ramp area; mud, dirt, and other refuse washed from a vehicle or equipment shall be thoroughly flushed down the open drain; and the area shall be kept neat and presentable. (4) Discharge of oil, garbage, trash, and industrial waste into the drain system at the Airport vehicle and equipment wash area is prohibited. E. Health Laws. All food and beverage services and related activities shall be carried out in full compliance with federal laws and regulations and in compliance with Health-General Article, Title 21, Subtitles 2--10, Annotated Code of Maryland. F. Food and Beverage Service, and Related Activities. (1) Only fully licensed food and beverage services are allowed to provide service on or for the Airport or any aircraft. (2) Only establishments designed and constructed in accordance with State health laws and regulations are permitted to provide food and beverage services. (3) Any food or beverage which has been subject to possible contamination shall be disposed of immediately. Disposal of any food or beverage shall be in an approved disposal system. G. Aircraft Drinking Water. (1) All aircraft water sources and piping systems shall meet the requirements of the Federal Public Health Service and COMAR 26.04.01. (2) Aircraft drinking water may be used only for drinking and cooking. All other uses are prohibited. H. Aircraft Toilet Waste. (1) Sewage accumulated in aircraft waste retention tanks shall be emptied using a flexible hose. All hose connections and the container into which sewage is emptied shall be water-tight. (2) In the event of a sewage spill, all contaminated equipment and areas shall be decontaminated in compliance with COMAR 26.04.01. Defective equipment may not be reused until repaired. Decontamination and repair are the responsibilities of the aircraft or equipment owner or operator. (3) All waste receptacles shall be closed or covered when transported to the sanitary disposal building. (4) Toilet waste shall be disposed of at the sanitary disposal building. (5) Flushing, cleaning all waste tanks and receptacles, and filling rinse compartments shall be performed at the Airport sanitary disposal building. (6) Water hydrants may not be used to service toilet waste trucks or carts. (7) Toilet waste tank trucks may not enter any building other than the sanitary disposal building. Buildings leased by the truck's owner are excepted from this prohibition. (8) All toilet waste tank trucks shall be approved by the Administration. I. Aircraft and Airport Solid Waste. (1) All solid waste containers shall be approved by the Administration. (2) All solid waste containers shall be emptied at least once daily at the sanitary disposal building. (3) Open solid waste containers are specifically prohibited. (4) Airport tenants or users may not permit trash or rubbish to be placed within the air operations area except in authorized trash receptacles. J. Waste Removal. (1) Waste removal services require: (a) A permit from the Administration; and (b) Written approval from the Maryland Department of the Environment authorizing the use of a particular vehicle. Unauthorized vehicles are specifically prohibited. (2) Solid waste collection areas and containers shall be approved by the Administration. (3) Solid waste containers and areas provided by the Administration are designed for normal office waste. Extraordinary waste such as vehicle parts, construction debris, and used lubricants shall be removed by private contractors and in accordance with §J(1) and (2) of this regulation and federal and State laws and regulations. K. Quarantine. Federal and State laws and regulations prevail in all cases of human and animal quarantine action. L. Occupational Safety Noise Levels. The Administration shall adhere to all noise-related safety requirements as promulgated in COMAR 26.02.03. #### Regulation .08 Personal Conduct. *COMAR 11.03.01.08* A. Use and Enjoyment of Airport. (1) Conduct which interferes with the lawful use and enjoyment of the Airport and its facilities, or with passage from place to place, or through entrances, exits, or passageways is prohibited. (2) Walking, driving a motor vehicle, or riding a bicycle on the public areas of the Airport other than on roads, walks, or rights-of-way provided are prohibited. (3) Smoking or carrying any lighted tobacco products in any building owned or leased by the Administration is prohibited. Smoking shall be permitted only in outdoor areas specifically designated by the Administration. (4) An area in which smoking or carrying lighted tobacco products is permitted shall be prominently marked. B. Proselytizing. (1) “Proselytize” means to induce or recruit someone to convert to one's faith or to join one's party, institution, or cause. (2) Proselytizing activities at the Airport may be conducted only in those areas, during those times, and in a manner specified by the Airport Director. (3) Requests for Authorization to Conduct Proselytizing Activities. (a) Requests shall be made in writing to the Airport Director. (b) A request shall provide the name, address, and telephone number of the organization, the nature and purpose of the activity, and the name and address of each representative of the organization who will be proselytizing in the terminal. (c) Copies of all literature to be distributed shall be included in the request. (d) The request shall indicate whether the organization is a benevolent, religious, or political organization. (4) An individual or organization