<subtitle num="01" heading="Criminal Injuries Compensation Board"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>These regulations establish procedures for the operation of the Criminal Injuries Compensation Board, which provides financial assistance to innocent victims of violent crime or their dependents who suffer a financial loss as a result of a crime.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Board”, which includes board member, has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Claimant.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Claimant” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Claimant” may be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A victim;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A dependent as defined under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-801, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>An eligible person under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-808, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>An individual, other than an attorney licensed to practice law in Maryland, representing a victim, dependent, or eligible person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A guardian of a minor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>An attorney acting in the capacity as a fiduciary, guardian, guardian ad litem,or personal representative of a decedent.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Crime” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Emergency award” means an advance payment granted by the Board to address immediate hardships experienced as a result of the crime for which a claim has been filed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Fiduciary” has the meaning stated in Estates and Trusts Article, §15-102, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Victim” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Composition of the Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board consists of five members appointed by the Secretary, with the approval of the Governor, and with the advice and consent of the Senate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary, with the approval of the Governor, shall designate one member of the Board as chairman to serve at the pleasure of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>One of the Board members required under §A of this regulation shall be a family member of a homicide victim.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Claims."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Filing a Claim.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the claimant chooses to be represented by an attorney, the claimant's attorney shall follow procedures under Regulation .10 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The claimant shall file a claim:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In person or by regular mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On a form or in a format approved by the Board; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Providing signed authorization for a subrogation agreement with the Criminal Injuries Compensation Board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A claim may be filed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A person eligible to receive an award under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-808, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the eligible person under §A(3)(a) of this regulation is younger than 18 years old, the eligible person's parent or guardian; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the eligible person under §A(3)(a) of this regulation is mentally incompetent or physically unable to file the claim, the eligible person's guardian or other individual authorized to administer the eligible person's affairs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Except as stated in §A(4)(b) of this regulation, a claimant shall file a claim:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Within 3 years of the date of the crime upon which the claim is based; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In the case of child abuse:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Up to the date that the child who was the subject of the abuse is 25 years old; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>At any time after the occurrence of the child abuse, if, after considering the claim, the Board determines that good cause existed justifying not filing a claim before the child who was subject to the abuse is 25 years old.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Examining a Claim.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a claim application, the Board shall assign an examiner to verify the eligibility of the claim by reviewing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The victim’s or claimant’s statement:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reports made to a law enforcement agency or other appropriate authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Court documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Medical reports, if warranted by the examination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Medical bills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Funeral expenses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Employment verification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>State or federal tax returns; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Documentation regarding receipt of benefits from other sources.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the claimant does not cooperate in an examination under §B(1) of this regulation or provide information requested by the Board, the Board may deny the claim.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At the request of a claimant the Board may re-open a claim previously denied under §B(2) of this regulation based on good cause.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an issue of fact still exists after an examination is complete, the examiner shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prepare a written memorandum summarizing the information obtained during the examination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Forward the memorandum to the designated supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A supervisor receiving a memorandum under §B(4)(b) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Ensure that the information in the memorandum is adequate for the Board to make a decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that the information in the memorandum is correct;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the claim and memorandum to the Board for a decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If requested by the claimant, forward a copy of the memorandum to the claimant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Upon receipt of a claim under §B(5)(c) of this regulation, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Coordinate subsequent processing activity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make recommendations on further examination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Upon concurrence on a recommendation by a minimum of three members of the Board, prepare a written report that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Delineates the decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Summarizes the rationale used to reach the decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Indicates that a response to a decision shall be received by the Board within 15 days of receipt of the report by the claimant, or the claimant's attorney; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Provides information required under State Government Article, §§10-207 and 10-208, Annotated Code of Maryland, concerning a lack of response, challenges to the decision, or additional information requested; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Send a copy of the report to the claimant at the address contained in the claim application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the decision is challenged by the claimant the Board shall conduct a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If a hearing is requested, the Board shall arrange for the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>After the Board has made a decision, the Board shall forward the decision to the Secretary, or a designee, who shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Do one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Affirm the Board's decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Order modification to the Board's decision; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Reverse the Board’s decision; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Advise the Board of the final disposition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Upon receipt of the Secretary’s decision under §B(9) of this regulation, the Board shall advise the claimant, in writing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Of the final decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Of the right to judicial review of the final decision under §B(10)(a) of this regulation to the circuit court, under State Government Article, §§10-222 and 10-223, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>That a request for judicial review under §B(10)(b) of this regulation shall be initiated within 30 days of the final decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>How to request judicial review under §B(10)(b) of this regulation, providing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Instructions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The appropriate form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The Secretary's or a designee's decision under §B(9) of this regulation is final as prescribed under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-814, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Show Cause Order and Administrative Closing of a Claim."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a claimant does not provide information requested by the Board by the date established by the Board, the Board may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Issue a show cause order of dismissal that is signed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least one member of the Board; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Executive Director; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Mail a copy of the show cause order to the claimant at the address contained in the claim application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The show cause order of dismissal shall indicate a date by which the claimant shall provide:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The information requested; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Evidence supporting good cause why the requested information is not provided.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the claimant does not respond to the show cause order under §B of this regulation, the Board may administratively close the claim.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the requested information is received by the Board after the date specified in the show cause order, the Board may reopen the claim if the Board determines that the claimant has shown good cause for the delay in providing the information.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Awards."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board shall grant awards under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-810, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall determine the amount and duration of an award subject to procedures and limitations under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-811 and 11-812, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Emergency Awards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board may grant an emergency award before a final decision is made if the Board determines that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An award in the case is likely to be made; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The claimant is likely to suffer undue hardship unless immediate payment is made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the Board to consider an emergency award, the claimant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make a request for an emergency award at the time the claim is filed or anytime thereafter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide details supporting the reason for the request for an emergency award; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Ensure that the Board receives a copy of the police report documenting the crime for which the claim is being filed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Board grants a request for an emergency award, the amount of the emergency award:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May not exceed $2,000 per claim; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shall be deducted from the final award made for the same claim.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the amount of the emergency award granted under §C(1) of this regulation exceeds the amount of the final award for the same claim, the claimant shall repay the Board an amount determined by the Board, subject to Criminal Procedure Article, §11-813, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board may require that all or part of an emergency award be paid to a third party, including, but not limited to, a service provider, protective payee, or trustee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Supplemental Awards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>After the Board grants a final award, the claimant may request that the Board reopen the claim to consider additional compensation for unreimbursed losses directly related to the same crime.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The process for granting a supplemental award is the same as that established for filing a claim under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Protracted Claims."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An award made for disability or dependency may be paid over a protracted period on a monthly basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-811(a)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland, an award for disability or dependency is based upon a victim’s average weekly wage, excluding overtime wages, at the time of the crime, and the Board shall calculate the award based on the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Multiply the maximum weekly payment by 52 and divide the result by 12; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Subtract from the amount determined under §B(1) of this regulation the amount of benefits received from other sources for injuries resulting from the crime on which the claim is based, disregarding subtractions based on increases:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In the victim’s other sources of income received or to be received under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-811(c), Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In other benefits; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In the Consumer Price Index.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The amount of an award may not exceed limits for awards established under this chapter or by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Partial Payment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A claimant may request a partial payment from a protracted award if the payment is needed for the living or business needs of the claimant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A claimant requesting a partial payment shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make the request in writing to the Board; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the reason for and evidence to support the claimant's need for a partial payment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine the amount of a partial payment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Deduct the amount of the partial payment from the balance of any remaining payment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Hearing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Request for Hearing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board may schedule a hearing if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Board is unable to arrive at a decision based on the examination and memorandum; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>There is a dispute of a fact uncovered in the Board’s examination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The claimant may request a hearing if dissatisfied with the Board’s proposed findings of fact, conclusions of law, or orders. The claimant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Initiate the request for a hearing within 15 days of receiving the written notice of the Board's decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make the request for a hearing in writing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide information which the claimant considers appropriate to justify a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Notice of Hearing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the Board schedules a hearing, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify, in writing, all persons involved in the claim of the decision to conduct a hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include in the notification the time, place, and purpose of the hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Make notification to the claimant by U.S. mail not less than 30 days before the date of the hearing, unless the notice is waived by the claimant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notice shall be in accordance with State Government Article, §10-218 Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Conduct of Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Hearings are conducted in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A claimant has the burden of proof and shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Present at the hearing, unless the Board, based on good cause, approves alternative arrangements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provided with a reasonable opportunity to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Present witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Testify;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Cross-examine witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>File briefs; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Obtain statements or depositions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Testimony relating to wages, income, other sources of revenue, and dependency shall be corroborated by supporting documents which may include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>W-2 forms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Income tax returns;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Child support agreements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other evidence considered relevant by the Board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Board may accept hospital records and reports and physicians' reports as proof of the injury sustained without requiring the presence of the attending physician at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board may receive as evidence a statement, document, information, or matter that it finds relevant and which affords the parties a fair hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A hearing shall be conducted in an orderly manner to safeguard the rights of the parties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A person testifying:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall testify under oath or by affirmation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is subject to penalties for perjury.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The Board shall record the proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The Board may question the claimant and witnesses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>If a claimant fails to appear at the time and place of the scheduled hearing, the Board may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Dismiss the claim; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Hearings are open to the public except in the following instances:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prosecution against the alleged perpetrator of the crime is pending and no trial has been held;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The welfare and interest of the victim or dependents may be adversely affected in violation of the right to be treated with dignity, respect, and sensitivity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Prosecution has resulted in an acquittal or a dismissal of the underlying criminal charges based on technical grounds; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Upon written request by the claimant submitted at least 5 days before the scheduled hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The Board may request further examination of the claim before making a decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>At the request of a claimant the Board may re-open a claim previously dismissed under §C(10)(a) of this regulation based on good cause.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Subpoenas and Depositions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board may issue a subpoena and a subpoena duces tecum on its own motion or upon written request from the claimant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request by the claimant shall be submitted not later than 20 days before the hearing and shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A statement explaining the necessity for the subpoena;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The names and addresses of witnesses; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The location of documents or other evidence relating to the claim.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board may waive the 20-day provision in §D(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a claimant requests the subpoena, the cost of service, witness, and mileage, at the Board’s discretion, is the responsibility of the claimant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Judicial Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a claimant initiates judicial review under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-815, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Board shall furnish a transcript of the Board’s proceedings to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Attorney General; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Claimant at, except if otherwise provided, the claimant’s expense.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An appeal from the Board is governed by State Government Article, Title 10, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Representation by Attorney."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A claimant may elect to be represented before the Board at all stages of the proceeding by an attorney licensed to practice in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A claimant's attorney shall file a notice of appearance and, when appropriate, a notice of substitution, before, or at, the attorney's first appearance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The notice in §B of this regulation remains in effect until the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Claimant files, with the Board, a written revocation of the attorney's authority to represent the claimant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Claimant's attorney files, with the Board, a written statement withdrawing from the case;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Attorney states on the record at a Board hearing the attorney's decision to withdraw from the case; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Board receives notice of the attorney's death or disqualification; and.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Board accepts the circumstances and approves the action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Once a claimant’s attorney files a notice of appearance with the Board, the Board shall send all further communication concerning the claim to the attorney of record and consider service of official documents on the attorney of record as service on the claimant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Attorney Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board shall provide a fee petition form to the attorney of record along with a copy of the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The attorney shall itemize on the fee petition form the services provided and the time allocated for each.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hourly rate for an attorney’s services:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Other than for attending a hearing, may not exceed $50; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For attending a hearing, may not exceed $65.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The claimant shall sign the attorney's completed fee petition form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board has the final approval of an attorney's fees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Attorney's Costs.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In addition to fees for the professional services of an attorney, the Board shall approve reimbursement for certain expenses incurred by the attorney which are above normal business expenses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Board considers an attorney's normal business expenses to be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Regular postage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Non-toll telephone calls;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Secretarial services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Travel to attend a hearing, when the attorney's place of business is less than 20 miles from the location of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Board shall consider costs for investigative services which may be reimbursed at a rate not to exceed $25 per hour.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Notwithstanding other provisions, the Board may compensate an attorney for the total sum of attorney fees and expenses, an amount that does not exceed the total of 20 percent of the first $10,000 of an award, and 10 percent of the amount over $10,000.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The calculations used in §E(7) of this regulation may not include parts of an award made for medical or funeral expenses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The Board may not authorize attorney fees or costs for claims when no monetary award is granted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The Board is not obligated to honor an agreement made independently between an attorney and a claimant to pay the attorney out of the claimant's award.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Medical Examination."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board, at the Board’s expense, may require a medical or dental examination to verify the results of the claimant’s medical documentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Designate a physician to conduct the examination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the claimant, or the claimant's attorney, of the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Physician selected to conduct the examination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date, time, and location for the examination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The physician shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conduct the examination as requested; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit a written report of the results of the examination to the Board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Unless good cause is demonstrated, the Board may deny compensation to a claimant who does not submit to the required medical or dental examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Board shall provide the claimant, or the claimant's attorney, with a copy of the physician's report.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Other than for a claimant, review of the Board’s records is subject to the limitations of disclosures under the Public Information Act in General Provisions Article, Title 4, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In any claim regarding a child, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Securely maintain documents that contain the name or other information concerning a child or an individual incompetent by reason of mental incapacity to prevent disclosure of or access to the documents by an individual who is not authorized to have that information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Disclose documents regarding children or individuals incompetent by reason of mental incapacity or information about them to persons who, by reason of participation in the proceeding, have reason to know such information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When submitting a record to a circuit court for judicial review, the Board shall submit parts of the record that are not open to public inspection under seal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Other than the last four digits, the Board may not disclose the following numbers, for public inspection:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Social Security number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An identification number issued by a unit of government, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A driver’s license number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A State identification card number; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Another individual identification number;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A passport number or other identification number issued by the United States government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An individual taxpayer identification number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A financial or other account number, a credit card number, or a debit card number that, in combination with any required security code, access code, or password, would permit access to an individual’s account.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Procedure Article, §11-805, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15C amended effective November 21, 1983 (10:23 Md. R. 2064)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: COMAR 12.01.01.06B cited in Attorney General Opinion No. 83-023 (June 1, 1983)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.24 repealed and new Regulations .01—.13 adopted effective July 8, 1991 (18:13 Md. R. 1483)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .03—.13 amended effective July 1, 1996 (23:13 Md. R. 945)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2007 (33:26 Md. R. 1997)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .02—.11 amended effective June 6, 2016 (43:11 Md. R. 634)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 repealed and new Regulation .12 adopted effective June 6, 2016 (43:11 Md. R. 634)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="02" heading="Division of Correction"> <chapter num="01" heading="General"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Overview."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>As it presently exists, the Maryland Division of Correction was established effective July 1, 1970. By Chapter 401, Acts of 1970, all State adult correctional facilities and related responsibilities were assigned to the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services. The Department of Correctional Services was retitled the Division of Correction and reestablished as an agency under the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As an agency of the Department, the Division of Correction has central administrative control over the adult correctional facilities of the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner of Correction is appointed by the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services with the approval of the Governor, by and with the consent and advice of the Senate, in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §3-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner of Correction is in sole and active charge of the Division of Correction, subject to the authority of the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services and the Governor of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Mission."> <text>The mission of the Division of Correction is to protect the people of Maryland from repeated criminal activities of offenders sentenced to the Division's jurisdiction. This mission is attained by the secure confinement of offenders and their successful reintegration into the community through programs of remediation, treatment, training, education, and work release.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §3-205, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation adopted effective July 28, 1978 (5:15 Md. R. 1190)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter, Minimum Jail Standards, repealed effective April 26, 1982</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">(9:8 Md. R. 822)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .02 under new chapter, General, adopted effective</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">April 12, 1993 (20:7 Md. R. 642)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Minimum Lockup Standards" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 822)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Community Adult Rehabilitation Centers"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <text>These regulations extend to any State, local or private correctional facility established as a community adult rehabilitation center.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Purpose of Community Adult Rehabilitation Centers."> <text>The purpose of a community adult rehabilitation center is to house and rehabilitate those individuals who have been convicted of crimes but who, in the judgement of the courts and appropriate correctional personnel, can best be rehabilitated in community facilities without substantial danger to the community.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <text>As used in these regulations, the following words have the meanings indicated:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>“Administrative unit” is an area separate from the facility's housing units, which contains certain administrative, staff and program spaces which are shared by the housing units.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>“County” includes Baltimore City.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>“Facility” means a community adult rehabilitation center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>“Housing unit” is a physically separate housing and program space which contains one or more housing sub-units and certain staff, program and recreational spaces and a living area which are shared by the sub-units.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>“Housing sub-unit” is a physically separate area which contains sleeping quarters, bathing and toilet facilities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>“State inmate” means an inmate who is sentenced to the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Inspection."> <text>The facility and its records shall be available at all times for inspection by the Secretary, Commissioner, or their designees in order to determine compliance with these regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Siting of Facilities."> <text>In determining the appropriateness of a site for a facility, the following factors shall be considered:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When feasible and practical, the location should be in reasonable proximity to the communities from which the majority of its inmates come.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The location should be situated so that it can attract qualified line and professional staff of racial and ethnic origin compatible with the inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The location should be such that it can attract the variety of full time and part time professional specialists required to deliver the required services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The location should be reasonably close to public transportation, or other means of staff, inmate, and visitor transportation should be readily available.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The facility should be located reasonably close to employment, education, and training opportunities for its inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The location should be in reasonable proximity to medical facilities for emergency medical care.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Where feasible, practical, and possible, the site should allow for either natural or man made barriers or buffers from residential communities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The external environment of a facility should be suitable for residential living.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Community attitudes and extent of any opposition to the site should be considered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Utilities required by the facility should be already available to the site or capable of being economically provided.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Physical Characteristics of Facilities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements. All Community Adult Rehabilitation Centers meet the following physical standards:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall comply with applicable fire, electrical, plumbing, mechanical, safety, health, building, housing and use laws, codes and ordinances and shall be maintained according to them. Documentation shall be available to establish compliance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>More than 40 inmates may not be housed in a facility without physical separation into two distinct and separate housing units.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall provide a minimum of 60 square feet per inmate in the sleeping quarters, and any furniture shall be arranged to provide some degree of privacy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall provide, at a minimum, one toilet for each eight inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility shall provide, at a minimum, one wash basin for each eight inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility shall provide, at a minimum, one shower or bathing facility for each 15 inmates. This shall include at least one bath tub or shower/tub combination, for each ten female inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>All bedroom and bathroom areas shall be so designed as to maintain appropriate separation of male and female inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Outside access to and egress from a housing unit shall be controlled through a single main entrance/exit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Any exterior door, except the main entrance shall be considered a fire door, shall be locked to outside use, and shall be equipped with an alarm to sound when the door is opened from the inside.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A dining area shall be provided and shall contain sufficient tables and chairs to seat at least one-third of the inmates at one time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The facility shall be maintained at a temperature above 65 degrees during the day and at least 62 degrees at night.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The facility shall be well ventilated to insure that internal temperatures during summer months do not exceed outside temperatures by more than 10 degrees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The facility shall contain a secure room or rooms for temporarily holding:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmates who may have incurred a mental problem and are displaying behavior which is threatening to themselves or others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inmates who are potential escapees while awaiting serious disciplinary hearings; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any other inmate while awaiting transfer to more appropriate confinement or care facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Sufficient area for correctional programming shall be provided. This area shall be air conditioned, if feasible, and shall include, but not be limited to space for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Confidential interviews;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Group counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Class room and quiet study;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Meetings and classification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Artificial lighting should provide an intensity of illumination of 6 foot candles and be available to cover 25 percent of the floor area in each bedroom with at least 15 foot candles of local illumination for reading.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Requirements Governing New Construction. Any facility which is to be constructed as a community adult rehabilitation center shall meet the following additional physical standards. Existing buildings which are converted to community adult rehabilitation centers shall be exempted from these standards as long as any capital expenditures do not exceed 50 percent of the fair market value of the facility excluding land:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>More than three inmates may not sleep in one room;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At least 20 percent of a facility's sleeping quarters shall be single rooms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall be comprised of one or more housing units and an administrative unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A housing unit shall house no more than 40 inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A housing sub-unit shall house no more than 20 inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A housing unit shall contain a common living area of at least 300 square feet, which shall be furnished for leisure type activities and for visiting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A housing unit shall contain the following separate spaces to be shared by the sub-units:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Television and noisy recreation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Confidential counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Storage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Supervisor's office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Staff offices;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An administrative unit in a facility shall contain the following separate spaces to be shared by its housing units:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Group visiting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Group recreation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Education/library;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Administrative offices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Dining;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Medical examining;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Storage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Multi-purpose;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Conference/hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Toilet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Parking.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Programs and Staffing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Programs.