authorized to conduct proselytizing activities in the terminal shall contact the Administration the day before each planned and authorized activity for assignment of an area in which proselytizing is authorized. (5) An individual or organization may not proselytize in the Airport for more than 14 days in any 30-day period. A new written request shall be submitted to the Airport Director before each 14-day period or portion of it during which an individual or organization desires to engage in proselytizing activities. (6) Notwithstanding the provisions of §B(5) of this regulation an individual or organization may obtain a permit for an additional consecutive period if, as of the next to last day of the individual's or organization's permit period, no other individual or organization has obtained a permit for that period. An individual or organization wishing to succeed itself shall forward a letter of request to reach the Airport Director not later than 4:30 p.m. on the 12th day of an active permit. (7) An individual or organization involved in proselytizing activities at the Airport for more than 15 days in a period of 45 days shall submit to identification procedures by the Airport Police. (8) The Administration is responsible for the scheduling and monitoring of proselytizing activities and shall enforce all rules in compliance with these regulations. (9) An Airport patron, employee, or other individual not involved in proselytizing activity may not be approached: (a) Within 10 feet of any security screening point, terminal entrance vestibule, or other interior or exterior entrance, elevator, escalator, or stairway; (b) Out of an unbroken line from and parallel to all ticket counters; or (c) While in any airline ticket line or concession counter line. (10) A proselytizing representative may not engage in dancing, or chanting, or use any musical or other noise-producing instrument, or speak in loud or boisterous language or tone, or engage in any other activity which could be disruptive to normal terminal activity. (11) An individual or organization conducting proselytizing activities may not contend, imply, or lead Airport patrons to believe that the individual's or organization's views represent or are endorsed by the Administration, its tenants, or the State. (12) An individual conducting proselytizing activities may not physically touch or contact Airport patrons, employees, or other persons, or attach objects to their clothing or baggage without their consent. (13) Products or goods may not be sold or exchanged in the terminal unless a written contract with the Administration authorizing this commercial activity has been executed. However, proselytizing representatives may offer for sale books, pamphlets, newspapers, and other literature related to or concerning their organization or group, without a written contract, if the organization or group has otherwise received approval from the Airport Director to conduct proselytizing activity. (14) If an infraction of these regulations is observed by a representative of the Administration, the Airport Director may immediately ask the proselytizing representative to leave. Expulsion may not exceed 24 hours from any one incident. Upon receipt of a sworn, written complaint from any Airport patron, employee, or other individual of an infraction of these regulations, the organization shall be warned and advised that any repetition of a violation of any of these regulations may result in expulsion from the terminal. Similar procedures, including initiation of criminal proceedings by the Airport Police, shall be used for subsequent infractions. (15) The proselytizing organization has a right to a hearing to be conducted by the Airport Director. C. Preservation of Property. (1) Destroying, injuring, defacing, disturbing, removing, or tampering with any man-made or natural Airport property is prohibited. (2) Any person who causes damage to Airport property is liable for damage payments. D. Coin-operated Devices. Attempts to use a coin-operated machine without first depositing the coins required by the instructions on the machine are prohibited. E. Handbills. Handbills may be posted or distributed only with the prior authorization of the Administration. F. Picketing and Demonstrations. (1) Picketing and demonstrations anywhere on the Airport shall be authorized by the Administration in advance. (2) Persons picketing or demonstrating may do so only in areas specified by the Airport Director. (3) Persons picketing or demonstrating shall conduct themselves in a peaceful and orderly manner. (4) Persons picketing or demonstrating may not obstruct the use of the Airport by others, or interfere with the operation of the Airport. (5) Persons under the influence of alcohol or drugs may not picket or demonstrate. (6) Signs shall be approved in advance of a specified picket date by the Airport Director. Only hand-carried signs are permitted. G. Disorderly Conduct. Use of the terminal building or any other public area of the Airport for sleeping or other purpose in lieu of a hotel, motel, or other public accommodation is prohibited. H. Use of Intoxicating Liquors. Consumption of intoxicating liquors is prohibited except in places designated for on-premises liquor consumption. I. Airfield Airspace Restrictions. (1) Model aircraft, rockets, kites, balloons, parachutes (other than in an emergency), or similar contrivances are prohibited. Weather devices authorized by the Administration are excepted from this prohibition. (2) Interference with the safe operation of any aircraft landing at, taking off from, or operating on the Airport is prohibited. J. Animals. (1) Domestic pets are not permitted in the terminal building unless destined for air transport and restrained in a container at all times. Exceptions to this section are: (a) Guide dogs for the blind; (b) Lead dogs for the hearing impaired; and (c) Dogs used for governmental security purposes. (2) Wild animals shall be properly confined for air travel at all times while at the Airport. (3) Hunting and trapping are prohibited. (4) Horseback riding is prohibited. (5) Pets shall be curbed. (6) Feeding or otherwise encouraging the congregation of birds or other animals on or in the vicinity of the Airport is prohibited. K. Lost Articles. Articles found in public areas at the Airport may be turned in to the Airport Lost and Found Office. Articles unclaimed by their proper owner shall be disposed of by the Administration. Nothing in this section shall be construed to deny the right of air carriers to maintain “lost and found” services for property of their passengers. L. Forgery and Counterfeit. A person may not make, possess, use, offer for sale, sell, barter, exchange, pass, or deliver any forged, counterfeit, or falsely altered pass, permit, identification card, certificate, placard, sign, or other authorization purporting to be issued by or on behalf of the Administration. M. Moving Stairways and Elevators. (1) Entering upon a moving stairway at the Airport while using or controlling a wheeled vehicle or device for transporting baggage, packages, or persons is prohibited. (2) Depressing the red emergency button of a self-service elevator or moving stairway under any circumstances other than during an actual emergency is prohibited. #### Regulation .09 Airport Security. *COMAR 11.03.01.09* A. Restricted Areas. An individual entering any restricted area on the Airport requires the authorization of the Administration. B. Security Regulations. (1) Tampering or interfering with the lock or security access electronics of any door, window, gate, or other opening leading to the air operations area or any other restricted area at the Airport, or breaching any other security device is prohibited except under emergency conditions. (2) Interference with security procedures or violation of security regulations or directives is prohibited. (3) It is unlawful for an individual to knowingly and willingly enter an aircraft or an Airport restricted area including the air operations area, contrary to security requirements established by the federal government or the State. C. Weapons. (1) Weapons, except those properly packaged for shipment, are prohibited. (2) Exceptions to §C(1) of this regulation are: (a) Law enforcement officers of the federal government, of the State of Maryland, its political subdivisions, and of the Maryland Aviation Administration and any other State agency, if weapons are required in performance of their duties; (b) Enplaning and deplaning passengers authorized by 49 CFR §1544.219 to carry weapons aboard aircraft; and (c) Uniformed employees of licensed armored transport services under contract to any tenant of the Airport carrying handguns when actually transporting monies or valuables. (3) Discharge of any weapon on the Airport except in the performance of official duties or in the lawful defense of life or property is prohibited. (4) Furnishing, giving, selling, or trading any weapon or simulated weapon on the Airport is prohibited. Toys sold by Airport concessionaires and approved by the Administration are excepted from this regulation. D. Identification Badge. (1) An individual entering the air operations area at the Airport shall display an identification badge or be properly escorted by an individual displaying an identification badge issued by the Administration. (2) The identification badge shall be worn conspicuously on the outermost garments. (3) The type of plastic laminate on the identification badge shall be such that, if tampered with, any photograph and identification badge would be mutilated. (4) An individual shall give prompt notice to the Airport Security Office if their identification badge is lost or stolen. The Administration may charge the individual a fee to replace an identification badge. The fees are: (a) First replacement — $25; (b) Each successive replacement — $50. (5) An employer shall immediately collect and forward to the Airport Security Office the identification badge of an employee that is no longer employed by the employer. The Administration may charge a $100 fee to an employer for the failure to return an identification badge to the Administration. (6) Identification badges are not transferable. (7) An individual entering the air operations area or a restricted area shall insert the individual’s identification badge or personal identification number, or both, in the appropriate reader. (8) All individuals in lawful possession of, or applying for, an identification badge from the Administration shall comply with all laws applicable to Airport security, including without limitation all rules, regulations, policies, and procedures established by the Administration or the United States Department of Homeland Security, by and through the United States Transportation Security Administration, including the provisions of 49 CFR Parts 1540, 1542, and 1544, as amended. (9) All individuals approved to be