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall establish a system of inmate classification/ treatment. It shall be conducted by a classification/treatment committee which shall include at least three staff members. One inmate resident of the facility may be assigned as a member of the committee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The classification/treatment process shall be designed to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Insure the security of the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Insure the welfare of the inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Insure the protection of the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Promote the most effective use of the facility as an instrument of correction and rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The classification/treatment committee shall evaluate and make recommendations regarding each of the following decisions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Development of and changes in an inmate's treatment program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transfer of an individual to another institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Pre-parole recommendations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Granting of additional privileges to an inmate based upon successful participation in the facility's program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Parole and program termination recommendations made by the classification/treatment committee shall be approved or disapproved by the facility director or, in his absence, the designated acting director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Comprehensive rehabilitative services shall be made available to inmates of the facility. The purpose of these services is to improve an inmate's education, upgrade vocational skills, obtain suitable employment, strengthen family and mental health, and reduce any tendency to abuse alcohol or drugs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Responsibility for providing services listed in §B(1) below, rests with the facility. If community resources are available to provide services, facilities are encouraged to use them, but the facility shall remain responsible for insuring that services are available and are rendered to the inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Weekly inmate/staff counselor meetings shall be held with all inmates to provide direction and monitor inmate performance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The following services shall be made available to inmates on an as needed and practical basis:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Vocational and educational testing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Job counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Job training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Job placement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Drug, alcoholism and family counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Psychological evaluation and/or therapy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Psychiatric evaluation and/or therapy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Housing assistance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Routine medical and dental services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Emergency medical and dental services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Adult basic education instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The center shall have an affirmative responsibility to develop those programs and resources within the community that are necessary to meet the needs of the inmates assigned to the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>When a Mutual Agreement Program (MAP Agreement) is used to establish a definite parole date of an inmate in a facility, the director and personnel assigned to that facility will be responsible for observing the MAP procedures established by the Commissioner, in agreement with the Chairman of the Maryland Parole Commission. These procedures will be established in the “Maryland Model of Mutual Agreement Programming.” Reporting procedures may be established by the Commissioner in order to insure compliance with MAP procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>If not already under a MAP contract, once placed in the facility each inmate shall design with his counselor, a treatment program aimed at preparing him for release to the community better able to lead a crime-free life. Generally, an inmate's program should include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Preparation for securing and holding a job, through education, vocational training, or simply aid in securing a job;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Group or individual counseling, or both, to prepare him to better handle emotional stress; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The opportunity to acquaint himself with those community agencies which will be available to provide support before and after his release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The facility shall have documentation to show that it provides for inmate participation in development and implementation of the treatment plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The facility shall have documentation to show that it holds weekly staff meetings to review inmate progress with each inmate's progress, reviewed at least once each month.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The facility shall review all changes in the treatment plan with the inmate and document this procedure by staff initial and date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>The facility shall provide access to a variety of social and recreational activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>The facility shall have written policy and procedures which provide for expanding opportunities for inmate responsibility, involvement with family, and community activities before final release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Each facility shall have a properly monitored work release program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>To the extent practicable, the facility shall use appropriate programs and services which exist in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>All inmates shall be given an opportunity for physical exercise at least once a day.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Staffing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>There shall be a minimum of six full-time counseling/security staff for housing units with up to 20 residents, seven for units housing between 21 and 30 residents, and eight for units housing more than 30 residents.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A unit supervisor shall be provided for each housing unit in a facility having more than one unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If sufficient resources are not available in the community, then additional paid or volunteer staff shall be used to provide inmates with medical, psychological, psychiatric, educational, and/or employment services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>There shall be one full-time clerical staff for each housing unit. One additional clerical and administrative staff member who may be designated as assistant director shall be available for centers comprising more than two housing units.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The minimum qualifications for a unit supervisor shall be a Bachelor's Degree from an accredited 4 year college or university plus 2 years of appropriate experience, or a master's degree in one of the behavioral sciences.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The minimum qualifications of line counseling and line security staff shall include the completion of 2 years of college.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The agency may have a written policy which outlines experience substitutes for the educational requirements in §B(5) and §B(6) if the agency permits the substitutes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The director, assistant director, and all line level counseling/security staff shall have completed either the Correctional Specialist, Correctional Officer, Classification Counselor, or Parole and Probation Agent Course or have received certification or waiver by the Maryland Correctional Training Academy before completion of their first year of employment in a facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>All requirements of the Maryland Correctional Training Commission shall be complied with.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A staff member shall be assigned primary responsibility for the welfare, direction, and counseling of each inmate. Staff members may not be assigned responsibility for more than ten inmates at any given time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>An inmate may not be assigned work that requires access to, or use of, inmate or staff personnel records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Staff members of one sex may not conduct body searches of persons of the opposite sex.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Staff members of one sex may not supervise the taking of urine samples from inmates of the opposite sex.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Each housing unit of up to 40 inmates shall, at all times, have at least one trained counseling/security staff member awake, on duty, and available for consultation with inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>One institutional parole and probation agent shall be provided by the Division of Parole and Probation for each 40 persons residing in a community adult rehabilitation center.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Admission and Discharge."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Admission.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Admission of inmates to the facility shall conform to clearly defined written policies and procedures established by the facility director. Before transfer to a facility, all inmates shall be properly screened by the facility director, the local correctional system, or the Maryland Division of Correction, or all.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual may not be admitted unless a commitment order, properly signed by the clerk of the appropriate court, is received with the individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The following criteria shall be considered in screening an inmate for placement in a facility:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Intent of court at sentencing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Time already spent in confinement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Instant offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Prior criminal record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Institutional adjustment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Availability of work and transportation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Effect of placement on immediate family and dependents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Need for services available at the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Level of individual's maturity, attitude, and trust-worthiness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any individual who is determined to be an escape risk, or having a detainer for a charge for any crime enumerated in Correctional Services Article, §11-317, Annotated Code of Maryland, may not be assigned to a facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>According to the provisions of Correctional Services Article, §11-317, Annotated Code of Maryland, and policy of the Division of Correction, a facility may accept certain inmates who are committed to the Division of Correction without prior processing in another Division of Correction institution. In these cases the facility shall serve as a reception, diagnostic, and classification center for the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Before physically admitting an offender according to §A(5) of this regulation, the facility shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Screen the inmate to determine eligibility and acceptability for placement in the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain a Division of Correction inmate number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Complete the photo and fingerprint identification work as required by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>After admission of an inmate according to §A(5) of this regulation, the facility shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establish an inmate case record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Establish a medical and dental file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Conduct a dental and medical exam which includes screening for tuberculosis, venereal disease, and any other communicable disease specified by local, State, or federal health authorities; this requirement may be waived if a medical and dental exam has been conducted for the inmate by the jurisdiction operating the facility within the last 30 days, and if the examination records are held in the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Administer an educational screening test as designated by the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Administer a psychological screening test as designated by the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Establish a financial account for the inmate's personal fund;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Forward a skeleton inmate file and commitment papers to the Division of Correction as required by the Commissioner; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Complete and forward a parole and probation census card as required by the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Discharge.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Discharge of inmates from the facility shall conform to clearly defined written policies and procedures of the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Discharge policies and procedures shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A verification that the inmate is being discharged under proper legal authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A positive identification of the inmate being released; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The return to the inmate, or individual assuming custody of the inmate, of all of the inmate's property and valuables held by the facility. A receipt shall be signed by the inmate or the individual assuming custody of the inmate and retained for facility records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an inmate is to be transferred to the jurisdiction of the Division of Correction, the transporting officer shall have with him properly executed commitment papers and a copy of the inmate case record. Also included shall be a record of time accrued toward diminution of sentence under in Correctional Services Article, §11-503, Annotated Code of Maryland. This record shall show the amount of time accrued according to type: good time, industrial, educational, and special programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The time, date, and reason for discharge shall be entered in the inmate's case record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Every inmate who is released from custody shall be given a prerelease physical examination by an appropriately qualified medical examiner:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The physical will be performed as close to the actual date of release as possible, but no more than 3 days before release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An inmate found to have a chronic disease of the mind or body will be referred to the proper State agency for continuation of treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An inmate who has a disease requiring a short treatment period shall be directed to the proper agency for follow-up care and the inmate will be advised to have the new treatment agency request his pertinent medical records if needed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The medical examiner will complete and sign a prerelease medical examination form provided by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If an inmate is transferring to a Division of Correction institution, the transferring facility shall be responsible for bringing the medical and dental records of the inmate up-to-date, including all current prescriptions. The records will be forwarded to the new institution along with the inmate case record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The transferring institution shall provide a 24-hour supply of all medication prescribed for the inmate by a competent physician.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Accounting, Reporting, and Accountability."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Accounting--Financial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall use a recognized system of fiscal management accountability.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In private facilities, the fiscal process shall include an independent annual audit which shall be conducted by a certified public accountant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall have written fiscal policies which include internal controls.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For private facilities, the fiscal policy shall provide for adequate insurance coverage to include, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Physical plant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Client liability; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Bonding for board and staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility fiscal policy shall provide a written policy for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inventory control of agency property and assets;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Accountability of petty cash expenditures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Purchasing and bidding of supplies and equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Completion of staff time sheets.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Accounting--Inmate Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate case record shall include at least the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Identification and medical/security alert information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Evaluation and progress reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>FBI report;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigation with Division of Correction fact sheet or Division of Correction admission summary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Preparole reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Classification/treatment committee actions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Legal matters relating to the inmate's case;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Adjustment reports and records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Inmate grievance commission matters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Medical reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Psychological and psychiatric reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Social material;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Educational material;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Employment material;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Accident reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>Signed release of information and consent forms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(q)"> <text>Next of kin notification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(r)"> <text>Final discharge report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All entries into the case records of the inmate shall be dated and signed by a staff member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall have a written policy for maintaining case records on a current basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall have a written policy which provides for case record auditing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility shall provide that safeguards exist to prevent the possibility of theft, loss, or destruction of case records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility shall provide that all inmate case records are marked “confidential”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The facility shall provide that each file cabinet where case records are maintained is marked “confidential”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The facility shall provide security type file cabinets for all case records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The facility shall provide that a “release of information consent form” is signed by the inmate before confidential information about the inmate is released to any individual or agency not having legal access.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A “release of information consent form” shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the person, agency, or organization requesting information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The specific information to be disclosed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The purpose or need for the information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The date the consent form is signed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The signature of the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The signature of the individual witnessing the signature.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A copy of the signed “release of information consent form” shall be maintained in the inmate case record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>If the inmate is discharged to another correctional facility or sentenced to probation or paroled, the original inmate case records shall be forwarded to the agency having responsibility for the inmate. The original case records of all other State inmates shall, at discharge, be forwarded to the Division of Correction. A skeleton case record which includes at least the presentence investigation/admission summary and face sheet, commitment papers and discharge report, shall be made and retained by the transferring facility for a period of 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Before the awarding of earned time by the director for satisfactory inmate application and progress in industrial, agricultural, vocational, educational, or administrative tasks, a written description of the programs shall be submitted by the director to the Commissioner for his prior approval. The Commissioner shall in turn submit his approval or disapproval in writing to the director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Additional earned time, for special projects and programs not included in the above listing, may be awarded by the director. The procedure is the same as above; a written description of the projects, programs, or both, shall be submitted to the Commissioner who in turn gives written approval before the awards are made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Reports.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All admissions, releases, and escapes of State inmates shall be reported as required by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All earned time credited and good conduct time lost by State inmates shall be recorded in the inmate case record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A preparole evaluation for an inmate shall be completed and forwarded to the Division of Parole and Probation not later than 30 days before his or her scheduled parole hearing date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Accountability.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A permanent facility log shall be maintained in the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The facility log shall be a clearly labeled, permanently bound volume of lined sheets of writing paper, with all pages numbered consecutively in advance of use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All log entries shall be made in ink (fountain or ballpoint pen).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any log corrections shall be made by lining out and initialing the correction. Once an entry is made, it may not be altered or corrected in such a manner that the original entry cannot be read.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The log shall be maintained by the supervisor on duty, and should be secured at the work station near the telephone.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The first log entry of each day shall be preceded by the date, and each entry by the time of the entry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Each supervisor going on duty shall indicate in the log the acceptance of responsibility for the facility. The supervisor being relieved shall so indicate in the log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Any unusual occurrence shall be recorded in the log, ordinarily by the supervisor on duty. Unusual occurrences include those which might influence the behavior of an inmate, behavior on the part of an inmate which should be known by other staff, contacts during non-business hours by representatives of other agencies, staff or other e.g. police, families, inmates, etc. Such things as facility problems or equipment breakdowns should be noted as well as any staff initiated contacts. The log should not ordinarily be used for messages, but may call attention to changes in orders, procedures, or schedules which are available elsewhere.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>All management and supervisory staff shall review the log upon reporting to duty each day or assigned work period, and a record of the review shall be entered in the log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The log is the permanent record of activities, events, and problems for the facility. After completion, it shall be kept in a secure file for at least 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Random inspection of the facility shall be conducted by the director, to include all shifts at least once every 2 weeks. A record of all inspections shall be entered in the facility log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The facility shall be daily inspected by the senior staff member. A record of all inspections shall be entered into the facility log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Supervisory sessions shall be conducted at least once each 2 weeks for all line staff rendering services to inmates. Inmate case files, performance of inmates assigned to the staff member, and the staff members' performance shall be reviewed at that time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>A management information system approved in advance by the Commissioner shall be used in the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Facility Management."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Administration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Any private agency operating a facility shall have:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A constitution or articles of incorporation which meet all of the legal requirements of the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Documentation of its tax status with the Internal Revenue Service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>By-laws, approved by the local governing board and filed with the appropriate local, State, and/or federal bodies.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The facility shall have a program design approved by the Commissioner, which describes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>What is to be done to whom, by whom, why, at what cost; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>How an outside observer can judge whether or not the program is achieving what it is designed to achieve.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall have a current organizational chart which accurately reflects the structure of authority, responsibility, and accountability within the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In order to facilitate the administration and operation of the facility, written rules and regulations shall be promulgated, published and made available to all staff members.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The rules and regulations shall be assembled as a procedures manual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The procedures manual shall be bound in a loose leaf binder in order to facilitate changes, additions, and deletions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A copy of the procedures manual shall always be in the possession of that individual who at any given time is responsible for the operations of the facility. Other copies shall be available for use of other staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The procedures manual shall contain sample copies of all forms and reports and an explanation for initiating, completing and distributing forms and reports required.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>All counseling/security staff shall be required to be familiar with the community adult rehabilitation center standards, the facility program design and procedures manual. The facility shall maintain, on file, a statement signed by each staff member which acknowledges this familiarity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>All written policies and procedures shall include purpose, other policies and procedures affected, explanation, action required, cancellation date, and distribution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>At all times, a staff member, physically present in the facility, shall be designated to be “in charge”. The facility's policies and procedures shall identify the responsibilities of this person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The procedures manual shall include emergency procedures which outline specific responsibilities in case of emergency including: riot, fire, assault, rebellion, or any other emergency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The emergency procedures shall be prepared in cooperation with pertinent state and local agencies including fire, police and civil defense, and shall conform to all appropriate statutes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>All agencies involved in the preparation of emergency procedures or having responsibilities for carrying out the procedures shall be distributed a current copy for reference.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>The facility shall have a written emergency evacuation plan which shall be disseminated to staff and inmates and shall be posted in a conspicuous place.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>The facility director, at least annually, shall request an inspection of the facility by the local fire inspector, health inspector and building inspector. Reports of all inspections conducted shall be maintained for a period of at least 3 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Food Service.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall insure that the food service provided meets or exceeds any nutritional standards as recommended by the dietary allowance of the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council and the Maryland Department of Health and local health department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All food service shall be according to COMAR 10.15.03.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Three wholesome meals a day of sufficient quantity and quality shall be served at the customary times of breakfast, lunch and supper.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall provide advance monthly planned menus to assist in budget planning, food quality control, and to inform the inmates what will be served at each meal. This menu shall be posted in a conspicuous location that is accessible to inmates. Copies of all menus shall be retained for inspection purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility food service plan shall be periodically reviewed and approved by a certified dietitian or local health authorities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility shall provide properly ventilated and adequately furnished dining area or areas.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Special diets as prescribed by a physician or a certified dietitian, shall be available for those inmates under medical treatment or in need of these diets for other approved reasons.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>At least one member of the facility staff shall supervise the kitchen in the preparation and serving of food.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Facility staff, corrections, sheriff's department, or any other city, county, or State personnel may not have their salary, commissions, or any other payments tied to savings in facility operations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Medical.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate medical and dental records are confidential and shall be handled only by properly authorized personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate shall be provided medical and dental care for conditions which, in a professional opinion, are of immediate concern and must be treated. This care shall be of a quality commensurate with good medical practice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Standard first aid supplies as required by O.S.H.A. shall be available on the premises at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall maintain an inventory control list of first aid equipment and supplies to ensure the equipment and supplies are sufficient at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>At least one staff member per shift who has completed the American Red Cross Advanced First Aid and Emergency Care and Coronary Pulmonary Resuscitation courses or their equivalent shall be present in the facility at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility shall have established procedures whereby inmates can report illnesses and request treatment in writing. These shall be outlined in the inmate rules and regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The facility shall have written medical emergency procedures that insure appropriate response to medical emergencies, and the staff shall be familiar with these procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Narcotics and other medication shall be properly stored and inventoried in accordance with all applicable federal, State, and local regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>All prescribed medication for inmates shall be centrally stored in a secure storage area controlled by the staff. Inmates shall normally be given their prescribed daily dosage one day at a time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A report of all physician visits, inmate treatment, and complaints or requests for treatment shall be incorporated in the inmate's file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>As soon as possible after occurrence of any serious illness or injury to an inmate, every possible effort shall be made to report the occurrence to the inmate's next of kin or a person designated by the inmate. If at all possible, this should be accomplished within 4 hours of the incident. All these efforts shall be documented in the facility log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>As soon as possible, and in all cases within 2 hours after receipt, inmates shall be notified when information is received of a serious matter concerning the inmate's family.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>At least one litter stretcher and storage for it shall be provided for the transportation of the critically ill or injured.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The facility shall provide for completion of necessary laboratory tests as ordered by a physician.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>The facility shall have a written policy regarding the possession and use of controlled substances, prescribed medications, and over-the-counter drugs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>An inmate who has been determined to be a drug addict shall be placed under appropriate treatment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>The determination of addiction and treatment of an addicted inmate shall conform to the guidelines and regulations promulgated by the federal government and the Maryland State Drug Abuse Administration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Sanitation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A daily routine of work necessary to keep the facility clean shall be established and followed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A member of the facility staff shall make daily sanitation and safety inspections.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The director shall conduct periodic, unannounced sanitation inspections of the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall furnish laundry services or provide facilities for washing personal clothing, as well as bedding, and other washable items.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Blankets, pillows and mattresses shall be cleaned before issue and when necessary during use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Personnel.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall observe the personnel policies of the State, if operated by the State, or of the county, if operated by a county.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Any private agency operating a facility or any county which may not have written personnel policies adopted by the governing body shall have policies including at a minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Organization chart;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employment practices and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Promotion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Job qualifications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Grievance procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Employee evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Personnel records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Benefits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Holidays;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Vacations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Hours of work;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Salaries (or the base for determining salaries);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Termination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Resignation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility or agency shall have documentation to show that job descriptions and job qualifications exist for all positions in the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The personnel record of the employees shall be confidential and shall be maintained in a locked file which shall be confidential.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility or agency may not have a policy which excludes the employing of ex-offenders.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility or agency shall provide initial orientation for all new employees upon employment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The facility or agency shall have a written program of in- service training for all employees, using their own resources and other resources in the community.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Inmate Rules and Regulations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall have written inmate rules and regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate rules and regulations shall be written and organized in a simple and understandable form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At admission, each inmate shall be given a copy of the rules and regulations to read and retain.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an inmate cannot read, the rules and regulations shall be read to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>After reading or being read the rules and regulations, inmates shall be required to sign an appropriate form acknowledging that they have read (or have been read) the rules and understand them.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>All facility staff shall be familiar with the inmate rules and regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Before their publication, the inmate rules and regulations shall be approved by the attorney general, county attorney, or city solicitor, as the case may be.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The inmate rules and regulations shall specify any actions that can lead to administrative (non-punitive) removal from the facility. Inmate regulations shall provide that transfers of inmates to Division of Correction institutions of greater security shall conform with applicable Division of Correction regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The inmate rules and regulations shall outline inmate grievance procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>There shall be a written procedure for inmates to make complaints or grievances which shall outline required staff action for investigating and resolving the complaints or grievances.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A written disciplinary report of all violations of inmate rules and regulations shall be made and shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the inmate and the alleged offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A description of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Names of any witnesses; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The signature of the staff member making the report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The inmate rules and regulations shall include the established adjustment procedure for imposing punishment for violations of inmate rules. All disciplinary action shall be in accordance with these procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The adjustment procedure shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Written notice to inmates of the charges against them; the written notice of the charges shall include a statement of the allegations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An opportunity to prepare a defense to the charges, with the possibility of assistance by another inmate or staff member;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A summary hearing before an impartial senior-level staff member (not the director) for those minor violations delineated by the facility's regulations, and a hearing before an adjustment team for serious violations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An opportunity for the inmates to be represented by another inmate or staff member at the hearing to present evidence and witnesses in their own behalf and confront and cross-examine witnesses against them if the adjustment team determines it is practical or relevant to the inmate's case; inmates shall be allowed at least 24 hours from time of notice of infraction to the disciplinary hearing to prepare a defense and to confer with potential witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A decision based upon the evidence produced at the hearing in support or denial of the charge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A permanent record of the proceedings; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>An opportunity for appeal to the facility director or designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The adjustment team shall be comprised of at least two impartial staff members, neither of whom was a party to the violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>One inmate resident of the facility may be assigned as a member of the adjustment team. In these cases the inmate may be permitted a vote in the determination of guilt or innocence but may not participate in the process of affixing a penalty or disciplinary action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Violations of the criminal code of Maryland shall be referred to proper authorities for appropriate criminal proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>The following are penalties or disciplinary actions, only one of which may be imposed by summary hearings for each minor violation of inmate rules and regulations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Counseling or reprimand;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Assignment to no more than 20 hours of extra duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loss of participation in facility sponsored recreation, athletic, or cultural activities for a maximum of 15 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Required participation in a program designed to correct the cause of the disciplinary problem;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Loss or reduction of leave privileges for a maximum of 30 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Restriction to the facility except for authorized work, training, education, or other specifically excepted purpose for a maximum of 15 days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>The following are penalties or disciplinary actions, only one of which may be imposed by an adjustment team for each serious violation of inmate rules and regulations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any penalty or disciplinary action provided for minor violations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Assignment to no more than 60 hours of extra duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loss or reduction of leave privileges for a maximum of 60 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Restriction to the facility except for specifically excepted purposes for a maximum of 45 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Loss of up to 30 days of good conduct time or segregation or suspension from the facility for a maximum of 15 days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>In addition to any other penalty or disciplinary action imposed by an adjustment team, transfer to medium or maximum security confinement for suspension or termination from the facility program can be recommended for consideration by the facility's classification team.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>All disciplinary action shall be made a matter of facility records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>Deviation from normal feeding procedures may not be used as a disciplinary action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>Corporal punishment, in any form, may not be permitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>Contraband is anything not specifically authorized by the facility rules. The inmate rules and regulations shall stipulate what an inmate may or may not have on his person or in his sleeping quarters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>Inmates shall be allowed to be reasonably visited by and to correspond with family members, friends, religious advisors, and prospective employers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>The facility shall publish and post regulations and visiting hour schedules in an area within the facility that is accessible to inmates and to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>Inmates shall be allowed at least twice weekly visits with family and friends.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>Denial of visits may not be used as a punishment, unless the reason for the denial stems from serious violation of the visiting rules or justifiable security threat.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>Confidential inmates' visits with their attorneys may not be denied at any time. Appropriate space for these visits shall be provided at the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>There shall be established procedures for control of visits and handling of inmate mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>Mail sent from an inmate shall be sealed by the inmate and may not be opened or inspected by facility staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>Incoming inmate mail may be opened for inspection for contraband; however, it may not be read by the inspecting staff member and its confidentiality shall be maintained. Properly identified attorney and court mail for an inmate shall be opened only in the presence of the inmate to whom it is addressed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>The facility shall permit inmates to reasonably decorate their sleeping quarters with personal possessions, pictures and posters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>Inmates may not be forced to shave, or have their hair cut, unless there is a legitimate medical reason for doing so, and then only upon written orders by a physician.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>Each indigent inmate shall be entitled, upon entry into the facility and thereafter as often as it is necessary, to receive the following items on credit with reimbursement to be made by the inmate as soon as possible:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Hygienic articles including toothpaste, a toothbrush, soap, a razor and razor blades, shaving cream and deodorant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Paper, pencil, envelopes and stamps which allow an inmate written access to the courts, attorneys of record, and elected officials.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Work Release and Leave.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The director or assistant director of a facility may grant an inmate the privilege of leaving the confines of the facility for the purpose of employment or seeking employment, participating in civic activities, volunteer work, or athletic competition, or making personal or family visits.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For facilities staffed and operated by the Division of Correction, the Commissioner shall promulgate appropriate leave regulations subject to the approval of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For facilities not staffed and operated by the Division of Correction, the following shall govern the granting of leave:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The facility shall have a written leave policy which specifies the conditions under which an inmate may earn and be granted leave and the process for granting approval;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any leave granted shall be for a specifically designated purpose;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The facility staff shall randomly verify the conformance of inmates on leave to the conditions of their leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Unless they are within 4 weeks from actual release or parole, inmates may not be permitted to be on leave from the facility for more than two nights in any 7 day period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The director or assistant director shall specify, in writing, and sign the terms and conditions governing the granting of leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Inmates on leave shall sign, and while on leave carry, their copy of the terms and conditions governing the grant of leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The terms and conditions governing the grant of leave shall specify that “an inmate on leave shall be deemed to be in the custody of the facility to the same extent, and subject to the same supervision and control, as an inmate actually in the confinement of the Division of Correction, and any escape shall be punishable as provided in Criminal Procedure Article, §§9-406 and 9-407, Annotated Code of Maryland;” and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Inmates on leave may not be permitted to visit any other state correctional institution without advance, written authorization from the managing officer of that institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Facility staff or another responsible authority shall have a voice contact with each inmate's employer or trainer at least once every 2 weeks to verify attendance and determine progress in employment or training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>For sentenced inmates involved in work release or other leave programs, urine specimens shall be collected at least every other week from all inmates and three times each week on alternate days, for all known drug users. A minimum of 50 percent of the samples collected shall be analyzed to determine drug usage.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate may not be permitted to leave the confines of the facility without being physically checked out of the facility by an authorized staff member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>All inmates shall be checked into the facility by an authorized staff member.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Security.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall establish and conform to appropriate written security procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmates shall be searched upon admission and periodically thereafter to prevent the flow of contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Complete facility shakedowns shall be conducted at least monthly.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any inmate personal property damaged, disassembled or otherwise left in a changed state by facility staff shall be returned to its original condition or, if necessary, replaced by the facility or the responsible staff members.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Physical force shall only be used by facility personnel only to the extent necessary for self-defense, to protect staff, inmates and other individuals, to maintain order or to prevent escape or a riot.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A written report of any use of physical force shall be made to the director and shall be maintained in the facility files.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Facility keys shall be properly identified and stored in a secure area when not in use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A record shall be kept of all keys.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Firearms, mace, tear gas or weapons of any other type may not be permitted in a facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Community and Public Relations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility shall conduct an on-going program of public information to encourage understanding, acceptance and support of its programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The facility shall participate in community planning organizations as they relate to the services rendered by the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility shall prepare an annual report and make it available to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility shall maintain connective relationships with other components of the criminal justice system, such as law enforcement, public defender, judges, sheriff's office, Division of Correction and Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility shall maintain connective relationships with non-criminal justice agencies, such as educational institutions, vocational training centers, employment offices, mental health services and social service agencies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility shall have a written public information policy which outlines provisions governing staff and inmate contact with the news media.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Community Advisory Board.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the time a facility is established, a community advisory board shall also be established according to the provisions of Correctional Services Article, §11-312, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meetings of the community advisory board should be scheduled monthly at a location provided by the facility director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All community advisory board meetings should be conducted according to “Robert's Rules of Order.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The community advisory board should elect annually from within its membership a chairman, secretary, and any other officers it deems necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Minutes of all community advisory board meetings should be taken by a duly elected secretary of the community advisory board. These minutes shall be typed, copied and distributed by the facility director within 7 days of receipt. Copies shall be distributed to all community advisory board members, the Commissioner of Correction, the county executive, mayor or county commissioners as the case may be.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The community advisory board should review and report on the facility's program semi-annually and shall have access to the facility at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Within 2 weeks of the program review, a report should be sent to the county executive, mayor or president of the county commissioners, as the case may be, the Commissioner of Correction, the facility director, and the board of directors, if the facility is privately operated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the community advisory board, after consultation with the facility director, is unable to resolve any difficulty concerning the operations of the facility, written notification of the difficulty shall be forwarded by the community advisory board to the local government with copies to the Commissioner and facility director in the case of locally operated centers, and to the Commissioner with copies to the local government in the case of a State operated center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The community advisory board is encouraged to conduct an on- going program of public information to inform the community about the facility, its purposes, program and performance, and to develop citizen participation in support of the facility's program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The facility director should advise the chairman of the community advisory board of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any serious incidents which are required to be reported to federal, State or local authorities, at the same time they are reported to these authorities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any complaints received from the community regarding facility operations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>At each monthly meeting of the community advisory board, the director of the facility should present a report to the board. At a minimum, this report should include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All intake for preceding month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>All terminations for preceding month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>All successful releases;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Population on first and last day of preceding month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Any new convictions of releases;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Any new convictions of residents currently in house;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Any violations or warning given by the federal, State or local correctional agency having responsibility for those assigned to the facility or given by any other governmental agency, having authority over the health, safety and welfare conditions within the facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A copy of the monthly management information system summary as sent to the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Waivers."> <text>A waiver from one or more of the above regulations may be requested in writing from the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§8-103 and 11-304—11-306, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 2, 1977 (4:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Public and Media Relations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Subunit” means the Division of Correction institutions, minimum security State or contractual prerelease units, and State Use Industries.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Warden” means the warden or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Public Relations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that Division headquarters and each subunit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Respond to citizens' inquiries and complaints transmitted either in writing, by telephone, or through personal visits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designate a person to handle inquiries or complaints; the public relations representative may refer a matter to a more appropriate individual or agency for a response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure that switchboard operators, receptionists, mail room personnel, and other staff refer citizen telephone calls, mail, and visitors to the unit's designated public relations representative.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Telephone Communication. The Commissioner shall ensure that a person who answers telephone calls from the public for Division headquarters and Division subunits is trained in the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Mechanics of the telephone system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proper telephone courtesy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Prompt attention to calls; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Use of directories to forward a caller to the appropriate person.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Written Communication. Division headquarters and each subunit shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Written communication is stamped with the name of the facility and the date immediately upon receipt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A written communication requiring response is responded to within 10 business days of receipt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An interim response is sent to a citizen when the communication cannot be properly responded to within the 10 business days' requirement. The warden shall ensure that the interim response addresses the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual responsible for reply;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The reason for the delay, if it can be stated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The telephone number of the individual responsible for reply; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An estimate as to when a reply will be made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Personal Visit. Division staff encourages an appointment when a citizen wishes to speak in person with a Division staff member about an inmate. Each warden shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that a clear and current notice is posted within the visitor area to notify a visitor as to where information may be obtained.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that an employee having contact with a visitor to Division headquarters, or a Division subunit, is adequately prepared and has available appropriate information which may be of use to the visitor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Designate a person to handle visitors' requests during posted business hours. A citizen may call to confirm business hours for a specific Division subunit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Inquiry.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The process for referring a visitor inquiry is as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Each inquiry, complaint, or request shall be accepted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an inquiry, complaint, or request is not resolved immediately, it shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Referred to an appropriate person for further handling, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Recorded for future processing; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The inquirer shall be advised of information required to direct the request to a more appropriate agency to obtain the information requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each warden shall ensure that a citizen making an inquiry is advised when the inquiry is referred to another agency, by being sent a copy of the referral letter, which shall include the reason for referral to another agency for response.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Each warden shall ensure that appropriate staff receive a copy of the citizen response plan and receive orientation in those procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Media Relations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Access to Public Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner and each warden shall encourage and develop mutual cooperation with media representatives, and permit the greatest possible access to public information within the limitations of applicable statutes and within operational limitations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employee of a Division facility shall refer all media inquiries to the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The warden shall determine whether media inquiries will be forwarded to the Public Information Office of the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Division employees who provide information to media representatives shall ensure that the information is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The best available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Truthful, objective, and accurate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Limited to the information authorized for release under the Maryland Public Information Act, State Government Article, §10-611 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Visits by a Media Representative.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A representative of the media may visit a correctional facility and an inmate confined there for the purpose of conducting a recorded interview only with prior approval of the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The warden shall ensure that the Division Public Information Office is notified of a media visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A media representative shall be required to produce evidence of media employment or authorization which shall be subject to verification before admission to the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A representative of the media shall conduct an interview with an inmate within a normal visiting area unless otherwise approved by the warden, consistent with security needs and routine activities of the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate has the right to refuse to be interviewed and a right to refuse to be photographed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate may have a photograph taken, be filmed, or otherwise be interviewed only if the inmate agrees in writing and has the prior approval of the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The warden shall ensure that a signed authorization indicating inmate approval is placed in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Release of Information on Inmates.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Information regarding inmates confined in the Division or subject to its jurisdiction may not be released except pursuant to statutory authorization under State Government Article, §10-611 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, or another applicable statute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Medical, psychological, and sociological data is confidential and may not be released without proper authorization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Certain other information including details of a pending investigation may be exempt from disclosure.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Release of information regarding the identity of an inmate confined to a correctional facility is limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name of inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Criminal offense for which the inmate has been incarcerated (prior criminal history excluded);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Length of sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Jurisdiction where convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Status, if confined for either evaluation or committed as an eligible person to Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Date received (and date of escape if an escapee); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If the inmate who was the subject of the inquiry is on escape, a physical description may also be released as well as a photograph, if available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a warden has a question regarding the legality of the release of information, the warden shall contact the Division public information officer who shall consult the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services' counsel for advice before release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Request for Information After Business Hours. Division staff who receive a request for information after normal business hours shall refer that request to the warden or the Public Information Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Emergencies.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The warden shall ensure that the Division Public Information Office is immediately notified when an emergency or nonroutine incident occurs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Division public information officer shall be responsible for the release of information about the event.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At the discretion of the warden and in consideration for public safety, basic information about an event may be released by the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The public information officer, with the advice and consent of the warden, shall establish media staging and parking areas. A representative of the media shall remain within the designated areas and shall be briefed by the public information officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A news media briefing is conducted in accordance with the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The public information officer shall prepare and present a preliminary briefing to the news media within 1 hour after arrival. During this briefing, the news media shall be informed of security procedures and safety requirements that will affect them, the nature of the emergency, and background information on the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>At this time, a briefing timetable shall be established which permits news media representatives to meet their deadlines.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>It shall be clearly explained to the news media that an inmate within the institution can monitor radio and television reports, and this will prevent the release of certain information which could jeopardize security or response tactics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If, during the course of negotiations, an inmate requests that a member of the media be present and if that request is granted by the warden or Commissioner, then the media representative should be advised that he or she is expected to brief all other members of the media on site within 1 hour after negotiations have ended.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Representatives of the news media are not permitted into areas of the institution other than the news media briefing area for any purpose without the approval of the warden. A request for pool photography or news media tours, or both, may be considered by the warden after the emergency is under control. Representatives of the media shall be advised that efforts to enter, or to have another person enter, the prohibited area for the purposes of filming the event or interviewing inmates is not allowed. If the public information officer has reason to believe that a restriction of aircraft overflights is necessary, the officer shall notify the Federal Aviation Administration to seek this restriction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Commissioner may prohibit the use of television or photographic equipment on the grounds of a correctional facility, if use of the equipment would make the situation worse and further jeopardize the safety of the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Citizens' Tours of Division Institutions and Facilities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A citizen may request a tour of a Division facility by a letter to the warden or unit manager of the facility. The letter shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The requested date and time for the tour;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A telephone number and address for the tour applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The reason or reasons for the tour; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The number of citizens who are to participate in the tour.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A citizen shall mail a letter requesting a tour of a Division facility at least 4 weeks before a requested tour date to allow for a warden's review of the request and response to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Safety"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish a requirement for development of fire safety plans and a vehicle safety program for institutions and facilities, including State Use Industries.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Evacuation” means to move inmates and staff from a threatened area of fire or hazard of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Fire plan” means the plan of evacuation, security, first aid, and firefighting for the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Fire safety” means a policy and procedures which ensure an institution's safety from fire hazards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Fleet safety coordinator” means a person who is the assigned representative in each motor vehicle safety activity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Institution” means a building that is occupied by inmates and staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Motor vehicle” means a device which transports a person or property.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“State vehicle” means a motor vehicle titled or leased to the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Support agency” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A utility company;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An emergency medical service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Another Division institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Another agency which may assist an institution in case of fire; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>An organization, business, or firm involved by a grant or contract.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Fire Plan Elements."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each warden develops a procedure to establish a fire plan in conjunction with the fire marshal of the locality.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each warden appoints a fire safety officer who has completed a qualified fire safety program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Each fire plan includes the following elements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inspection by the fire safety officer of the institution on a monthly basis with required documentation sent to the warden and the Division headquarters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annual review and revision as needed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Availability of the plan to staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Posting of the fire plan in designated areas.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Establishment of teams to conduct fire fighting, evacuation, security, and first aid.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fire stations for individual extinguishers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Teams for each extinguishing device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Conduct of quarterly fire drills which meet the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Under varying conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On a staggered basis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>On random days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>At random times; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>On all shifts.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Evacuation procedure associated with the conduct of a fire drill which considers security requirements and public safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Establishment of an ongoing relationship with the local fire department to ensure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Understanding of community emergency service capabilities by institutional administration and staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ongoing communication and coordination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Provision for good housekeeping standards within the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Requirement for constant vigilance by staff to detect and eliminate fire hazards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Development of a master list of each institutional fire extinguisher which includes the following provisions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Monitoring extinguisher charge levels;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Recharging or filling of an extinguisher; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Replacement of an extinguisher which is being repaired with a fully charged, operational extinguisher.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Testing of each alarm system by the fire safety officer on a quarterly basis with requirement for maintenance of appropriate documentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Immediate notification of any fire of significance to Division headquarters. When the fire department is summoned to an institution, the warden or designee shall ensure that Division headquarters' personnel are notified according to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Deputy Commissioner during normal business hours; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Division duty officer during hours other than those set for normal business.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Establishment of a contingency plan, coordinated with all participants, for transferring inmates to alternate facilities under emergency conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Mandatory training requirements for each employee to ensure understanding of the fire safety plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Establishment of a list of support agencies which shall be reviewed and updated annually.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Each employee acknowledges awareness of the institution fire plan for the employee's place of employment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>When a fire occurs within an institution and the estimate of damage exceeds $1,000, the warden submits a written report to the Division fire safety officer within 5 working days.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Each inmate is made aware of the institution's fire response plan for inmates.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Conduct of Fire Drills."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that during a fire drill an entire inmate population is not evacuated at one time. Sections of an institution may be evacuated to other sections of the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each warden may simulate fire drill evacuations under conditions in which evacuation would not jeopardize institutional safety and control.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Vehicle Safety and Preventive Maintenance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that Division guidelines for establishment of a vehicle safety program are based on requirements contained in the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maryland State Vehicle Fleet Policies and Procedures as published by the Department of Budget and Fiscal Planning; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Governor's State Fleet Safety Committee Handbook.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fleet safety coordinator is designated for each institution having a vehicle assigned to it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each fleet safety coordinator implements requirements included within the Governor's State Fleet Safety Committee Handbook.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes a preventive maintenance program for each vehicle.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Inmate Commitment"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Adjustment proceeding” means a formal or informal disciplinary and appeal process used by a correctional facility to determine if an inmate has committed a violation of the facility rules.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Case Management team” means a group of correctional staff under COMAR 12.02.24.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Diminution credit” means a day-for-day reduction of an inmate's term of confinement under Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Drug crime” means a violation under:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, §5-621, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, §5-303(d), Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, Title 5, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, §5-602—5-609, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, §§5-614, 5-617, 5-627, and 5-628, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Criminal Law Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland, if there is a conspiracy to commit a crime listed in §B(6)(a)—(e) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Education credit” means a diminution credit awarded under Correctional Services Article, §3-706, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Good conduct credit” means a diminution credit awarded under Correctional Services Article, §3-704, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Incarceration” means confinement resulting from a conviction, sentencing, and commitment to the custody of the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Mandatory supervision” means a conditional release from incarceration granted to an inmate under Correctional Services Article, §7-501, Annotated Code of Maryland, which includes a conditional release granted before July 1, 1989, formerly known as “mandatory release”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Mandatory supervision release date” means the date computed by subtracting the credits which are awarded pursuant to Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, and Title 11, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland, from the maximum expiration date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Maximum expiration date” means the date that an inmate's term of confinement expires.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Release by expiration of sentence” means the unconditional release of an inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Whose only sentence or sentences are for offenses committed before July 1, 1970, and who has served the term of confinement less the diminution credits awarded under Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, and Title 11, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Who has actually served the day-to-day maximum term of confinement under which the inmate is incarcerated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Who has served a term of confinement of 12 months or less and is not subject to mandatory supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Release on mandatory supervision” means the conditional release of an inmate under the Correctional Services Article, §7-501, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Secretary” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.01.01.02B(5).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Sentence” means a period of incarceration or supervision imposed by a judge.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Special projects credit” means a diminution credit awarded under Correctional Services Article, §3-707, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Term of confinement” means the period of an inmate's current incarceration. If an inmate is serving a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Single sentence, it is the period of confinement under that sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Combination of concurrent sentences, it is the period of confinement between the earliest starting date of those sentences and the latest expiration date of those sentences;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Combination of consecutive sentences, it is the period of confinement between the starting date of the first consecutive sentence and the expiration date of the last consecutive sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Combination of concurrent and consecutive sentences, it is the period of confinement between the earliest starting date of the sentences and the last expiration date of the sentences; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Combination of sentences imposed before and after release on mandatory supervision or parole and the release on mandatory supervision or parole is revoked, it is the period of confinement between the earliest starting date of the sentences and the latest expiration date of the sentences, excluding time out of custody for which credit is not allowed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Work tasks credit” means a diminution credit awarded under Correctional Services Article, §3-705, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Parole Procedure for Life Sentences."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Under Correctional Services Article, §7-301(d)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, an inmate who has been sentenced under Criminal Law Article, §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland, to life imprisonment when the death penalty had been sought for a first degree murder offense which was committed on or after July 1, 1983, is not eligible for parole consideration until the inmate has served 25 years less any diminution of confinement credits.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>According to Correctional Services Article, §7-301(d)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland, other inmates who have been sentenced to life imprisonment are not eligible for parole consideration until they have served 15 years less any diminution of confinement credits.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If an inmate is serving consecutive life sentences, the inmate is not eligible for parole consideration until the inmate has served the sum of the number of years required by §A or B for each life sentence less any diminution of confinement credits.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Diminution of Confinement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, this regulation applies to a term of confinement being served by an inmate in the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This regulation does not apply to an indeterminate sentence for civil contempt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Entitlement to Diminution Credit. An inmate is entitled to diminution of the inmate's term of confinement subject to Correctional Services Article, §3-711 and Title 7, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland, from:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The date of sentencing to the custody of the Commissioner; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If first serving a concurrent Maryland sentence in a foreign jurisdiction and later transferred to the custody of the Commissioner, the date the inmate is received into the physical custody of the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Local Jail Credit. Diminution credit awarded under the Correctional Services Article, §§11-503—11-507, Annotated Code of Maryland, to an inmate who is later transferred to the custody of the Commissioner and properly documented by a local detention facility, shall be applied to the inmate's term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Application of Diminution Credits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Diminution credit may be awarded under Correctional Services Article, §§3-703—3-707, Annotated Code of Maryland, in one or more of the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Good conduct;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Work tasks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Education; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Special projects.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Good Conduct Credit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate shall be awarded an initial deduction from the inmate's term of confinement, subject to the inmate's future good conduct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A deduction under this subsection may not be awarded for a period during which an inmate does not receive credit for service of the inmate's term of confinement including a period:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During which an inmate's sentence is stayed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>During which the inmate has escaped; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For which the Maryland Parole Commission has declined to grant credit after revocation of parole or mandatory supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Work Tasks Credit. An inmate may be awarded a deduction from the inmate's term of confinement for satisfactory performance of work tasks assigned to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Education Credit. An inmate may be awarded a deduction from the inmate's term of confinement for satisfactory industry, application, and progress in education programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Special Projects Credit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner, with the approval of the Secretary and based on the Division's current policy and procedure, may establish a list of assignments and programs that qualify for special projects credit which include, but need not be limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prison industry assignments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Education programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Work details;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Work release employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Rehabilitation programs including, but not limited to, programs addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Substance abuse; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Criminal behavior.