an authorized signatory shall comply with all laws applicable to Airport security, including without limitation all rules, regulations, policies, and procedures established by the Administration or the United States Department of Homeland Security, by and through the United States Transportation Security Administration, including the provisions of 49 CFR Parts 1540, 1542, and 1544, as amended. (10) The Administration’s Director of the Airport Security Office, or the Director’s designee, shall have the authority to refuse, revoke, suspend, or confiscate any individual’s identification badge for any lawful reason, including, but not limited to, violations of federal laws, State laws, or Airport security rules, regulations, policies, or procedures. (11) If the Administration’s Director of the Airport Security Office, or the Director’s designee, determines that an individual in lawful possession of an identification badge poses an immediate or continuing threat to the security of the Airport or the health, safety, or welfare of Airport property, tenants, personnel, passengers, or customers, the Director, or the Director’s designee, may immediately revoke, suspend, or confiscate the individual’s identification badge. (12) If the Administration’s Director of the Airport Security Office, or the Director’s designee, refuses, revokes, suspends, or confiscates an individual’s identification badge, notice of the action shall be mailed to the last known address of the individual and served personally on the individual through the individual’s authorized signatory. The notice shall state the reason for the action, the duration of the action, and any requirements that must be met before an identification badge can be restored, and shall advise the individual of the individual’s right to request a hearing before the Administration’s Executive Director or the Executive Director’s designee. (13) Each notice of refusal, revocation, suspension, or confiscation shall be effective upon receipt by the individual’s authorized signatory. Except in matters involving refusals or immediate revocations, suspensions, or confiscations of identification badges, upon receipt of a request for a hearing, the Administration’s Executive Director, or the Executive Director’s designee, shall stay the revocation, suspension, or confiscation pending the outcome of the hearing. In matters involving refusals or immediate revocations, suspensions, or confiscations of identification badges, the refusal, suspension, revocation, or confiscation shall remain in effect until it is amended or terminated by the Executive Director, or the Executive Director’s designee, or it expires by its terms. (14) A request for a hearing must be filed in writing with the Administration’s Executive Director no later than 10 calendar days after notice of the action has been served on the individual’s authorized signatory. The request for a hearing must state the grounds for the appeal. The Executive Director or the Executive Director’s designee shall review the individual’s written appeal and shall set a date to conduct a hearing. The Executive Director or the Executive Director’s designee shall render a final agency decision in writing. (15) All hearings under this regulation shall be conducted and decisions rendered in accordance with the Maryland Administrative Procedure Act, State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland. #### Regulation .10 General. *COMAR 11.03.01.10* A. Use of Language. Words of any gender used in these regulations include any other gender, and words in the singular shall be held to include the plural, unless the context otherwise requires. B. Captions. The captions or headings of sections and subsections in these regulations are inserted for convenience only, and may not be considered in construing the provisions of the regulations if any questions of intent should arise. C. Severability. If any provision of these regulations or their application to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the remainder of other regulations and the application of that provision to other persons or circumstances is not affected. D. Penalties. (1) Maximum penalties for violating any of these regulations relating to safety, preservation of order, or the movement of traffic at the Airport, are a fine of $100 or imprisonment for not more than 3 months, or both. (2) Maximum penalties for violation of parking regulations are as defined in Regulation .05E of this chapter. (3) Violators of any other of these regulations may be charged with a misdemeanor and, upon conviction in the District Court of Anne Arundel County or other court of competent jurisdiction, shall be subject to a maximum fine of $500, or imprisonment for not more than 90 days, or both. #### Regulation .11 Taxicab Regulations. *COMAR 11.03.01.11* A. General Regulations. (1) When at the Airport, both Airport and non-Airport taxicab drivers shall conform to all laws, ordinances, rules, and regulations of their respective jurisdictions, as well as those of the Administration and the State. (2) All taxicab drivers shall drop off passengers bound for the Airport terminal at the sidewalk curb on the upper level of the terminal public roadway system. (3) Only taxicabs licensed to operate by a political subdivision of the State and operating pursuant to a concession contract with the Administration may pick up passengers at the Airport subject to this regulation. (4) Deadheading is prohibited