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special projects credit awarded by a local detention center, between the date an inmate is sentenced to the custody of the Commissioner and the date the inmate is transferred to the Division, shall qualify as special projects credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Special Projects Credit for Housing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as provided in §F(3) of this regulation, an inmate may be awarded special projects credit for housing under Correctional Services Article, §3-707, Annotated Code of Maryland, if the inmate is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Assigned to a cell containing two beds and is not serving a period of disciplinary segregation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Housed in a dormitory or dormitory-type housing and the housing area where the inmate is confined does not provide 55 square feet of living space per inmate, exclusive of dayrooms, toilets, and showers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate may be awarded a maximum of five special projects credits for housing for each calendar month, and on a prorated basis for any portion of a calendar month, beginning on a date and ending on a date the Secretary determines appropriate, based on the demand for inmate housing and services in the Division, subject to §§F(3) and G of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate may not be awarded special projects credit under this section during the inmate's term of confinement if the inmate is serving a term of confinement that includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sentence for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Abduction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Arson in the first degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Carjacking or armed carjacking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Kidnapping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Manslaughter, except involuntary manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Mayhem and maiming, as previously proscribed under Article 27, §§384—386, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Murder or attempted murder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Use of a handgun in the commission of a felony or other crime of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Child abuse, abuse or neglect of a vulnerable adult, or child sale, barter, or trade under Criminal Law Article, §3-601, 3-602, or 3-603, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Assault on a Division inmate or employee under Criminal Law Article, §3-205, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>A drug crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>An offense which would cause the offender to be defined as a child sexual offender, offender, sexually violent offender, or sexually violent predator under Criminal Procedure Article, Title 11, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xiii)"> <text>A crime committed on or after July 1, 2007.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Mandatory sentence for the commission of a felony; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sentence as a repeat offender under Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>This section may not be interpreted, understood, or construed to mean that an inmate who is eligible to receive the credits described in this section has a right to these credits or that an inmate will continue to receive these credits in the future.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An inmate may not be awarded more than 20 diminution credits for a calendar month.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Revocation of Diminution Credit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Diminution credits awarded for participation in education programs may not be revoked under any circumstances.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Good conduct credit and special projects credit may be revoked as the result of an adjustment proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall revoke all special projects credit for housing awarded under Regulation .04F of this chapter if, within 60 days before an inmate's release on mandatory supervision, the inmate is found guilty of an institutional rule violation for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Assault;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Possession of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A weapon or any other article which has been modified into a weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An implement which could be reasonably used to perpetrate an escape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A controlled dangerous substance or any intoxicating substance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Unauthorized medication;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Stolen property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Cash, checks, or money orders in excess of the amount authorized under procedures established by the institution where the inmate is housed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Attempted escape.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Credit revoked under this section may be restored under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Restoration of Revoked Diminution Credit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except under §C of this regulation, upon the recommendation of case management staff, a warden may restore diminution credit revoked during the current incarceration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Case management staff may recommend restoration of revoked diminution credit for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has no guilty finding for an inmate rule violation in the preceding 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is not serving a period of disciplinary segregation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has not been in disciplinary segregation in the preceding 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>With the application of the maximum amount of restored diminution credit, is within 12 months of release; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Not received prior consideration for restoration of diminution credit during the current term of confinement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Received prior consideration for restoration of diminution credit where, as part of that consideration, a condition was imposed that the inmate was required to meet before a second consideration to restore revoked diminution credit would be given under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Refusal to Submit to Medical Testing or Provide a DNA Sample.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A warden may restore, with a recommendation from case management staff, diminution credit revoked for an inmate's refusal to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Submit to a medical test affecting the public health or facility security; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide a DNA sample.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before a warden restores diminution credit revoked for refusing to submit to medical testing or provide a DNA sample, a warden shall verify that the inmate has submitted to the required medical test or provided the DNA sample.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate has no entitlement to approval of restoration of revoked credit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Establishing a Diminution of Confinement Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall maintain a system for administering the diminution of confinement for each inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A diminution of confinement record shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be established on the date that an inmate is received into the custody of the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Contain entries reflecting all diminution credits awarded, revoked, or restored; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reflect a current and accurate record of diminution credit affecting an inmate's term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that staff responsible for maintaining the diminution of confinement record are notified within 5 days of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The date of an inmate's assignment to and subsequent removal from:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A work assignment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An education program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A special project;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Revocation of an inmate's good conduct or special projects credit, or both; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The warden's approval to restore an inmate's revoked diminution credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Notification of Release."> <text>Before release of an inmate for mandatory supervision or expiration of sentence, the commitment office supervisor, or a designee, shall notify the victim of the crime for which the inmate was incarcerated, if the victim has filed a written request for notification.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 3-107, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .05 adopted as an emergency provision effective April 1, 1990 (17:8 Md. R. 972); emergency status extended at 17:20 Md. R. 2421 and 18:9 Md. R. 1006, expired May 15, 1991 (Emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 adopted effective May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended as an emergency provision effective January 1, 2002 (29:4 Md. R. 413); emergency status extended at 29:15 Md. R. 1140; emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05C amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806); August 3, 1992 (19:15 Md. R. 1391); April 12, 1993 (20:7 Md. R. 642); November 20, 1994 (21:23 Md. R. 1935); October 16, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1841)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05E, G, N amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05N amended as an emergency provision effective January 1, 2002 (29:4 Md. R. 413); emergency status extended at 29:15 Md. R. 1140; emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05O adopted effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05O amended as an emergency provision effective January 1, 2002 (29:4 Md. R. 413); emergency status extended at 29:15 Md. R. 1140; emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06G, H, I, K, M amended effective April 27, 1992 (19:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective October 14, 2002 (29:20 Md. R. 1590)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04E amended effective February 12, 2007 (34:3 Md. R. 300)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04F amended effective July 1, 2007 (34:7 Md. R. 700)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended as an emergency provision effective May 1, 2009 (36:14 Md. R. 983); emergency status expired October 1, 2009</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective October 19, 2009 (36:21 Md. R. 1592)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Case Management Process"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“CARC” means a community adult rehabilitation center established under Correctional Services Article, Title 11, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.02.03.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction, or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Confidential material” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Addresses and telephone numbers on victim impact letters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Police reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Juvenile records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Psychological reports, psychiatric evaluations, evaluation reports, and social histories;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Parole progress file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Correspondence relating to therapy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Escape” means a documented incident of unauthorized absence from lawful confinement or custody, except for an inmate on work release, or an inmate assigned to the central home detention unit who is convicted solely of unauthorized absence or being out of bounds.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“G housing identifier” means that the inmate has been reviewed for placement in the general population and is considered suitable for double-celling or dormitory housing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Inmate Records.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inmate records” means the written information that is assembled, maintained, and used in accordance with the provisions of Correctional Services Article, §§3-601—3-608, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inmate records” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Police reports and other relevant information concerning the crime for which the inmate was most recently convicted and the sentence imposed for that conviction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal and juvenile history, and relevant records concerning it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Presentence investigation, parole, probation, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>School records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Information concerning the inmate's prior medical and mental health history, including relevant medical and hospital records and reports; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Other relevant information, records, and reports concerning the inmate's social, physical, or mental condition and history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Inmate records” does not mean separate Division records maintained by the mental health and health services units.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“MAP” means mutual agreement programming which is a process of negotiating agreements among an inmate, the Maryland Parole Commission, and the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“S housing identifier” means that special factors preclude the inmate's assignment to the general population and require single-celling. Special factors include a history of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Aggressive behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medical problems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Mental health problems; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Victimization by other inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Case Management Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In classifying an inmate committed to its custody, the Division uses a review in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §9-305, Annotated Code of Maryland, which requires:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The consideration of case information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An administrative process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Case management team membership, when team action is required, shall be comprised of staff approved by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate who escapes from, or while assigned to, a minimum or prerelease security facility shall, upon return, be housed within a medium security facility without case management action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate with a sentence of life or death shall be initially classified to not less than the maximum security level.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate received into the Division with a sentence of 1 year or less for a nonviolent offense, absent documentation to the contrary, shall be classified to the minimum security level or the prerelease security level.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall designate which actions shall be reviewed by case management staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An inmate may pursue informal remedy of complaints regarding a case management action or formal remedy by writing to the Inmate Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The warden shall ensure that the parties concerned in the case management process understand that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reclassification does not imply that a change will occur, but rather, serves as a means of systematically monitoring progress; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Simply achieving a score which makes an inmate eligible for a change does not guarantee or imply that a change will occur.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Notwithstanding the provisions of this or any other regulation and consistent with the law, the Commissioner, and those the Commissioner authorizes, have the discretion to modify, suspend, or terminate for any reason the process described in this regulation. Similarly, the Commissioner or the Commissioner's representatives retain the discretion to modify the classification and assignment of any inmate at any time for any reason.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Case Management Approval Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The assigned case management specialist shall prepare the appropriate form to consider the actions designated in this regulation and submit the completed form for team or administrative review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A reviewing supervisor or members of a team shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the completed form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Record their recommendations and rationales;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Sign the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Check the box provided on the form to reflect their personal concurrence or nonconcurrence with the recommended action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If nonconcurring, record in the space provided a brief supporting rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensure compliance with a written request from a crime victim to read a victim impact statement at a case management hearing at which an inmate is considered for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Family leave,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Special leave, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Home detention; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Forward the form to the warden or designee for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The warden shall review a case management action which, by law or Division directive, requires the warden's personal review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The warden shall review a case management recommendation in §C of this regulation and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approve the recommendation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With a written rationale:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disapprove the recommendation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Order further proceedings, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Make an independent decision different from the recommendation of case management staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The warden of the Maryland Reception, Diagnostic, and Classification Center may substitute another institution of the same security level of the institution recommended by case management staff for an inmate's initial placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall encourage each warden to review personally all case management recommendations, but with the exception of the specific case management action in §C of this regulation, may delegate them to a designee who shall review and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approve the recommendation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With a written rationale:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disapprove the recommendation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Order further proceedings, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Make an independent decision different from the recommendation of case management staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A warden or, as permitted, a warden's designee shall sign and date the appropriate case management form in the spaces provided and return it to the inmate's assigned case management specialist for further processing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The following case management recommendations which have been approved by a warden shall be submitted to the Commissioner:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Family leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interstate Corrections Compact transfer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>MAP requirement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Case management staff recommendation regarding contractual transfer to the Federal Bureau of Prisons, regardless of the nature of the staff's or the warden's recommendation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Assignment to the home detention program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Commissioner shall review a case management recommendation in §H of this regulation and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approve the recommendation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With a written rationale:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disapprove the recommendation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Order further proceedings, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Make an independent decision different from the recommendation of the warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the assigned case management staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the inmate of the final result of action required by this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Distribute the required form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure that the final result is recorded on the inmate institutional progress sheet, along with the date of the final action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee involved in the case management process is trained in the use of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A review of this regulation is provided to a newly received inmate as part of orientation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An authorized terminal operator enters complete and accurate data after each initial security designation and security reclassification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Access to Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall compile and maintain a complete record and history of an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Division shall also record a full and accurate description of an inmate committed to it, including photographs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Division shall seek the cooperation of State and local officials and agencies in order to obtain required information. Division staff shall promptly request the information, records, and reports from these officials to ensure that this section is complied with.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A warden may grant access to an inmate's records, except for a presentence investigation, without a written request, to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A provider of medical services, if the record is necessary to assure medical care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An individual authorized by court order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An individual authorized by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A Maryland judge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A State's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A warden may grant access to an inmate's records, except for a presentence investigation, with a written request, to an:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Employee of a State department or agency if the request is in the furtherance of the employee's lawful duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Employee of a State, federal, or local law enforcement agency, if the request is in the furtherance of the employee's lawful duties; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate or individual who has the written authorization of the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that before granting access to an individual identified in §§D and E of this regulation, except a Maryland judge or a State's attorney, a warden shall also be satisfied that the records:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be used only for legitimate purposes of the individual or agency receiving them and not for an improper or unauthorized purpose; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not be further disseminated to an individual or agency not authorized to receive them.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden grants access to an inmate's presentence investigation, upon request, to the inmate's attorney or to a State's attorney. The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden denies other requests for access to an inmate's presentence investigation unless the access is specifically granted by a court order or the access is requested for the use of a correctional institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Records are reviewed in the presence of an institutional employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A charge authorized by law is made for all photocopies provided; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A log containing the following is maintained:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date of review,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Name of inmate,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Commitment number of the inmate,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Name of the person requesting access,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Reason for the request, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Warden's signature for each approved request for access to inmate records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Attorney Access to Base File Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An attorney shall provide the Commissioner with a minimum of 24 hours notice in writing. A specific reason for the request shall be stated by the attorney. Merely noting “legal” is insufficient.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before review, the attorney shall provide the warden with an authorization for release of records form signed by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that an attorney is required to show proper identification before access is permitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An attorney may review only those records for which the request has been made in accordance with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the records are to be reviewed by an employee or agent of the attorney, the Commissioner shall ensure that proper identification accompanies the employee and can be produced upon request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Records shall be reviewed in the presence of an institutional employee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Medical records which are the property of the Division are maintained by an outside medical provider. A request for these records shall be made in writing directly to the medical provider.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Inmate Access to Base File Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may obtain access to base file information in accordance with procedures described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for records review shall be submitted in writing to the warden and an acknowledgement of a request received shall be sent to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A review shall be scheduled within a reasonable time and conducted in the presence of Division staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The name of an inmate shall be placed on a list maintained by the records department for inmates requesting file review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Records department personnel shall schedule records review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The records department shall ensure that material to which an inmate may not have access is removed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An inmate shall be permitted to review the inmate's base file once every 6 months, unless additional reviews are approved by the warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Inmate Access to Confidential Psychological Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may obtain access to confidential psychological information in the inmate's base file in accordance with procedures described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate shall send a written request for access to the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A warden shall review a request with the appropriate psychology staff and decide if access may be granted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Access to psychological information may be denied by the warden if, in the opinion of the psychology staff, access to this information is psychologically contraindicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If access is denied, the warden shall ensure that a summary of the records that are compatible with the inmate's current level of functioning shall be prepared and made available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The custodian of records shall collect a fee for copying and a fee for preparation of the materials from the requesting party. However, the custodian may not levy a preparation fee for the first 2 hours of official employee time that is needed to respond to a request. Copying and preparation fees shall be posted in the records department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A charge may not be made if the total amount of the fee is $1 or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commissioner may waive the fee if the waiver is in the public interest.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Photocopying will be done only after normal procedures have been followed for withdrawing money from the inmate's financial account or, in the case of outside parties, upon satisfactory arrangements for payment by the requesting party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Appeals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If permission for access is granted, the records shall be reviewed in the presence of Division personnel. A record of this review shall be placed in the inmate's base file by records department personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If permission is denied, the person making the request shall be notified in writing. This notification shall be made part of the inmate's base file. An appeal of the warden's decision to deny access may be made to the office of the Commissioner. The Commissioner shall make a final determination on the request in accordance with COMAR 12.11.02.11.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Request for Inactive Inmate Records Maintained at the State Records Center."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A case management manager, supervisor, or designee shall ensure that a reference request form is prepared when an inmate's records are requested from the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A case management manager, supervisor, or designee shall notify the State Records Center of the records which are needed for review and obtain the records at the State Records Center, Waterloo, Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When the records are no longer needed, the case management manager, supervisor, or designee shall return the record to the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c), 3-601, and 3-603, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .02, .03, and .05 amended as an emergency provision effective July 30, 1991 (18:17 Md. R. 1912); emergency status extended at 18:26 Md. R. 2828; emergency status expired February 28, 1992; amended permanently effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.05 amended effective June 17, 1996 (23:12 Md. R. 872)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="08" heading="Custody and Security"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Adverse job action” means a disruption to the normal operational order of the institution by concerted action or inaction of an institution's employees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Disturbance” means a situation which disrupts the normal operational order of an institution, and for which the assistance of additional off-duty staff may be required.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Major emergency” means a situation occurring within a facility or on surrounding State property under the jurisdiction of the Division requiring the deployment of resources internal or external to save lives, protect property and public safety, or to avert or lessen the severity of the situation. An emergency condition exists if the situation poses a severe threat to maintaining the desired level of security and safety of those inside.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Maximum security” means the second highest security level which provides secure housing for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Poses a high risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is a significant escape risk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has a history of serious institutional disciplinary problems; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Is likely to have serious disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Medium security” means the third highest security level which provides housing for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Poses some risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is a moderate escape risk; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has a limited history of institutional disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Minimum security” means the next to lowest security level which provides housing for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Poses less risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Poses less risk of escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has a minimal history of disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Perimeter” means the wall or fence surrounding an institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Prerelease security” means the lowest security level which provides housing for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Presents the least risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Presents the least risk of escape; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has a record of satisfactory institutional behavior.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Security”means an institution's physical features which help control inmate behavior and prevent escape.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Super maximum security” means the highest security level. A super maximum security institution provides secure housing within a secure perimeter. Features include single-celling, extremely limited institutional movement, constant observation, and limited inmate-to-staff and inmate-to-inmate contact to control the behavior of an inmate who has demonstrated an inability to be housed in an institution of lesser security.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Security Levels."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A super maximum security institution provides the highest level of secure housing within a secure perimeter for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Poses a high risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is a significant escape risk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a history of serious institutional disciplinary problems or is likely to have serious disciplinary problems; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has demonstrated an inability to be housed in an institution of lesser security.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A maximum security institution provides secure housing within a secure perimeter to control the behavior of an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Poses a high risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is a significant escape risk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a history of serious institutional disciplinary problems; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is likely to have serious disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A medium security institution provides secure housing within a secure perimeter for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Poses some risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is a moderate escape risk; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a limited history of institutional disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A minimum security institution has fewer security features for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Poses less risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Poses less risk of escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a minimal history of disciplinary problems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A prerelease security institution has the security features for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Presents the least risk of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Presents the least risk of escape; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a record of satisfactory institutional behavior.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The assignment of an inmate to a security level is based on the following three principles:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate is assigned to the appropriate security level necessary to control the inmate's behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Security may not be increased as a means of punishment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assignment of a security level is based on objective behavior-oriented factors.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The following factors relate to the physical configuration of an institution and are used to establish security levels:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number and type of perimeter barriers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Existence and period of operation of gun towers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Use of external perimeter patrols;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Use of detection devices; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Housing configuration of the institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The following factors relate to the degree of staff supervision of an inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Level of observation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Day movement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Night movement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Meal movement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Access to jobs and programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Institutional visits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Transportation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Special, compassionate, or family leaves.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that when a group of maximum or medium security level inmates are being transported, the shift commander:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensures that the inmates are transported in a secured vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determines the number of correctional officers assigned to escort duty and authorizes the appropriate weapons to be carried;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assigns to escort duty at least one correctional officer of the same sex as the inmates being transported; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If minimum or prerelease security level inmates are included in the group, ensures that they are restrained in the same manner as the maximum or medium security level inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>If a group of minimum or prerelease level inmates are being transported, the shift commander may transport them without restraints by on-duty staff other than correctional officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that correctional officers assigned to escort duty:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Are qualified in the use of firearms, trained and experienced in transporting inmates, familiar with good security practices, and have appropriate vehicle operators' permits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide supervision to a probationary correctional officer who is assigned to escort duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Obtain from the institutional control center an escort I.D. card for an inmate to be transported, and return the card to the institution control center when the inmate is returned to the institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure that restraint devices remain on an inmate while in a courtroom unless the presiding judge or magistrate orders otherwise;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>While escorting an inmate being treated or admitted to outside medical facilities:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify medical facility security personnel when an inmate arrives at a medical facility,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that restraint devices remain on an inmate while in a medical facility, unless a health care provider, due to medical circumstances, directs otherwise,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Maintain an inmate in view at all times, unless an inmate's medical treatment makes this impossible, in which case the officer shall assume a position as close to the inmate as possible,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Ensure that an inmate receives only items which have been approved by Division or medical facility staff,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Ensure that an inmate is allowed to make a telephone call only when the warden or designee has granted specific written permission,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Ensure that any visit the inmate receives is in accordance with COMAR 12.02.16, institutional directives, and medical facility policies,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Ensure that an inmate is allowed only in an authorized area of a medical facility,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Ensure that an inmate does not receive personal visitors, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Obtain a written receipt for an inmate who is left in the custody of a law enforcement or other authorized agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Emergency Preparedness Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall develop and implement an emergency preparedness program for major emergencies which may affect the safety and security of a facility. The program shall include procedures for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Establishment of command responsibility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Isolation, containment, and control of the emergency situation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reestablishment to normal operational order following resolution of the emergency situation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An emergency preparedness program shall ensure the personal safety for each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Visitors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Civilian and security staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a major emergency included within the emergency preparedness plan is documented in accordance with Division regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that emergency preparedness program plans are coordinated with, and communicated to, allied agencies which may be called upon for assistance during institutional emergency conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure staff awareness of emergency preparedness programs.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="09" heading="Medical Services"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Abortion” means spontaneous or induced termination of pregnancy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Director” means Director, Health and Mental Health Services of the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Involuntary admission” means admission of an inmate to a psychiatric hospital other than voluntarily.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Medical parole” means a parole granted to an inmate because of a diagnosed serious medical condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Parole” means a conditional early release of an inmate from the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Postnatal care” means the necessary intervention affording health care and support to the infant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Postpartum care” means the necessary intervention affording health care and support to a recently delivered mother.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Pregnancy” means the gestational process of growth and development within a woman of a new individual from conception through the embryonic and fetal periods to birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Prenatal care” means the necessary intervention affording health care both to the woman and to the fetus during pregnancy and before birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Terminal” means ending in death.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Inmate Pregnancy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Assessment and Treatment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The health services provider shall provide a complete history, physical examination, and definitive laboratory test to determine pregnancy when requested by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medical staff; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Prenatal and postpartum care shall be provided in accordance with acceptable health services standards to include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Regular appointments with an accredited obstetrical clinic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medications as necessary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Patient education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that standards are developed to address:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prenatal care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Postnatal care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Postpartum care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Abortion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Hospital admission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Disposition of the child in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §9-601, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Executive clemency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Involuntary Admission of an Inmate to a Psychiatric Hospital."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The warden shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that an admission to a mental hospital is limited to a Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Comply with the requirements for an involuntary admission under Health-General Article, §§10-613—10-617, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Division institution transferring an inmate shall provide the Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital with the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Current condition of inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's medical and psychiatric history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Circumstances threatening the life or safety of the inmate or others; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Current medication and other treatment being provided to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A Division institution that transfers an inmate to a Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital shall pick up and return the inmate to the Division institution following notification by the Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital that the inmate is ready to be discharged from the hospital.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall develop directives to standardize operations of a Division mental health unit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Medical Parole."> <text>Criteria for medical parole consideration include all of the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The inmate is imminently terminal or has a condition which would indicate that continued imprisonment would serve no useful purpose. An example of the latter would be an irreversible coma.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The inmate's release would not unduly jeopardize public safety.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Contents of Medical Parole Request."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A warden shall ensure that all documents forming the basis for a medical parole request are submitted to the Parole Commission through the Division Director and the Commissioner. Upon approval, the Commissioner shall forward a recommendation for medical parole to the Parole Commissioner for consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>To initiate consideration for a medical parole, a warden shall send a summary of an inmate's incarceration record since admission or last parole consideration to the Division Director. The summary shall include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>History of program participation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special housing requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Statement by the attending physician which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Diagnosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Prognosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Inpatient or outpatient status, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criteria justification; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Statement by the warden which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A recommendation to either approve or disapprove the medical parole request,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The reasons for the recommendation, in §B(4)(a), and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An aftercare treatment plan for the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner may reject a recommendation for medical parole which has been submitted by the Director. The Commissioner's decision to deny a medical parole is final.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Medical Treatment of Inmates While on Work Release, Leave, or Escape."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division is financially responsible for treatment of injury or illness sustained by an inmate while on unescorted family leave, work release, unescorted special leave, or in an escape status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Emergency medical treatment shall be provided to Division inmates by a community hospital.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Invoices for services provided shall be submitted to the Division health services contractor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Nonemergency treatment shall be rendered by the Division health services provider.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="10" heading="Chaplaincy Services Program" reason="Repealed — see COMAR 12.03.02"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01F amended effective July 31, 1995 (22:15 Md. R. 1120)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective March 12, 2018 (45:5 Md. R. 286)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="11" heading="Inmate Recreational Programs"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Recreation Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall develop, implement, and maintain a recreational program for the inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that an inmate is given the opportunity to participate in as many recreational activities as possible, considering institutional security and control needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A volunteer may be used at each institution for the recreational program, under the supervision of recreation staff, and in conjunction with the volunteer services program requirements and security regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner may develop procedures for inmate participation in a community league when consistent with established Division policy and security requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A staff member involved with an inmate recreation program may consult with a community-based interest group to provide liaison service for a program, and to ensure community and institutional interaction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="12" heading="Work Release"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall establish a work release program for an eligible inmate who can safely be allowed to enter the community unescorted with minimum risk to public safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Work release is a privilege which may be granted to an eligible inmate in order to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide an inmate with the opportunity to demonstrate the ability to function in the community in preparation for eventual release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complement the educational and vocational training obtained within the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Enable the inmate to meet the following types of financial obligations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Room,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Board,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Transportation costs,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Clothing,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Support payments for dependents, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Victim restitution;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Provide an inmate with the opportunity to gain work experience and develop positive work habits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Enable an inmate to attend school.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Case information” means any information about the inmate which is contained in the inmate's Division base file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Estimated release date” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For inmates serving sentences other than life, the mandatory supervision release date, expiration of sentence date, MAP release date, delayed parole release date, or any scheduled parole hearing date that is likely to result in approval for parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For inmates serving life sentences, a scheduled parole rehearing date that was established at a parole hearing on or after February 1, 1991, at which the Parole Commission explicitly recommended that the inmate be considered for work release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For inmates serving a life sentence with all but a portion of the sentence suspended, either a date as defined in §B(4)(b) of this regulation or a mandatory supervision release date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Job check” means an investigation of a work release job to determine if the inmate and the employer are adhering to the requirements of the work release program and that the inmate is satisfactorily adjusting to the demands of the job.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner or designee may specify certain treatment and educational programs that an inmate is required to complete before becoming eligible for work release. These programmatic requirements shall ensure that an inmate's needs are addressed before an inmate begins work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inmates serving sentences of life without parole are not eligible for work release at any time during their sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Inmates serving life sentences other than life without parole may be considered for work release if the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmates are eligible for parole consideration under Correctional Services Article, §7-301, Annotated Code of Maryland. This section requires the inmate to serve 15 years less credits earned under Criminal Procedure Article, §6-218, and Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Death penalty was sought by the State in the inmate's prosecution but not imposed. The inmate shall serve 25 years less credits earned under Criminal Procedure Article, §6-218, and Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland, before the inmate may be considered for work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate had a parole hearing on or after February 1, 1991, at which the Parole Commission explicitly recommended that the inmate be considered for work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Parole Commission has scheduled a parole rehearing date at the same time the Parole Commission explicitly recommended work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Inmate meets all the eligibility criteria listed in §D(1), (2), and (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Exception. If incarcerated solely for contempt of court as a result of failure to pay court-ordered support payments, an inmate shall meet the following criteria to be eligible for work release:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be not more than 12 months from an estimated release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Achieve the prerelease security level in accordance with the provisions of Division Regulation 100-1; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Demonstrate positive adjustment for a minimum of 30 days at the prerelease security level.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate incarcerated solely for contempt of court as a result of failure to pay court-ordered support for dependents shall be eligible for work release when the inmate meets the following requirements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Achieves the prerelease security level in accordance with the requirements of Division Regulation 100-1; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Demonstrates positive adjustment for a minimum of 30 days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An inmate who is initially classified to prerelease security, who meets the eligibility requirements for home detention, and is approved by the Commissioner shall be considered eligible for work release status effective on the date of the Commissioner's approval for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Approving Inmates for Work Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When considering an inmate for work release, a warden and each classification team member shall determine if the inmate meets eligibility criteria, and give consideration to each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate's potential threat to public safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Community's perception of the work release program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate's institutional adjustment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmate's previous participation in institutional programs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate's application for work release shall include a listing of all work release rules and a signed statement by the inmate agreeing to abide by those rules. The application shall also contain an authorization by the inmate to release case information about the inmate to work release employers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In order for an inmate to be approved for work release, the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Assigned counselor shall verify that the inmate meets the eligibility criteria;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate's application shall be reviewed and approved by a classification team;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Warden shall approve the application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Commissioner or designee shall approve the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Placement of an Inmate on Work Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The warden shall ensure that a participating inmate be given an orientation which explains the rules and regulations of the work release program to an inmate before an inmate's placement on a job.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A work release counselor shall assist an inmate in the development of employment opportunities and placement on a job which is consistent with an inmate's individual and program goals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A counselor shall evaluate the legitimacy of each job opportunity before placement of an inmate, and shall also evaluate the integrity of the potential employer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner or a warden may establish a list of unacceptable employment conditions for work release jobs. Inmates may not be placed on jobs that have any of the unacceptable conditions specified by the Commissioner or a warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Each warden shall ensure that each employer is provided with a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Copy of all work release rules which the employer and the inmate are required to follow; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Work release orientation explaining the rules of the work release program and the Division's expectations of participating employers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A warden shall ensure that a work release plan is established for each inmate before an inmate's placement on a work release job. A warden shall ensure that each work release plan includes, at a minimum, the inmate's:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Assigned place of employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Hours to be worked;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Means of transportation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Time allowed for transportation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Salary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner or designee shall ensure that a work release plan is reviewed and approved by the facility administrator at an inmate's assigned prerelease unit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Supervision on Work Release."> <text>The Commissioner shall establish minimum standards of supervision for an inmate assigned to work release which shall include at least the following requirements:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Monthly interview of an inmate by a work release counselor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Monthly job checks by a work release counselor which shall be accomplished by personal visits to the job site;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Monthly additional job checks by the work release counselor which may be accomplished by means other than personal visits to the job site;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Monthly comparisons of the prerelease facility's records of the hours that an inmate worked with an employer's records of an inmate's work hours; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Monthly audits of work release case supervision records by each warden or designee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Removal from Work Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that an inmate is automatically removed from work release if classified higher than the prerelease security level.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may be removed from work release for any reason considered appropriate by a classification team provided that this decision is made in accordance with the procedures in Division Regulation 100-1 and approved by the warden.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Disposition of Work Release Earnings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each work release participant shall turn in all earnings to Division staff immediately upon return to the unit on the day the pay is received.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Division staff shall ensure that deductions are made from each work release inmate's earnings in the following order of priority:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The amount determined to be the cost to the State of providing travel, food, lodging, and clothing for the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An amount an inmate is legally obligated to pay for the support of dependents; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An amount an inmate has been ordered by the court to pay for restitution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Work Release for Division Inmates Housed in Local Jails."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner may designate jails or detention facilities within the political subdivisions of Maryland as places for housing an inmate committed to the custody of the Division who is approved for work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Division work release regulation shall, to the extent possible, be applied to an inmate housed in a local facility as if the inmate were housed in a Division facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 repealed and new Regulation .03 adopted effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05G amended effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="13" heading="Volunteer Services"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Citizen participant” means a person who provides a service on an irregular and infrequent basis, not exceeding six visits per year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Community service worker” means a person who agrees to perform a certain number of community service hours as a condition of probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Coordinator” means volunteer activities coordinator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Director” means the Division headquarters Chief of Religious and Volunteer Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Employee volunteer” means a person who is employed by an institution and who provides a service on personal time to that institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Frisk search” means running the hands across clothing worn to detect any hidden objects.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Maryland CCH IDENT/INDEX” means Computerized Criminal History Identification Index.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Material or monetary donor” means a person or group that provides material or monetary donations to an institution or the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Rap sheet” means the primary method by which criminal history information is reported.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Reasonable suspicion” means the apparent state of facts or circumstances which would lead a reasonably prudent person to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Believe that something is wrong;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have an apprehension or to imagine that a violation has been, is being, or will be committed by a specific individual based on only slight evidence which does not amount to proof.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Registered volunteer” means a volunteer who has completed the screening and orientation procedures, and has obtained the approval necessary to make regular visits to the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Student intern” means a student from a post-high school educational institution who, for credit and under the supervision of that person's school, performs services on a regular or frequent basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Volunteer” means someone who has been approved as a volunteer through the procedures in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Volunteer Professional.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Volunteer professional” means a person who represents another agency in providing a service on a regular or frequent basis and is paid by that agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Volunteer professional” does not mean the following personnel:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Department of Education staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Contractual personnel who provide substance abuse treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Institutional parole agents.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Volunteer services” means planned activities which aid staff in promoting inmate adjustment and which utilize volunteers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Use of Volunteers."> <text>Volunteers shall be used as an integral part of the service delivery system for the benefit of the Division and its population. Volunteers shall supplement and extend, not take the place of, staff and staff services.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Volunteer Services Program Management."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director and the coordinator for each institution shall develop annual volunteer goals based on institutional needs and direction from the Commissioner and warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each registered volunteer shall have a written assignment description prepared by the coordinator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director and the coordinators shall recruit volunteers from the various cultural and socioeconomic segments of the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Selection.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A coordinator shall ensure that each volunteer applicant is screened using the following methods:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Personal interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Completion of application for volunteer service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Investigation of credentials, if credentials are germane to volunteer services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criminal history investigation using, at a minimum, the following sources:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maryland CCH IDENT/INDEX and rap sheet,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>FBI check (transaction codes CCH and CCF),</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>OBSCIS II, which is a management information system for the Division of Parole and Probation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Motor vehicle records, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Fingerprinting, followed by submission of prints to the FBI for identification, at the warden's discretion.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A warden or designee may authorize a more limited screening for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A citizen participant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An employee volunteer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A material or monetary donor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A coordinator may place a community service worker as a volunteer if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Applicant is not under court order for drug treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Warden approves the placement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A warden or designee may accept a person with a criminal record as a registered volunteer, whether previously incarcerated or on supervised parole or supervised probation, with the following stipulations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The person may not be selected for service other than as a citizen participant until 1 year has elapsed after termination of supervision by closure or abatement through any criminal justice agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The person may not have been arrested since termination from supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A person who has had a condition of supervision requiring drug abuse treatment shall also provide as a reference the name of that person's most recent parole or probation agent or substance abuse treatment counselor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An employee volunteer shall sign an agreement to volunteer a specific service instead of completing an application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Acceptance or Rejection of a Volunteer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that criteria for acceptance or rejection of a volunteer candidate is consistently applied among all institutions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The application of any volunteer applicant who is rejected, along with the reason for rejection, shall be sent to the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Director shall forward the information in §D(6)(b) to the Commissioner, along with a recommendation to approve or disapprove the rejection. The Director shall base the recommendation upon:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Information contained in the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Criminal history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Reason for rejection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The need for service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>The applicant's status as a volunteer elsewhere in the system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Director shall advise the warden of the Commissioner's decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A volunteer applicant may appeal the decision, in writing, to the Commissioner within 30 days of receiving notice of rejection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Volunteer Orientation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A registered volunteer shall receive an orientation which has been approved by the Director and shall sign a document stating that orientation has been received.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The coordinator shall conduct the orientation which shall include, at minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Basic rules and regulations which affect a volunteer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A description of institutional programming operations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The coordinator shall provide a citizen participant with an orientation approved by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A volunteer may provide services only after receiving orientation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Volunteer Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The staff supervisor of the volunteer shall provide special skill training as needed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director shall ensure supplemental training opportunities for volunteers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Supervision and Monitoring of a Volunteer.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A volunteer's supervisor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Work with the coordinator to assure adequate supervision of volunteer efforts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Complete an annual evaluation for each volunteer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A volunteer shall complete an annual placement experience evaluation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The coordinator shall ensure that a volunteer receives formal and informal recognition for the volunteer's contributions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The warden shall ensure that an inmate receives information about volunteer services during institutional orientation and by institutional bulletins posted throughout the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Gifts, contributions, and donations shall be accepted and processed under procedures established by the Department of Budget and Fiscal Planning.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>The coordinator shall maintain a file for each volunteer, to contain at least the following documents:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Volunteer application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Volunteer assignment description;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Acknowledgment of orientation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Evaluations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Volunteer exit form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Program notes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>The Commissioner shall review major modifications to existing institutional volunteer programs and program initiatives before implementation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Volunteer Access to the Institution.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign a volunteer log provided by the institution upon entering and leaving the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Search Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A volunteer is subject to established procedure.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign an authorization for a frisk search. The shift supervisor may deny a volunteer access to the institution if the volunteer refuses to consent to a clothed body search.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign an authorization for a strip search if the warden has reasonable suspicion that an illegal act either has been, may be, or is being committed. The shift supervisor shall deny a volunteer access to the institution if the volunteer refuses to consent to a strip search.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Reassignment, Suspension, and Discharge of a Volunteer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The coordinator shall initiate appropriate action if a volunteer is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Arrested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Violates institutional rules; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is not performing responsibilities in accordance with the assignment description or the expectations of the supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An action may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Transfer to another assignment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Suspension; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Discharge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In the event of discharge, the coordinator shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conduct an exit interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complete the volunteer exit form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request that the volunteer complete an evaluation form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Refer the volunteer to a volunteer placement agency if the volunteer so desires.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The name of a volunteer who is discharged for unsatisfactory behavior, with reason for discharge, shall be forwarded to the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Determine the appropriateness of the volunteer continuing to provide services within the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Relocate the volunteer within the system when appropriate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notify the warden and the volunteer of the volunteer's removal as a volunteer from all institutions of assignment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The volunteer may appeal an action taken under this regulation, in writing, to the Commissioner, within 30 days after receiving notice of the action.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="14" heading="Inmate Privileges"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Inmate Access to Telephone."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Definitions. In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Emergency Telephone Call.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Emergency telephone call” means a telephone call for an inmate which involves:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Serious family illness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Injury or death of a family member; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Other serious matters as determined by appropriate institutional personnel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Emergency telephone call” does not mean:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Routine communication with lawyers or the courts; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Matters which may be handled by mail.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Family” means an inmate's spouse, natural grandparents, parents, siblings, children, grandchildren, and persons who have these relationships through adoption.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate telephone” means a telephone exclusively available for inmate use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Institutional telephone” means a telephone which is used to conduct institutional business and is not available for inmate use, except for an emergency telephone call conducted under staff supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Restriction and Suspension of Telephone Privilege.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except when an emergency telephone call is authorized, an inmate may not use an institutional telephone for legal communication. An inmate shall use an inmate telephone when available, or the mail service.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate may make a nonemergency telephone call only on a designated inmate telephone available within the institution at the expense of the inmate or the person called.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A warden or designee may suspend or revoke an inmate's telephone privilege if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate violates institutional procedures; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Complaints are made by a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Telephone company representative, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Person who has received an inmate's call.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A warden or designee may suspend an inmate's telephone privilege for security reasons.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A warden or designee shall ensure that an inmate's access to a telephone does not interfere with an institution's operations, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Work assignments; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Institutional inmate counts.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="15" heading="Inmate Escape"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Crime victim” means a person who suffers personal physical injury, death, or loss of property as a direct result of a crime, and includes the spouse, child, sibling, parent, legal guardian, or next of kin of the person, if the person is deceased.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Escape” means unauthorized departure of an inmate from a place of lawful confinement or custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Jessup regional emergency warning system” means the mechanism through which the Jessup community and Jessup area correctional facilities are notified of escapes, the apprehension of escapees, and mass disturbances that have occurred in Jessup area correctional facilities. This mechanism includes a siren alarm and a recorded telephone message concerning the incident. The telephone number through which the public may access the recorded message is (410) 799-1136.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“FBI” means Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Warden” means warden or designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Notification of Escape."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When an inmate escapes from the custody of the Division, the Commissioner shall ensure that the following notifications are made:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Institutions and units of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System in the Baltimore region shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Baltimore City Police Department, Eastern District,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Fugitive squad of the Baltimore City Police Department, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Federal Bureau of Investigation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Institutions and units of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System in the Jessup region shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Maryland State Police, Glen Burnie Barracks,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Patuxent Institution, to engage the Jessup regional emergency warning system,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fugitive squad of the Baltimore City Police Department, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>FBI;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Institutions in the Hagerstown region shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Maryland State Police, Hagerstown Barracks,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hagerstown Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Washington County Sheriff's Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>FBI, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Baltimore City fugitive squad;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Eastern Correctional Institution shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Maryland State Police, Barrack X, Eastern Correctional Institution detachment, Somerset County,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Salisbury Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Wicomico County Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Worcester County Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Somerset County Sheriff's Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Princess Anne City Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Pocomoke City Police Department,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Division of Correction Investigative Unit,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Baltimore City fugitive squad, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>FBI;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The units of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System located in Charles, Wicomico, Queen Anne's, and Carroll counties shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Local Maryland State Police,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Local county law enforcement agency,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>FBI, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Baltimore City fugitive squad;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A Division institution or prerelease unit shall notify the Division investigative unit when an inmate escapes, or attempts to escape, and it is suspected that a Division employee or volunteer is involved in the escape or escape attempt through:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The commission of a criminal offense,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Neglect of duty, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Violation of another Division regulation which is applicable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an inmate escapes while under escort and away from the institution, the Commissioner shall ensure that the officer in charge of the institution where the inmate was housed notifies the local police jurisdiction or precinct where the escape took place.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a Division escapee has a detainer for a sentence, concurrent or consecutive, and whether operative or not, the Commissioner shall ensure that the jurisdiction which filed the detainer is notified of the escape within 3 working days of the date of the escape. The Commissioner shall ensure that a staff member of the institution sends a copy of the inmate escape work sheet which references the detainer to the concerned jurisdiction by transmittal letter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the institutional officer in charge at the time of escape places a copy of the inmate escape work sheet in the inmate's base file and commitment file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the warden notifies Division headquarters in accordance with established procedure for reporting a serious incident.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>In accordance with the provision of Criminal Procedure Article, §11-1002, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commissioner shall ensure that a warden notifies a crime victim when the crime victim has filed a written request to be informed when a particular inmate escapes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a telephone notification of an escape is followed by written confirmation accompanied by an escape retake warrant to agencies specified in §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Escape Retake Warrant Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When it has been confirmed that an inmate has escaped, the Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An escape retake warrant is issued;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The original warrant is mailed, using first class mail, to Maryland State Police Headquarters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the following documents routinely accompany the original escape warrant to the Maryland State Police Headquarters, Warrant Unit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Original copy of waiver of extradition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Copy of inmate escape work sheet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Other documents as requested by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the mailing of the escape retake warrant is delayed for more than 24 hours awaiting its preparation, the institutional officer in charge shall ensure that the documents in §B are mailed to the Maryland State Police Headquarters, Warrant Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following persons are authorized to issue an escape retake warrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Assistant warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Security chief;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Facility administrator of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Institutional shift commander.