except for: (a) Airport cabs; (b) Supplementary Airport cabs as permitted in the concession contract awarded by the Administration. (5) Taxicab drivers are prohibited from trying to attract or solicit customers while at the Airport by using hand-held lights, vehicle lights, signs, or other visual/auditory devices or aids, other than those markings and lights required and approved by the local jurisdiction to be mounted on a taxicab. (6) It shall be a violation of these regulations for a person owning a taxicab to permit the taxicab to be used in violation of these regulations. B. Airport Taxicabs. Airport taxicabs shall operate in compliance with all provisions of the concession contract awarded by the Administration. C. Non-Airport Taxicabs. (1) Non-Airport taxicabs shall park, as needed, in the public parking lots, subject to current parking rates, when conducting business other than the transporting of passengers and luggage to the Airport or when conducting business with the Administration relating directly to non-Airport taxicab operations. (2) A non-Airport taxicab shall immediately depart the Airport after dropping off an incoming commercial passenger at the Airport terminal. (3) Non-Airport taxicab drivers may not solicit passengers at the Airport, which includes the terminal building, its vestibules, sidewalks, roadways, and parking lots. D. A violation of the provisions of these taxicab regulations is a misdemeanor, and the maximum penalty which may be imposed for each violation is as set forth in Regulation .10D(3) of this chapter. #### Regulation .12 Certified Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport (BWI) Noise Zone. *COMAR 11.03.01.12* A. Definitions. Acoustic terminology definitions used in this regulation have the same meanings as stated in COMAR 11.03.03.01A. B. BWI Noise Zone. (1) The BWI Noise Zone is established pursuant to the Maryland Environmental Noise Act of 1974 (Transportation Article, §§5-805, 5-806, and 5-819, Annotated Code of Maryland). (2) The Executive Director shall update and recertify the Airport Noise Zone as required by developing contours of equal noise exposure using day-night average sound levels (Ldn) to determine the extent of impacted land uses. (3) The certified Baltimore/Washington International Thurgood Marshall Airport (BWI) Noise Zone consists of the 65, 70, and 75 Ldn contours overprinted on county tax maps as indicated as follows: (a) Airport Noise Zone Map; (b) Tax Map Index; (c) Anne Arundel County Tax Maps 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, and 15; (d) Howard County Tax Map 44. (4) The noise zone is a composite of the 65, 70, and 75 Ldn noise contours for the base year of 2020 and future years of 2025 and 2030. (5) The noise zone reflects the projected future use of the Airport, including existing and planned projects in the Master Plan or Capital Program that influence future Airport use. C. BWI Noise Abatement Plan. (1) The BWI Noise Abatement Plan is established pursuant to the Maryland Environmental Noise Act of 1974 (Transportation Article, §§5-805, 5-806, and 5-819, Annotated Code of Maryland). (2) The Executive Director shall review and update the BWI Noise Abatement Plan as required. (3) All entities which use the Airport facilities shall comply with the BWI Noise Abatement Plan. (4) The elements contained in the BWI Noise Abatement Plan are as follows: (a) Modified departure procedures; (b) Modified visual flight rule (VFR) arrival procedures; (c) Preferred runway use system; (d) Control of Ground Based Noise Sources; (e) Continued monitoring; (f) Continued control of incompatible development; and (g) Noise assistance programs. #### Regulation .13 Business Hours of Operation of the Terminal and Other Locations at the Airport. *COMAR 11.03.01.13* A. General Regulations. The terminal at the Airport, the pedestrian bridges connecting the hourly garage at the Airport to the terminal, the hourly garage, and the on-Airport consolidated rental car facility are open to the public twenty-four hours a day. No individual may enter or be present in the terminal, pedestrian bridges, hourly garage, or on-Airport consolidated rental car facility except: (1) Airline passengers and on-Airport consolidated rental car facility customers; (2) Individuals meeting, accompanying, or assisting passengers on an arriving or departing flight; (3) Individuals whose employment requires their presence in the terminal, pedestrian bridges, hourly garage, or on-Airport consolidated rental car facility; and (4) Other individuals specifically authorized by the Executive Director to enter and be present in some or all of these locations. B. Violations. (1) For purposes of this section, “authorized employee” means an employee of the Administration designated by the Executive Director to ask a person to leave the terminal, pedestrian bridges, hourly garage, or on-Airport consolidated rental car facility when the surrounding circumstances suggest that the person has no apparent lawful business to pursue at the terminal, pedestrian bridges, hourly garage, or on-Airport consolidated rental car facility. (2) If a person refuses or fails to leave the terminal, pedestrian bridges, hourly garage, or on-Airport consolidated rental car facility upon proper request to do so by an authorized employee, the Airport Police shall be notified and the person shall be treated as a trespasser in accordance with Criminal Law Article, §6-409, Annotated Code of Maryland.