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Control Log. The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each warden establishes procedures to maintain a control log which shall include each escape retake warrant issued by a facility, and indicate the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Escape retake warrant number,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date and time of issuance,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Name and title of the authorized issuer,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Name and Division commitment number of escapee,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Date of escape, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Date mailed to the Maryland State Police Headquarters;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All warrant numbers are accounted for within the log;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The log is accessible to appropriate staff in the event of a police inquiry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden specifies the name and telephone number of the facility designated as the point of return on each escape retake warrant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that copies of the escape retake warrant are distributed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate base file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate commitment file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Office of the State's Attorney for the jurisdiction where the escape took place.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Return of an Escapee to the Division."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An apprehended escapee who has escaped from one of the following institutions shall be returned to that institution:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maryland Penitentiary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maryland Correctional Training Center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Maryland Correctional Institution--Hagerstown;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Roxbury Correctional Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Maryland House of Correction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Maryland Correctional Institution--Jessup;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Maryland Correctional Institution for Women;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Eastern Correctional Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Maryland Reception, Diagnostic, and Classification Center; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Maryland Correctional Adjustment Center.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A male escapee from the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System shall be returned to the Maryland House of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An escapee from the Prerelease Unit for Women shall be returned to the Maryland Correctional Institution for Women.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Assistant commissioner for field services shall coordinate the return of an escapee from another state with the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden takes appropriate institutional adjustment action against an inmate upon an inmate's return from escape.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Notification of Return from Escape."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When an escapee is returned to the custody of the Division, the Commissioner shall ensure that the warden of the institution receiving the returned escapee prepares a letter notifying the Maryland State Police of the return from escape, with copies provided to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Local law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>FBI;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Commissioner; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Baltimore City fugitive squad.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The notification of return from escape may be completed on a monthly basis. The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden ensures that the notification of return from escape includes the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Name of returned escapee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Division commitment number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date of escaped inmate's return to the custody of the Division; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Escape retake warrant number.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden sends copies of the notification of return from escape to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Local law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>FBI;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Baltimore City fugitive squad; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The crime victim who shall be notified of an inmate's escape under Regulation .03 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the warden of the institution of return prepares appropriate information for the State's Attorney's Office regarding an inmate's return from escape, and forwards it by cover letter to the State's Attorney. The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes procedures to ensure that a copy of the letter sent to the State's Attorney is also sent to the Division assistant commissioner for field services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden places a copy of an escape retake warrant in an inmate's commitment file.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="16" heading="Visits to Inmates"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Certified religious visitor” means a person who is certified by the applicable religious authority to minister to members of that body, and who has been processed according to relevant institutional directives to visit individually with a specific inmate on a regular, occasional, or one-time-only basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Contact visit” means a visit which permits limited physical contact between the inmate and the visitor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Contraband” means an item as defined under Correctional Services Article, §8-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Frisk search” means running the hands across clothing worn to detect any hidden objects.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Special visit” means a visit authorized as an exception to normal visiting procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Visitor” means a person entering the institution who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is on an inmate's visiting list; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has obtained approval as a special visitor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Warden” means warden or designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall establish:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number of visits which an inmate may receive;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of a visit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The number of visitors authorized during one visit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall consider the following standards when establishing the procedures in §A of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Institutional schedule;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Visiting space;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Security considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Staff requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate's institutional status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes procedures governing visits to inmates in outside hospitals, institutional infirmaries, and mental health units which include provisions to ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each visit conforms with custody requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Appropriate health or mental health personnel approval is obtained to confirm that the inmate is medically or mentally able to conduct the visit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden designates a visiting area which meets reasonable conditions for a visit to take place.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate may refuse to see a visitor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Types of Visits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Contact Visits. The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden allows a contact visit unless a contact visit is prohibited by Division regulations. The specific kind and amount of contact shall be based on the security level of the institution and the classification of an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Noncontact Visits. The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden designates a visiting area for a noncontact visit and establishes procedures for its use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Religious Visits. The name of a certified religious visitor shall be recorded on the inmate visitor record, but not counted in the maximum 15 visitors. Religious visits shall be managed according to institutional procedure.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Legal Visits.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes procedures for an inmate visit with an attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An attorney need not be on the inmate visitor record, but shall have proper identification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A legal assistant who visits an inmate shall present a letter of introduction signed by an attorney on the firm's stationery.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commissioner may not set a time limit for an attorney visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An attorney shall visit during regular visiting hours unless a special arrangement is made with the warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Special Visits. A warden shall establish procedures for special visits.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Records of Inmate Visits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A warden of a receiving institution shall ensure that during the reception process, an inmate visitor record form is established for each inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each inmate may submit a list of up to 15 names, addresses, and relationships of intended visitors to be included on the list.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate shall place the name of an intended visitor who is 18 years old or older on the inmate's visitor record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate is not required to list children under 18 years old on the visitor record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Only those persons on the inmate visitor record will be approved to visit an inmate. However, the Commissioner shall establish procedures to provide for the following types of visits:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Religious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Legal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Special.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>When an inmate is transferred, the sending institution shall forward the inmate visitor record to the receiving institution at the time of the transfer, to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure a continuous record of an inmate's visits; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Eliminate the need for a new record to be established.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Visitor Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A visitor shall present one of the following types of identification:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Driver's license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Age of majority card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Birth certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Social security card; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other State, federal, or private industry-issued photograph identification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a person younger than 18 years old who intends to visit an inmate is accompanied by an adult. The officer in charge of the visiting area may request identification for verification of age.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Visitor Searches."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall require a visitor to pass through a metal detector or be searched by a scanning device upon entering all Division facilities, except prerelease units.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes procedures to frisk search visitors randomly on a daily basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a frisk search is conducted, the individual conducting a search shall be the same sex as the person being searched.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A visitor shall complete and sign a consent to search form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden establish procedures to maintain a copy of the consent to search form in the base file of an inmate being visited. The Commissioner shall ensure that the original copy of this form is kept on file by the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a visitor who refuses to submit to a search is denied visiting privileges for that day.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If a visitor possesses contraband in violation of the criminal statute, the contraband shall be confiscated and a law enforcement agency notified.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Visitor Rules and Visit Guidelines."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>During a visit, a visitor shall follow visiting room rules and shall maintain control of children who may be participants in the visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A visit may be disapproved by the institutional shift commander if the visitor:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is under the influence of a drug or alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Refuses to submit to search procedure;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fails to provide sufficient identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Provides falsified identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is younger than 18 years old and is not accompanied by an adult;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Violates a facility visiting rule posted in the visiting room; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Possesses contraband.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a visitor is denied a visit for a reason included in §B of this regulation, and the visitor refuses to leave the facility, the police of the jurisdiction in which the facility is located shall be notified, and the visitor shall be treated as a trespasser in accordance with Criminal Law Article, §6-409, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A visit may be terminated or shortened if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The visitor or inmate fails to prevent children from disturbing another person in the visiting area;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The visitor or the inmate is verbally or physically disruptive and jeopardizes visiting room operations or the security of the institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The visitor and inmate engage in excessive physical contact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate violates a rule or regulation of the institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>There is insufficient space for a visit in the visiting room;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An institutional crisis exists;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A visitor violates a facility visiting rule posted in the visiting room; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Another reason exists which is determined by the warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden requires the approval of the shift commander to terminate a visit. The shift commander shall provide the warden with a report stating the specific reasons for terminating a visit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Suspension of a Visitor's Visiting Privilege."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A warden may suspend a person from visiting an inmate for a designated or indefinite period of time when there is clear and convincing evidence that a visit would jeopardize the safety or security of the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden bases suspension of visiting privileges on:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A review of the information provided in the supervisor's report of the incident; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Information provided by staff, the inmate, and the visitor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden sends a written notice of a decision to suspend visiting privileges for a specified or indefinite period of time to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate base file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Visitor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Assistant commissioner for field services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner may authorize each warden to omit justification for the suspension or termination of a visit from the written notice when the security of an institution or the safety of an individual would be affected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A notice of suspension or termination of visiting privilege shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A statement of the reasons for the suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of the suspension or termination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A statement advising the visitor that the visitor may appear before the warden for a hearing regarding the suspension or termination of visiting privileges.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Writes a report of a hearing held regarding suspension or termination of a visitor's visiting privileges; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sends a copy of the report to the assistant commissioner for field services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden attaches the letter of notification to the inmate visiting card when a visitor's visiting privilege is suspended.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The visitor may request a warden to reinstate a suspended or terminated visiting privilege upon the inmate's transfer to another maintaining institution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 repealed as an emergency provision effective August 26, 2013 (40:19 Md. R. 1542); emergency status extended to June 30, 2014 (41:2 Md. R. 89); emergency status expired June 30, 2014</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="17" heading="Inmate Property and Clothing"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Abandoned property” means personal belongings which:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Are unclaimed after the required 30-day notice has elapsed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have not been sent out of the institution within 30 days notice to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Remain in control of the institution and are unclaimed for a 30-day period subsequent to an inmate's release or escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An inmate chooses to donate to the institution for use by inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Contraband” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An item, material, substance, or other thing that is not authorized by a warden or facility administrator of the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An item, material, substance, or other thing which is brought into the facility in a manner not sanctioned by Division or institutional policy or procedure; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A property item which is in excess of the allowable quantity provided in a Division property directive or applicable institutional directive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Property officer” means a person responsible for receiving and controlling inmate belongings in accordance with established property procedure.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Handling and Storage of Inmate Property."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate Property Rights. The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A warden protects the property rights of an inmate when a Division rule or directive requires that an inmate release the inmate's personal property to Division custody for safekeeping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employee exercises reasonable care of property which is removed from an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A warden disciplines an employee when employee negligence causes loss or damage to inmate property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden establishes a secure area as a property room. This area shall be used to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure inmate property which is temporarily out of the custody of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Store inmate valuables under Division directives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden establishes procedures to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Control and account for inmate property which is in the care of the institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that excess or unallowable property is disposed of under Division directive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Inventory of Inmate Property.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that inmate property which is taken into institutional custody is inventoried to establish an accurate record of the property received.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When inmate property cannot be inventoried, the Commissioner shall ensure that each warden establishes procedures to ensure that an employee packages, seals, and places the property in a secure area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that when sealed property is received by the institution and cannot be inventoried at the time of receipt, the property remains sealed and is placed in a secure area, with documentation indicating the name of the officer receiving and securing the property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that when an inmate receives a housing change, the inmate is permitted only those items which are authorized by a warden and established by institutional directive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Allowable Property.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may possess only items authorized by Division directive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that unauthorized property is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sent to an address provided by an inmate, at an inmate's expense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Released to a visitor who has been authorized by the inmate to receive an inmate's property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Disposed of under Division directive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Disposition of Inmate Personal Property."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall establish procedures to ensure that a warden:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Returns personal property to an inmate upon release; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Obtains a receipt from an inmate for the return of property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Death of Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that if an inmate dies, an inmate's property, including institutional funds, is given to a person who possesses a letter of administration issued by a court.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that the next of kin is notified of personal property, including funds by registered mail, return receipt requested. A court-appointed personal representative shall claim the property within 30 days of notice to the next of kin.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>When a court-appointed personal representative claims property, that person shall provide a letter of administration. The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden retains a copy of the letter of administration for the institutional file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a receipt is obtained for property released to a personal representative and that the receipt is retained in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Holding of Personal Property. The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate personal property is held for 30 days when the property:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is in possession of the Division as a result of an escape, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been unclaimed by an inmate who has the right to its possession; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>During the 30-day period:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A notice is posted in a conspicuous location within the institution in which the property was initially secured;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The warden delivers the unclaimed property in §C(1)(b) of this regulation being held to the inmate who establishes a right to its possession within the time period specified in this section; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A warden obtains from an inmate a signed receipt when property is turned over to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Funds remaining in an inmate's institutional account shall remain in that account for 2 years after an escape, and then be turned over to the State Treasurer's Office. An account book for an inmate's personal bank account is to be retained by the inmate finance office for 5 years and then turned over to the State Treasurer's Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Abandoned Property. The Commissioner shall ensure that a warden:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Converts abandoned property to institutional use; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Disposes of the abandoned property in accordance with §F of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Disposal of Abandoned Property.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the abandoned property is to be converted to institutional use, the Commissioner shall ensure that a warden submits a declaration of abandoned inmate property for conversion or disposal form to the assistant commissioner for security operations, advising the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Condition of the property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Estimated value of the property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Planned use for the property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Abandoned inmate property may only be converted for institutional use for the inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commissioner may authorize a warden to dispose of abandoned inmate property which cannot be converted to institutional use, by a declaration of abandoned inmate property for conversion or disposal form. After offering the property for use by an institution, the following shall take place:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Upon approval of the Commissioner, the warden may dispose of the property by donation to an appropriate charitable organization,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The property officer shall obtain a dated, signed, descriptive receipt for the donated items and retain the receipt for institutional record, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Future claims of an inmate to proceeds or rights to possession of the abandoned property shall be barred; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The property may be discarded or destroyed in the presence of a staff witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>This chapter does not affect or limit the authority of a warden to seize and dispose of contraband in accordance with State law and Division directives.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c), 3-609, and 10-801, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.03 amended effective February 26, 1996 (23:4 Md. R. 273)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective July 13, 1997 (24:14 Md. R. 1013)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="18" heading="Inmate Transfers"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Adjudicated Federal Detainer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” means a detainer based on an offense for which the defendant has been:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Tried;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Sentenced; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Committed to the custody of the U.S. Attorney General.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” does not mean a detainer:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Based on an untried indictment, information, or complaint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Of federal parole or federal probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Concurrent Federal Sentence.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Concurrent federal sentence” means a sentence which runs simultaneously with a Maryland sentence because it:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Has a beginning date expressly stated on its judgment and commitment record; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is expressly described on a federal commitment record, to run concurrent with a Maryland sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Concurrent federal sentence” also means a federal sentence to which a Maryland sentence is concurrent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Each additional federal sentence shall be considered consecutive to the Maryland sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Eligible person” means an inmate who meets the criteria for transfer to Patuxent Institution in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.03.05.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Field compact administrator” means the case management manager, supervisor, or specialist within each correctional institution who coordinates all actions involving the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Headquarters compact administrator” means the headquarters staff person appointed by the Commissioner as the administrator for implementation of the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Interstate Corrections Compact” means a legal agreement enabling a signatory state to the Interstate Corrections Compact, which has a contractual agreement with Maryland, to consider the transfer of an inmate sentenced to a correctional institution of the other signatory state for confinement and program participation, if appropriate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Signatory state” means a state which has enacted legislation to implement the Interstate Corrections Compact and has a contractual agreement with Maryland for transferring inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Total Sentence.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Total sentence” means an inmate's last expiring operative sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an inmate is serving a single sentence, it is that sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If an inmate is serving a combination of concurrent sentences, it is the sentence that will expire last.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the inmate is serving a combination of consecutive sentences, it is the sentence or sum of sentences that will expire last.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Unserved balance of the total federal sentence” means the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Interval from the date of sentence calculation to the presumptive parole release date of the total federal sentence, if one exists;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Interval from the date of sentence calculation to the maximum expiration date of the total federal sentence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Length of the total federal sentence considering the unique circumstances of the case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Unserved balance of the total Maryland sentence” means the interval from the date of consideration for eligibility for parole to an adjudicated federal detainer, to the current mandatory release date on the total Maryland sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Referrals for Evaluation at Patuxent Institution."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following persons may recommend to the Commissioner that an inmate who meets the criteria specified in COMAR 12.12.02.01 or .02 be referred to Patuxent Institution for evaluation as to whether the inmate is an eligible person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The sentencing judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The State's attorney of the jurisdiction in which the inmate was last convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A member of the Commissioner's staff, including the chief psychologist or case management team of a Division institution; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An inmate, by self-referral.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall maintain a list of Division inmates eligible to be referred to Patuxent Institution for evaluation. The Commissioner's list shall be submitted monthly to the Director of Patuxent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the Patuxent evaluation is to be conducted at a Division institution, the records needed for the evaluation shall be assembled by the Division in accordance with COMAR 12.12.03.03 as specified below:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The following documents from the base file include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Copy of commitment order,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Admission summary,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Copy of sentencing guidelines,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigation, parole, probation, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate, or documentation that none exists,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Police reports and other relevant information concerning the crime for which the inmate was most recently convicted and the sentence imposed upon that conviction,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>State's version of the crime,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Prior criminal and juvenile history and all relevant records concerning it,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Disciplinary record, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Correspondence from judges and State's attorneys relating to their referral and recommendation of inmates to Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>School records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's prior medical history, including any relevant medical and hospital records and reports, and the inmate's medical file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's prior mental history, including the inmate's psychological file, previous psychological or psychiatric evaluations, record of psychiatric medications, progress notes, and records of any previous psychiatric and drug and alcohol treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other relevant information, records, and reports concerning the inmate's social, physical, or mental condition and history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Each warden shall ensure that a Patuxent transfer evaluation team is provided the work space and resources necessary to carry out the examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the evaluation is to be conducted at Patuxent Institution, the Division shall ensure that the records specified in §C of this regulation accompany the inmate to Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>When an inmate is no longer an eligible person, the Director of Patuxent Institution shall notify the Commissioner. The Commissioner shall ensure that Division staff return the inmate to the Division in accordance with Correctional Services Article, Title 4, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.04.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>When an inmate has returned to a Division institution from Patuxent Institution, the inmate's case management specialist shall advise the Parole Commission of the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate's name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate's Division identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date of inmate's return to the Division from Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Change in the inmate's sentence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Date and decision of last parole hearing, if one was conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Interstate Corrections Compact Transfer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an inmate desires to transfer to a signatory state under the Interstate Corrections Compact, the inmate shall complete an Application for Interstate Corrections Compact Transfer and submit the completed form to the inmate's case management specialist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the application is disapproved by the warden, the process shall terminate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the application is approved, the field compact administrator shall forward a referral packet to the headquarters compact administrator. The contents of the referral packet shall be determined by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Review by Commissioner.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall review the referral packet and forward a written recommendation and rationale to the Commissioner for a final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Commissioner's decision is to disapprove the application, the process shall terminate. A disapproved application may be retained on file at the office of the headquarters compact administrator for future consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Commissioner's decision is to approve the application, the Application for Interstate Corrections Compact Transfer shall be returned to the headquarters compact administrator, and the Commissioner shall request a review and decision from the other state on the referral packet for the referenced inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The case management specialist shall inform the inmate of the Commissioner's decision and may explain the rationale for that decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall advise the requesting case management staff of the decision of the receiving signatory state.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall coordinate the arrangements for the transportation of an inmate between the signatory states.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If each state is transferring an inmate, the headquarters compact administrator and the compact administrator of the other state shall jointly determine whose responsibility it is to transport the inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>When a transfer is effected, all applicable records and allowable property shall be transported with the inmate to the receiving signatory state.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Receipt of Inmate from Other Signatory State.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When Maryland accepts an inmate from another signatory state, a male inmate shall be delivered to the Maryland Reception, Diagnostic and Classification Center, and a female inmate shall be delivered to the Maryland Correctional Institution for Women.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>After the inmate is received in Maryland, the warden of the Maryland Reception, Diagnostic and Classification Center, or the warden of the Maryland Correctional Institution for Women, shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All necessary records are processed to identify the inmate as an Interstate Corrections Compact inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Maryland Parole Commission is notified by the case management manager or supervisor that the inmate has been received in Maryland as an Interstate Corrections Compact transferee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Following receipt of an inmate from the sending state, a case management specialist at the receiving institution shall complete an admission summary for each inmate under the Interstate Corrections Compact and forward it to the Interstate Corrections Compact office of the sending state. Thereafter, the receiving state shall provide the sending state a semiannual report summary of the inmate's progress and adjustment since the last report, including a recommendation for retention or return.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall monitor and maintain Interstate Corrections Compact files as well as review and process all correspondence between signatory states for inmates who are transferred from Maryland to a signatory state under the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Inmate Base File.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The field compact administrator shall monitor and maintain the inmate base file for an inmate who is transferred from a signatory state to Maryland under the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All correspondence between signatory states regarding an Interstate Corrections Compact transferee housed in Maryland shall be reviewed and processed through the applicable case management unit for the field compact administrator unless other direction is given by the headquarters compact administrator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall maintain a working file for an inmate who is transferred from a signatory state to Maryland under the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>The case management specialist shall ensure that the field and headquarters compact administrators are kept apprised of significant events pertaining to an inmate, including but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Movement within the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Serious incidents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Parole hearings and results;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Judicial matters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pending release through parole or expiration of sentence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A request by the inmate to return to the sending state.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>The headquarters compact administrator shall be responsible for updating the Division directive which includes a list of states which are signatory to the Interstate Corrections Compact.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Parole to Adjudicated Federal Detainer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The commitment office supervisor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identify and maintain a list of inmates with adjudicated federal detainers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Delete from the list the name of an inmate who may not be paroled by the Maryland Parole Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Delete from the list the name of an inmate who has either an adjudicated detainer from a state other than Maryland for a sentence imposed before the federal sentence was imposed, or a Maryland detainer, and reevaluate the inmate if the disqualifying detainer is lifted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Contact the U.S. Parole Commission office to establish whether a presumptive parole release date has been set for the inmate's federal sentence and, if so, note it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Delete from the list the name of an inmate whose unserved balance of the total Maryland sentence is greater than the unserved balance of the total federal sentence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensure that an inmate whose name is deleted from the list is reevaluated so that the inmate is identified when the unserved balance of the total federal sentence becomes greater than the unserved balance of the total Maryland sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>For each inmate eligible to be paroled to an adjudicated federal detainer, the commitment office supervisor shall complete the referral for parole to adjudicated federal detainer form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The warden shall complete Section B on the reverse of the form in §B of this regulation and send it to the Director of Classification at Division headquarters, who shall review the form and submit it to the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall complete the reverse of the form in §B of this regulation and send it to the Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c) and Title 8, Subtitle 6, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective March 27, 1995 (22:6 Md. R. 474)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A, B, C, G amended effective March 27, 1995 (22:6 Md. R. 474)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective March 27, 1995 (22:6 Md. R. 474)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="19" heading="Inmate Leave"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish procedures through which an eligible inmate may be granted the privilege of leaving the confinement of a Division institution for a specified period of time.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Anticipated release date” means a mandatory supervision release date, a mutual agreement programming release date, release by expiration of sentence, or a scheduled parole release date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Case management plan” means a written individualized program plan for an inmate that is developed in accordance with Division regulations. This plan is developed to address each inmate's risks and needs. The plan stipulates:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Programming;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Institutional transfer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Changes in custody for the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Immediate Family. For the purpose of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Compassionate leave, “immediate family” means an inmate's spouse, natural grandparents, parents, siblings, children, grandchildren, and persons who have these relationships through adoption;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Family leave, “immediate family” means an inmate's mother, father, legal guardian, sister, brother, wife, husband, and children who have attained majority.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Mutual agreement programming” means a process in which the division, the Maryland Parole Commission, and an inmate enter into a written program agreement. This agreement stipulates programming, institutional transfer, and a guaranteed parole release date if the inmate successfully completes all stipulations of the agreement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Security level” means the level of supervision provided to an inmate in accordance with COMAR 12.12.08.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Family Leave."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Policy.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Merely meeting basic eligibility criteria does not guarantee or imply approval for family leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To be eligible for family leave consideration, an inmate shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be classified to the prerelease security level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be within 12 months of a parole rehearing or an anticipated release date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Have completed:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>30 consecutive calendar days of active work release employment,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>90 consecutive calendar days on an institutional assignment,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>90 consecutive calendar days in a combination of §A(2)(c)(i) and (ii), above, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>90 consecutive days at the prerelease security level if medically unassigned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Family leave may not be granted for more than 48 hours. Travel time may be added to this period.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hours of the leave shall be governed by the specific circumstances at an inmate's maintaining institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The classification team may establish special conditions for family leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate shall demonstrate that the inmate's family is capable of assuming necessary expenses during leave status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An inmate shall use private or public transportation to and from the institution to the leave address.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A person providing transportation shall present adequate identification before departing with the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Each warden and prerelease facility administrator shall ensure that spot check telephone verifications are conducted during the course of each family leave period.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>An inmate may not be approved for family leave outside the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Notwithstanding the provisions of this regulation, the Commissioner and those individuals the Commissioner authorizes shall retain the absolute discretion to modify, suspend, or terminate this program in whole or in part for a reason or no reason. Similarly, the Commissioner or the Commissioner's representatives retain the discretion to terminate the participation of an inmate in this program at any time for a reason or no reason.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate shall be informed of family leave eligibility requirements by a classification counselor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate shall request family leave status through the inmate classification counselor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate shall submit to the classification counselor the name, relationship, address, and telephone number of the family leave sponsor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The family leave sponsor shall provide institutional staff with a written agreement that lodging and transportation will be provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate shall submit the name, address, and telephone number of the person providing transportation unless permission to use public transportation has been approved by appropriate institutional staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Upon receipt of necessary forms and information, a classification counselor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete a family leave status application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make a recommendation for or against approval, and provide a supporting rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sign the application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Forward the application to the family leave classification team.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A classification team shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the application in the presence of the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make a recommendation for or against approval and provide a supporting rationale; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the application to the warden or facility administrator of the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The warden or facility administrator shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Act only on a family leave status application recommended for approval by the classification team;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Concur or not concur with the recommendation of the classification team; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If both the warden or facility administrator and the classification team recommend approval, forward the application to the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The Commissioner shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the family leave status application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Approve or disapprove the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>After final action, the original application shall be filed in the inmate base file and a copy shall be given to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Family leave frequency shall be determined based on the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An inmate on active work release and within 4 months of an anticipated release is eligible for a maximum of one family leave every 2 weeks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An inmate on active work release, or assigned to institutional jobs or school on a full-time basis, is eligible for a maximum of one family leave a month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A prerelease security level inmate assigned to an institutional job or school on less than a full-time basis is eligible for a maximum of one family leave every 3 months; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A prerelease security inmate who does not have work release status, an anticipated released date, an institutional job, or a school assignment is eligible for a maximum of one family leave every 4 months.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>A classification counselor shall complete a family leave authorization at least 1 week in advance of the leave and, if the inmate is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System, forward it to the facility administrator who shall certify the information on the authorization form and approve by signing the leave authorization; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Housed at another institution, forward the authorization form to the assistant warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The facility administrator or assistant warden, acting as the Commissioner's designee, shall approve or disapprove a particular leave and return the authorization to the assigned classification counselor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The counselor shall distribute the authorization form and, if the warden has approved the leave, take the actions necessary to implement and monitor the leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>A copy of the leave authorization shall be filed by the Commissioner in his office as a public record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Special Leave."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate may be authorized a special leave under the conditions in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Special Leave—8 Hours Per Day.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate classified to minimum security may be authorized special leave for a period not to exceed 8 hours per day for any of the following purposes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To attend a Maryland trade licensing examination, or to take a civil service examination, provided that the inmate is within 1 year of a release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To attend an employment interview in Maryland, provided that a prospective employer initiates a written request to the inmate's case management specialist and the inmate is within 3 months of a release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>To attend an educational or vocational training interview or registration within Maryland provided that the inmate is within 3 months of a release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>To attend a short-term educational or vocational program in Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>To participate as a volunteer for a government agency in Maryland in an activity serving the general public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>To participate in a community athletic league sponsored competition in Maryland as a member of an institutional team;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>To participate in civic activities in Maryland beneficial to the inmate or the community, or both, including activities such as Jaycees and civic or community speaking engagements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special leave may not be used to allow the inmate to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Attend college; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be tested for college.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Special Leave—12 Hours Per Day.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate classified to prerelease security may be authorized special leave for a period not to exceed 12 hours per day for any of the following reasons:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To attend a Maryland trade licensing examination, or to take a civil service examination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To attend an employment interview in Maryland, provided that a prospective employer initiates a request to the inmate's case management specialist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>To attend an educational or vocational training interview or registration within Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>To attend a short-term educational or vocational program in Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>To participate as a volunteer for a government agency in Maryland in an activity serving the general public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>To participate in a community athletic league sponsored competition in Maryland as a member of an institutional team;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>To participate in civic activities in Maryland beneficial to the inmate or the community, or both, including activities such as Jaycees and civic or community speaking engagements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>To attend mental health or substance abuse treatment, or both, or to attend an interview for mental health or substance abuse treatment, or both, in Maryland when this treatment is not available in the Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special leave may not be used to allow the inmate to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Attend college; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be tested for college.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Special Leave Approval Process.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A warden shall ensure that each special leave is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Recommended for approval by a Division case management team;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reviewed and approved by the warden or the warden's designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Reviewed and approved by the Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notwithstanding a provision of this regulation, the Commissioner and those the Commissioner authorizes shall retain the absolute discretion to modify, suspend, or terminate this program in whole or in part for a reason or no reason. Similarly, the Commissioner or designee shall retain the discretion to terminate the participation of an inmate in this program at any time for a reason or no reason.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Compassionate Leave."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Policy. Notwithstanding a provision of this regulation, the Commissioner and those the Commissioner authorizes shall retain the absolute discretion to modify, suspend, or terminate this program in whole or in part for a reason or no reason. Similarly, the Commissioner or designees retain the discretion to terminate the participation of an inmate in this program at any time for a reason or no reason.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Compassionate leave may be authorized for the purpose of allowing an inmate to visit a member of the inmate's immediate family who is seriously ill, or to attend the funeral of a member of the inmate's immediate family. An inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May visit a funeral home to view the bier;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classified to the prerelease security level may attend the funeral service.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each warden shall ensure that a compassionate leave is requested on the inmate leave request and authorization form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Each warden shall ensure that the inmate leave request and authorization form is verified by appropriate institutional staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A compassionate leave shall be approved by the warden or facility administrator with the concurrence of the Commissioner or duty officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The warden shall establish security requirements for compassionate leave.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="20" heading="Inmate Mail" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 repealed effective February 19, 2024 (51:3 Md. R.154)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="21" heading="Inmate Marriage"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes the policy for the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) concerning inmate marriage.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Requesting to marry an inmate at a correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Processing and approving a request to marry an inmate at a correctional facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Arranging for and conducting the marriage ceremony.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This chapter is not intended to infringe upon an individual’s statutory right to marry, but does govern how the legal right to marry may be exercised when the marriage involves an inmate confined in a Department correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Business day” means a day of the week other than Saturday or Sunday or any other day that State offices are closed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Correctional facility” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Employee.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Employee” means an individual assigned to or employed by the Department in a full-time, part-time, temporary, or contractual position regardless of job title or classification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Employee” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An intern; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A volunteer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual who is actively or constructively detained or confined in a Department correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inmate” includes an individual referred to as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A detainee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An offender;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A prisoner; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A resident.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Marry” means the legal union of two individuals in matrimony.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Officiant” means an individual authorized by State law to legally marry individuals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate and the inmate’s intended spouse shall comply with minimum requirements established by State and local statute and regulation concerning eligibility to marry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may not marry:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Another inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate shall be mentally competent according to State law.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Inmate Records."> <text>An individual planning to marry an inmate may request and be granted access to the inmate’s correctional history according to procedures established elsewhere in COMAR for accessing inmate case records after the commitment to marry is agreed to by both the inmate and intended spouse.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Requesting to Marry an Inmate at a Correctional Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The inmate and the inmate’s intended spouse are required to independently submit a written request to marry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written request to marry under §A of this regulation shall be submitted to the inmate’s managing official:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In a format established by the managing official that, at a minimum, provides the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>From the inmate, the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Inmate’s name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Inmate’s identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Inmate’s facility and housing assignment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Intended spouse’s full name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Intended spouse’s date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>The date requested for the ceremony; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>The type of ceremony, for example, civil or religious; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>From the intended spouse, the intended spouse’s:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Full name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Current address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Current telephone number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Social security number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Statement indicating that the intended spouse has reviewed or declines to view the inmate’s correctional history; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Correctional or law enforcement volunteer or employment history, if applicable; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At least 60 business days before the date requested for the ceremony.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If requested, a managing official may approve up to three sessions of premarital counseling involving the inmate, intended spouse, and approved officiant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Only the managing official of the correctional facility where an inmate is requesting to marry may authorize an inmate to marry at the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A managing official may not require a chaplain or other religious leader under the authority of the managing official to participate in the inmate marriage process established under this chapter if the chaplain or other religious leader has a religious constraint.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Processing a Request to Marry an Inmate at a Correctional Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Within 5 business days of receiving written requests to marry an inmate at a correctional facility from both the inmate and the intended spouse, the managing official shall designate a member of the facility’s staff to process the request to marry an inmate at the facility according to this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The individual designated (designee) under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the requests from the inmate and intended spouse; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At a minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establish that the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Commitment to marry is agreed to by both the inmate and intended spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Marriage does not constitute a threat to security or operation of the facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Marriage complies with requirements established under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Consider the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The inmate’s criminal record to include information contained in related police reports and presentence investigations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The inmate’s correctional adjustment history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Compliance with the inmate’s case plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The existence of detainers and pending charges for the inmate and intended spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>The inmates physical and mental health;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>If the inmate is a Patuxent inmate, a statement from the Patuxent inmate’s treatment team as to the inmate’s mental competency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Whether the intended spouse had any involvement in correctional or law enforcement related services (volunteer or employment) that may have placed the intended spouse in contact with the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The designee processing a request under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the information provided by the inmate and intended spouse, or additional information requested of the parties; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine if the requested marriage:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets eligibility requirements established under Regulation .03 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Meets minimum requirements established under §B(2)(a) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Would not pose a risk to security or the orderly operation of the facility based on the information considered under §B(2)(b) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the designee determines that the inmate marriage does not meet minimum requirements under §C(2) of this regulation the designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prepare a written recommendation to deny the request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in the recommendation the basis for the recommendation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Forward the recommendation to the managing official no later than 10 business days after being designated to process the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A managing official receiving a recommendation under §D of this regulation may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Accept the recommendation, in which case the managing official shall notify the designee to advise the inmate and intended spouse, in writing, that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The marriage ceremony will not be permitted at the correctional facility and the reasons; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Unless the inmate demonstrates significant change in the circumstances on which the denial is based as provided under §E(1)(a) of this regulation the managing official’s decision is final with no opportunity for appeal; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not accept the recommendation and advise the designee to continue to process the request:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>As submitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>With modification to the original submission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If the designee finds the request meets requirements under §C of this regulation or the managing official directs that the designee continue to process the request, with or without modification, under §E(2) of this regulation, the designee shall process the request as specified under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Authorization — Request to Marry an Inmate at a Correctional Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official’s authorization to marry an inmate at the correctional facility is contingent upon receipt and approval of information required under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A designee processing a request to marry an inmate that has met the conditions established under Regulation .06 of this chapter shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 5 business days of determining that the request meets conditions established under Regulation .06 of this chapter the designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the inmate with a copy of an Inmate Marriage Information sheet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instruct the inmate on completing the Inmate Marriage Information sheet advising that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The authorization of the request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility is predicated on receipt and approval of the information requested on the sheet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The inmate shall complete or have the intended spouse complete the sheet and submit the completed sheet to the coordinator a minimum of 10 business days before the requested date of the ceremony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The inmate and the intended spouse shall retain a copy of the completed sheet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The inmate or intended spouse shall provide the officiant named on the sheet a copy of the sheet; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Advise the inmate that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate, or the intended spouse, is responsible for expenses related to the marriage, for example, the marriage license fee and expenses for the ceremony and officiant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The intended spouse is responsible for obtaining the marriage license in the county where the inmate’s correctional facility is located;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The intended spouse is responsible for providing a legally accepted copy of the marriage license to the coordinator (submitted with the completed Inmate Marriage Information sheet);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A Department officiant may not participate in the arrangements for the inmate marriage and the intended spouse is responsible for obtaining the services of an officiant and notifying the coordinator in writing (included in the completed Inmate Marriage Information sheet);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The intended spouse is required to obtain a list of items the officiant intends to use at the ceremony (included with the Inmate Marriage Information sheet);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A maximum of four guests (identification information is required to be included in the Inmate Marriage Information sheet) may be permitted to attend the marriage ceremony based on:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The intended spouse and officiant are not counted as guests; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Any individual under 18 years old, including an infant, shall be counted as a guest;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The intended spouse, officiant, and guests are required to comply with all policy and procedure and COMAR regarding visitors to the facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The maximum time permitted for conducting the marriage ceremony and post-ceremony visitation is 2 hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of the information required under §B of this regulation by the designee, the designee shall, as soon as possible after receipt, present the information to the inmate’s managing official for review and authorization of the request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A managing official shall review the information received in connection with the request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility and notify the designee that the information is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Acceptable and that authorization to marry the inmate at the correctional facility is granted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not acceptable and the request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility is denied.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility is denied under §D(2) of this regulation, the designee shall notify the inmate and intended spouse, in writing:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Of the denial;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Of the reason for the denial; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Unless the inmate demonstrates significant change in the circumstances on which the denial is based as provided under §E(2) of this regulation, the denial is final with no opportunity for appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If the managing official authorizes a request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility, as part of the authorization, the managing official may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Limit the number of guests to less than four;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Deny attendance of a specific requested guest;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reduce the time permitted for conducting the marriage ceremony and post-ceremony visitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Deny the use of items to be used by the officiant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Approve the original date and time requested for the ceremony; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Establish an alternate date and time for the ceremony.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Arrangements for Inmate Marriage Ceremony."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When notified under Regulation .07 of this chapter of the managing official’s authorization of a request to marry an inmate at the correctional facility, the designee shall finalize arrangements for conducting the ceremony.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the affected shift supervisor, or a designee, of the date and time of the ceremony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Arrange for entry to the facility of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The intended spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Approved guests; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Officiant, including approved ceremonial items;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If appropriate, register the inmate’s wedding ring with the facility property officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Arrange for approved post-ceremony visitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After the ceremony is completed, the inmate or the inmate’s spouse shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Immediately obtain a copy of the certificate of marriage signed by the officiant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 5 business days of the date of the ceremony provide the designee with a copy of the court-approved certificate of marriage.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon receipt of the court-approved certificate of marriage, the designee shall forward all documents related to the inmate’s marriage to Case Management for inclusion in the inmate’s base file.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Nondisciplinary Inmate Transfer — Subsequent to Approved Request to Marry an Inmate at the Correctional Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If authorization to marry an inmate at a correctional facility has been granted and the involved inmate is transferred to a different Department correctional facility for nondisciplinary reasons, the inmate, if the inmate intends to continue with the plan to marry, is required to notify the managing official of the receiving correctional facility, as soon as possible after the transfer is completed, of the intent to marry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A managing official notified under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Obtain from the inmate’s previous managing official documentation concerning the request and authorization to marry an inmate at the correctional facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Review the information obtained.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After review of the information concerning the request and authorization, the new managing official may, according to provisions established under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Overturn the previous managing official’s authorization and deny the request to marry an inmate at the new correctional facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Modify the previous managing official’s authorization.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Notifications and arrangements related to conducting the marriage ceremony at the receiving correctional facility shall be in accord with those established in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Disciplinary Inmate Transfer — Subsequent to Approved Request to Marry an Inmate at the Correctional Facility."> <text>If an inmate who has been granted permission to marry at a correctional facility under this directive is transferred to a different Department correctional facility for disciplinary reasons, the inmate, if the inmate intends to continue with the plan to marry, is required to initiate a new request to marry at the correctional facility in accord with provisions of this chapter.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Federal or Interstate Corrections Compact Transfer — Subsequent to Approved Request to Marry an Inmate at the Correctional Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an inmate who is housed in a Department correctional facility, but who is under federal or another state’s jurisdiction, requests to marry at the correctional facility, the inmate is required to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Comply with policy and procedure and statute and regulation concerning inmate marriage of the sending jurisdiction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the inmate is a federal detainee, obtain authorization from the United States Marshall and the prosecutor in the detainee’s case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an inmate under §A of this regulation submits a request to marry at the correctional facility to a Department managing official, the managing official, or a designee, shall include contact with and input from the inmate’s responsible jurisdiction as part of processing the request to marry at the correctional facility as established under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Housing a Married Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an individual, who is not in the custody of the Department and married to an inmate, is subsequently placed in the custody of the Department, the married couple may not be housed in the same dormitory or housing unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a married couple, who at the time of the marriage is not in the custody of the Department, is subsequently placed in the custody of the Department, the married couple may not be housed in the same dormitory or housing unit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 repealed and new Regulations .01—.12 adopted effective April 11, 2016 (43:7 Md. R. 451)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="22" heading="Inmate Deaths"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Family member” means a person who is immediately related to an inmate by blood or law including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Child who is at least 18 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Parent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sibling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Grandparent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Grandchild who is at least 18 years old.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Indigent inmate” means an inmate who, at the time of death, is under control of the Division and who does not have:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sufficient funds to pay for funeral and burial expenses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A person legally responsible for the inmate's support who is able to pay funeral and burial expenses; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Resources available including family funds, death benefits, estate, or an inmate account, which may be used to pay funeral and burial expenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Police” means the Baltimore City Police Department for a Baltimore facility and a local State Police installation for another facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Handling Death of Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that each warden takes the following actions when an inmate death occurs within an institution:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notifications by shift commander or designee shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Local police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Division Deputy Commissioner during normal business hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Division duty officer during nonbusiness hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Director of Health Services or designee at Division headquarters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The shift commander shall preserve the scene, and after receiving clearance to do so from the investigating agency, appropriate staff shall inventory and secure the deceased inmate's property within the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For the purpose of positive identification, the institutional identification officer shall take fingerprints of the deceased and prepare a notice of death for the Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The institution shall obtain two copies of the autopsy report when appropriate. The autopsy reports shall be distributed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One copy shall be placed in the inmate base file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One copy shall be forwarded to Division headquarters for inclusion in the serious incident report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The next of kin shall be notified by the institution chaplain or designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When an inmate is known to have died while in a hospital other than a Division of Correction hospital, the Commissioner shall ensure that the following action is taken after the medical doctor on the scene has pronounced the inmate dead. The responsible correctional officer on duty at the hospital at the time of the inmate's death shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the institutional shift commander, and the shift commander or designee shall notify the Director of Health Services, Division headquarters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Obtain a receipt for the body before leaving the hospital;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inventory the inmate's personal possessions at the hospital; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Return the property to the institutional property officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When an inmate is known to have died of natural causes in a Division of Correction hospital or medical unit, the Commissioner shall ensure that each warden takes the following actions after the medical doctor on the scene has pronounced the inmate dead:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the institution shift commander, and the shift commander or designee shall notify the Director of Health Services, Division headquarters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Obtain a receipt for the body before leaving the hospital;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inventory the inmate's personal possessions in the hospital; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Return the property to the institutional property officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After the required immediate actions have been taken and the initial notifications have been made, the Commissioner shall ensure that a warden:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secures three copies of the death certificate from the Division of Vital Records to be distributed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One copy shall be placed in the inmate's base file,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One copy shall be given or mailed to the next of kin, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One copy shall be included in the serious incident report;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensures that the provisions of Regulation .03 are followed in cases when the next of kin intends to claim the body, when both the next of kin and the inmate are indigent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Advises the next of kin to seek assistance of legal counsel to obtain authority to receive the personal property of the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In accordance with Division regulations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Releases the inmate's personal property and money to a person who produces a letter of administration issued by a court,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtains a receipt and files it with the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility for Funeral and Burial Expenses of Indigent Inmates."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The warden or designee shall refer a family member of the deceased indigent inmate to the Department of Human Services for the determination of the indigent inmate's eligibility for funeral and burial funds.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that a family member who assumes responsibility for burial is known to the Maryland Department of Human Services by current eligibility for one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cash benefit support;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Food stamps; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Medical assistance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure the verification of current eligibility is determined by confirmation from a local agency of the Maryland Department of Human Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A family member assuming responsibility for burial shall visit the local Department of Human Services agency to complete the appropriate form to initiate application for Division funeral and burial expenses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon eligibility confirmation and receipt of the vendor's billing statement, the funds shall be paid by the Division directly to the funeral director of the family's choice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The amount of the eligibility entitlement supplements available funds, including the inmate's account, as specified in Article 88A, Sec. 62A, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the body of the indigent inmate is not claimed within 48 hours, the warden or warden's designee shall coordinate disposition of the body with the State Anatomy Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="23" heading="Serious Illness or Injury of Inmate"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The institution shift commander or designee shall immediately notify the following officials when an inmate is seriously ill or injured:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commissioner or duty officer, as appropriate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Warden; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assistant warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon notification of serious illness or injury to an inmate, the warden or designee shall contact an inmate's next of kin and inform them of the inmate's condition.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="24" heading="Case Management"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Case management” means the process employed to identify and address inmate needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Case manager” means the case management specialist assigned to each inmate in the case management process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Discipline” means any of the following fields of correctional service:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Substance abuse treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Custody;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Education;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Medical;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Psychology; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Social work.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Escape.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Escape” means a documented incident of an inmate's unauthorized absence from custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Escape” does not include an inmate on work release or assigned to the central home detention unit, who is convicted solely of unauthorized absence or being out of bounds.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Incarceration” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.12.06.01B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Inmate case record” means documentation assembled, maintained, and used under Correctional Services Article, §3-601, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Inmate programming” means the process of placing an inmate in programs that address the inmate's risks and needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Mutual agreement programming (MAP)” means a process of negotiating agreements between an inmate, the Maryland Parole Commission, and the Division that provides the inmate with a guaranteed parole release date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Special housing identifier” means a case management assignment that requires single-celling.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Case Management."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>With the approval of the Commissioner, case management shall be used to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Classify the inmate to a security level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Change the inmate's security level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assign the inmate to housing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Prepare recommendations for parole of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Determine an inmate's eligibility for leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Determine the propriety for transfer between facilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Facilitate Interstate Corrections Compact transfer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Determine the inmate's eligibility for participation in MAP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Determine the propriety of an early parole hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Determine the inmate's eligibility for programming assignment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Assign the inmate to programs involving:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Employment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Modify, suspend, or terminate the case management process; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Modify the classification and assignment of any inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Security and Housing Classification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate returned to custody after an escape from an assignment to a minimum security or pre-release facility shall be housed in a medium security facility without case management action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt into the custody of the Commissioner, an inmate sentenced to life imprisonment or the death penalty shall be classified at the maximum security level.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A recommendation based on a case management determination that an inmate is eligible for a change in the inmate's classification level may not entitle the inmate to the change.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate may appeal the case management actions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An informal appeal under §E of this regulation shall be made in writing to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Warden for case management actions if the warden is the final approving authority; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Commissioner for case management actions if the Commissioner is the final approving authority.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A formal appeal under §E of this regulation shall be made to the Inmate Grievance Office according to procedures established by the Inmate Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The Commissioner shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Employees involved in the case management process are trained in the case management requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A review of the case management regulations is part of orientation for a newly received inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An authorized terminal operator enters complete and accurate case management information concerning initial security designation and security reclassifications in the inmate's record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Case Management Review Team."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>At a minimum, a case management review team shall consist of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A chairman that may be a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Case management manager;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Case management specialist II; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Facility administrator or a correctional officer holding the rank of captain or lieutenant;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's assigned case manager, if available; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A correctional officer holding the rank of sergeant or above.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In addition to the members identified in §A of this regulation, any of the following employees are encouraged to be part of the team:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Psychologist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Vocational or academic instructor, or both;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>State Use Industries manager or designee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Social worker.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Case Management Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An assessment of the inmate shall be completed before developing a case management plan. The assessment, at a minimum, shall address the following areas concerning the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Security risk of the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Criminal history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Nature and circumstances of the inmate's current offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Substance abuse assessment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Medical evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Work and skill training history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Educational data; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Other information such as psychological assessments or evaluations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The case manager assigned to the inmate shall prepare the proper documentation and submit the paperwork to the case management supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The case management supervisor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Develop and record recommendations and rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Sign the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure that, if a nonconcurrence is recorded, a brief explanation is included on the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ensure that, if a crime victim has filed a request for the reading of the victim impact statement, the statement is read during a case management review where the inmate is considered for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Family leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Special leave; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Home detention; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Forward the form to the warden or the warden's designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A warden should review all case management recommendations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for those actions identified by law requiring a warden's review, a designee may be assigned to conduct reviews of case management actions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The warden, or if permitted, a designee, shall review case management actions that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Override a recommendation of reclassification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Involve an increase or decrease in an inmate's security level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Affect work release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Affect community adult rehabilitation center transfers; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Affect case management recommendations which require the warden's review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The warden or designee may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approve the case management recommendations; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide a written rationale for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disapproving the recommendations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ordering further action on the proposal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Deciding a course of action different than that recommended.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Except for actions under §H of this regulation, a warden or if permitted, a warden's designee, shall sign and date the appropriate case management form and return the document to the inmate's assigned case manager for processing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>After completing the following case management outcomes, a warden or designee shall forward the case to the Commissioner for review:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Transfer to the Maryland Correctional Adjustment Center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interstate Corrections Compact transfer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Case management recommendations regarding contractual transfer to the Federal Bureau of Prisons, regardless of case management or warden's recommendation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Commissioner of Correction shall review the warden's recommendation concerning issues in §H of this regulation and have the same options as identified for the warden under §F of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Inmate Programming."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate programming shall ensure that inmates:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Are assessed to determine risks and needs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Have, if appropriate, an individualized written program plan that addresses identified risks and needs; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Are monitored for implementation of the program plan.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A multidisciplinary approach to programming shall be used in the case management process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Division shall determine inmate eligibility for programming based on:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number of inmates that can be served with available program resources; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The principle that inmates closest to release from incarceration have priority for receiving program services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Inmate participation in programming may be restricted:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the inmate is in special confinement housing, such as administrative or disciplinary segregation, or protective custody and demonstrates other special needs based on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Aggressive behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A medical or mental health condition; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Victimization;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Consistent with established case management procedures, if the inmate’s case manager or other authorized staff member determines that participation in programming while in special confinement housing would pose a threat to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Facility safety and security; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The safety of the inmate, staff, or other participants; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Because programming in the special confinement housing status at the facility:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is not available to an inmate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Would not be beneficial to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate is expected to recognize and communicate the inmate's own needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>For an inmate to progress to lower levels of security the inmate shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Meet objective classification criteria; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Participate in programs planned to address the inmate's needs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Consistent with available resources, the Division shall provide an inmate with programs which address the inmate's needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Upon receipt of the final decision on a case management recommendation, the inmate's case manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the inmate of the final result;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Distribute the required form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure that the final result is recorded on the inmate institutional progress sheet, along with the date of the final action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The case manager shall monitor assigned case management plans to ensure that each is being implemented. The case manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Take appropriate action to ensure that program activities are conducted as scheduled in the plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Regularly:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Assess inmate progress;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide counseling when necessary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If appropriate, propose changes to the plan; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Report to a supervisor each incident where a case management program plan requirement has not been implemented.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Case Management Parole Hearing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pre-Parole Hearing Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall provide each institution with:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A master list of inmates scheduled for parole hearings, 60 days before the date of the earliest hearing on the list; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A qualified list of inmates scheduled for parole hearings that reflects additions and deletions, 30 days before the date of the first hearing on the list.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a list of inmates scheduled for a parole hearing, a case management supervisor shall assign a case manager to complete and distribute, at least 20 days before the date of the first hearing, a pre-parole summary for each inmate scheduled.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A case management supervisor shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate's assigned case manager or a designated case manager attends an inmate's parole hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The inmate's record is available at the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For programming purposes, an inmate may be considered for an early parole hearing if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has a term of confinement that does not exceed 16 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is not presently incarcerated because of parole or mandatory release revocation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Is not presently incarcerated for violation of probation which resulted from the commission of a new offense; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Does not have two prior sentences of 6 months or more.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The case manager shall record the case manager's recommendation concerning the inmate's request for an early parole hearing and related rationale on a classification assignment sheet and forward it to the warden for review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The warden shall conduct those activities as provided under Regulation .04D—F of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A warden approving the recommendation for an early parole hearing shall send a written request that includes the rationale for the action to the Commission for approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Post-Parole Hearing Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the parole hearing results in a decision to hold the case for additional information or an administrative refusal, within 30 calendar days the inmate's assigned case manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Take action to resolve the reason, or reasons, for the decision to hold the case or the administrative refusal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notify the Commission employee conducting the parole hearing that the identified issue or issues has or have been addressed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for cases decided by two or more parole commissioners, the inmate may file a written exception to the decision within 5 days of the final written parole decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an inmate is approved for parole and is subsequently convicted of a Category I, II, or III infraction as determined by the Commissioner of Correction or is reclassified to greater security level, the inmate's case manager shall notify the Commission in writing of the conviction or increase in security level, or both, not later than 5 working days from date of conviction or reclassification, or sooner if parole is imminent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>After receipt of the Division's report under §B(3) of this regulation, the Commission may take action considered appropriate including suspending the decision to approve the parole and scheduling a subsequent hearing to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Rescind the decision to approve;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Extend the date of parole release; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Affirm the original decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>After a parole hearing decision to disapprove an inmate for parole, the inmate's case manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Counsel the inmate on the effect the parole decision has on the inmate's status and future programming; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refer the inmate, based on the inmate's proximity for release, for case management review which may recommend continuing or changing the inmate's assignment, housing, or security or custody levels.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Inmate Case Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate Case Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Division shall maintain a record and history for each inmate that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A complete physical description;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A current photograph;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Information concerning the current crime or crimes of which the inmate was convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The sentence or sentences imposed for the conviction or convictions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal and juvenile history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Presentence investigation, parole, probation, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>School records; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Other information, records, and reports concerning the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Division shall work with State and local officials to obtain information for the inmate case record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Access to Inmate Case Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for a record of a presentence investigation, a warden may grant access to inmate case records without a written request to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A medical service provider if the information is necessary to provide proper medical care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An individual authorized by court order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An individual authorized by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A Maryland judge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A State's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for a record of a presentence investigation, a warden may grant access to inmate case records upon a written request to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Employees of a State department or agency if the request is in the furtherance of the employee's lawful duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employees of a State, federal, or local law enforcement agency, if the request is in the furtherance of the employee's lawful duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The inmate's attorney; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Inmates or individuals who have written authorization from the inmate or inmates whose record or records are to be accessed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Before a warden grants access to an individual identified in §B(1) and (2) of this regulation, except for a Maryland judge or a State's attorney, the warden shall establish that the records:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall be used only for legitimate business related purposes of the individual or agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not be further disseminated to a person or government unit not authorized to review the records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A warden shall grant access to an inmate's presentence investigation report only to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The inmate's attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A State's attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A party when authorization is granted by a court order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A correctional institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A parole, probation, or pretrial release official of this State, any other state, or the United States;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A public or private mental health facility in this State or another state if the inmate has been or is being evaluated for commitment for treatment as a condition of probation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A community substance abuse treatment provider in this State or another state if the inmate will be treated or evaluated for treatment by the provider as a condition of probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The warden shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmate case records are reviewed in the presence of an institution employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A fee, established under §I of this regulation, is collected for photocopies; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A log is maintained reflecting the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Date of review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Name of the inmate whose record was reviewed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Commitment number of the inmate whose record was reviewed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Name of the person requesting access and conducting the review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Reason for the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Warden's signature for each approved request for access to inmate case records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Attorney Access to Inmate Case Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An attorney requesting access to an inmate's record shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make a written request to the warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make the request with a minimum of 24 hours notice;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide a specific reason for the request, which shall include the factual basis for a need for legal purposes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Before accessing the record:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Provide written authorization for release of the records signed by the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Display proper identification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An attorney may be granted access to only those records specifically requested under §B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the records are to be reviewed by an employee or agent of the attorney making the request, proper identification shall be produced by the attorney's employee or agent before access to the record is granted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Access to Inmate Medical Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate medical records are the property of the Division and maintained by a contracted medical provider.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for records under this section shall be made in writing to the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The warden shall review and forward the request to the contracted medical provider.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The medical provider shall arrange for the records to be forwarded to the warden who shall arrange for review by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Following the inmate's review, the warden shall ensure that the records are returned to the medical provider.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Inmate Access to the Inmate's Case Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For an inmate to access that inmate's case record, the inmate shall submit a written request for records review to the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The warden shall acknowledge receipt of the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's name shall be recorded on a list maintained by the records department of inmates requesting record review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Within a reasonable period of time, record department personnel shall schedule the inmate's record review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Records department personnel shall ensure that material that an inmate may not have access to is removed before the scheduled review. Under this section, an inmate is not entitled to review:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Presentence investigation documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medical records; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Mental health records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate shall be permitted to review the inmate's record once every 6 months, unless additional reviews are approved by the warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Inmate Access to Psychological Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may obtain access to psychological information in the inmate's record by a written request to the warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A warden shall review an inmate's request with the appropriate psychology staff and determine if access may be granted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Access to psychological information shall be determined according to the provisions under Health-General Article, §4-307, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If access is denied, the warden shall ensure that a summary of the records that are compatible with the inmate's current level of functioning is prepared and made available to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Documenting Access and Denial of Access to Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If access is granted, a record of the review shall be placed in the inmate's record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If access is denied, the person making the request shall be notified in writing and a copy of the notification shall be included in the inmate's record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Appeals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An appeal of a warden's decision to deny access to inmate records may be made to the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commissioner shall make a final determination on the request as provided under COMAR 12.11.02.11.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The custodian of records shall collect a fee for copying and a fee for preparation of the materials from the requesting party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A fee may not be charged for the first 2 hours of official employee time that is needed to respond to a request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fees for copies and preparation time shall be posted in the records department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A charge may only be made for a total that is greater than $1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If it best serves the public interest, the warden may waive costs associated with preparation and providing copies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Photocopies may not be provided unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Procedures have been followed to withdraw the cost from the inmate's financial account; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For noninmate requests, after arrangements for payment by the requesting party have been made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Request for Inmate Case Records Maintained at the State Records Center."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a request to review inmate case records is approved under the provisions of this chapter and the records to be reviewed are maintained at the State Records Center, before the scheduled date for the review a case management manager, supervisor, or designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete a reference request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Follow established procedures to contact and request retrieval of the records; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Retrieve the records at the designated State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When the records are no longer needed, the case management manager, supervisor, or designee shall return the records to the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Waiver of Extradition."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner of the Division of Correction shall ensure that a waiver of extradition form is completed by an inmate before authorizing leave, work release, or home detention for an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A case management supervisor shall ensure that the waiver of extradition form is filed in the inmate case record.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c) and 3-602(d), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective June 23, 2003 (30:12 Md. R. 789)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02D amended as an emergency provision effective March 23, 2012 (39:8 Md. R. 532); amended permanently effective May 28, 2012 (39:10 Md. R. 660)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05D amended effective June 6, 2016 (43:11 Md. R. 635)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="25" heading="Mutual Agreement Programming"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Case management unit” means a unit assigned to Division headquarters which is responsible for oversight and coordination of the MAP process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Case management specialist” means the assigned employee who is responsible for each eligible inmate in the case management process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Correctional options program” means a graduated series of sanctions, treatment, and other program assistance focusing on nonviolent offenders.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Division” means Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“MAP” means mutual agreement programming which is a process of negotiating an agreement between an inmate, the Parole Commission, and the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“MAP agreement” means an agreement between an inmate, the Division, and the Maryland Parole Commission. This agreement stipulates programming in which an inmate shall participate and includes a guaranteed parole release date that is contingent upon satisfactory completion of all programming requirements in the agreement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“MAP proposal” means a suggested program plan and suggested parole release that is considered at a MAP negotiation for inclusion in a MAP agreement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Eligibility Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Eligibility criteria for MAP shall be prepared mutually by staff members of the Division and the Parole Commission. The criteria, as established, and as revised from time to time, shall be in a written document which shall be on file in the principal offices of the Division and the Parole Commission and made available, upon request, to all interested parties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may not participate in MAP when the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is serving a sentence over which the Maryland Parole Commission has no authority to parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has been refused parole, approved for parole, placed on hold, or administratively refused parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is within 6 months of a parole rehearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has been revoked from parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has had a previous MAP agreement cancelled during the inmate's current incarceration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Is serving a fourth or subsequent separate adult incarceration of 6 months or more unless approved to participate in the correctional options program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has escaped, attempted to escape, conspired to escape within the last 5 years, escaped during the current incarceration, or has two or more escapes at any time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Has been convicted of a new criminal offense which occurred while under the jurisdiction of the Division during the present incarceration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Has been convicted of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>First or second degree murder,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>First or second degree rape,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>First or second degree sex offense,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sodomy,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Child abuse, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Assault with intent to commit, conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or solicitation to commit, an offense listed in this subsection;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Is on administrative segregation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Is on disciplinary segregation or has not been released from disciplinary segregation for at least 180 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Is on housing restriction or probation, or has not been released from housing restriction or probation for 90 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Has been reclassified to greater security within the past 6 months; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Is classified to maximum or super maximum security.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before the development of a MAP proposal:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Division staff shall explain the requirements and procedures of MAP to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An assessment shall be completed for each eligible inmate which, at a minimum, shall address the following areas:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Security and custody risks of the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inmate's criminal history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Nature and circumstances of the inmate's current offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Addictions assessment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Medical evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Work and skill training history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Educational data; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Other data pertinent to the case such as psychosocial assessments or psychological evaluations;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Division staff shall establish MAP negotiating parameters which shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establish the terms that the Division negotiator may approve at MAP negotiation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Address at least the following areas of a MAP agreement and which shall be approved by the Commissioner:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Academic programming,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Vocational programming,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Treatment programming,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Behavioral requirements,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Work release assignments,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Institutional transfers,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Changes in security, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Parole release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In addition to having the MAP negotiation parameters approved by the Commissioner, final approval of a MAP agreement requires the agreement and signature of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A representative from the Parole Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The inmate's case management specialist shall be responsible for monitoring the progress of each MAP agreement to ensure that it is being implemented. The case management specialist shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Take appropriate action to ensure that all scheduled activity is carried out within the time criteria established in the agreement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Routinely assess the progress of an inmate, provide counseling when necessary, and propose changes in the agreement when necessary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Report each incident of failure to implement a requirement of the agreement to the case management unit at Division headquarters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When a violation of the MAP agreement is reported, staff of the case management unit shall determine, under the terms of the agreement, whether the reported facts constitute a violation of specific agreement criteria. If it is determined that a violation has occurred, case management unit staff shall prepare a written notice describing the breach of the terms of the agreement. Case management staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Recommend cancellation of the agreement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recommend amending the terms of the agreement and forward copies of the recommendation to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmate, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A MAP agreement may be cancelled if the terms of the agreement have been violated, or new information is received which was not known before the MAP negotiation hearing, and at least one of the signers of the agreement requires cancellation. A MAP agreement may also be cancelled at any time at the inmate's written request for any reason. Once a MAP agreement is cancelled, the inmate is subject to routine classification and parole procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Completion of Terms of MAP Agreement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon completion of the terms of the MAP agreement, the inmate's case management specialist shall provide the case management unit staff with certification that the inmate has successfully completed the requirements of the agreement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Case management unit staff shall review and verify the information in §F(1) and forward it to the Parole Commission before the inmate's scheduled release date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Parole Commission staff shall then ensure that, contingent upon successful completion of all criteria of the MAP agreement, the inmate shall be released as scheduled.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109(c), Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 27, 1991 (18:10 Md. R. 1117)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective March 1, 1993 (20:4 Md. R. 372); April 8, 1996 (23:7 Md. R. 554)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective March 1, 1993 (20:4 Md. R. 372); April 8, 1996 (23:7 Md. R. 554)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective April 8, 1996 (23:7 Md. R. 554)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="26" heading="Home Detention Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall establish a home detention program for an eligible inmate, who, by background and institutional adjustment, is judged able to serve a sentence in the community with minimum risk to public safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A participating inmate shall reside in a preapproved residence and shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When employed, work in a closely monitored employment situation to stabilize a regime before full release into the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Receive appropriate educational, substance abuse, and other counseling or habilitative services as may be available through both Division and community resources that will complement and reinforce services received in the institutional setting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Meet financial obligations as established by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrator” means the prerelease facility administrator of the Division of Correction home detention unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Assistant administrator” means the home detention unit assistant facility administrator who is a senior correctional officer, lieutenant or above, or the senior nonuniformed staff member assigned to the unit, as the administrator directs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Assistant warden” means the assistant managing official of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Base file” means the documentation concerning an inmate's background, institutional placement, institutional adjustment, etc.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of the Division of Correction or the Commissioner's designee of warden, assistant warden, facility administrator, or facility administrator's designee, unless otherwise specified in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Electronic supervision” means monitoring of an inmate's location or whereabouts through the use of devices that combine telephone contact and the reception of a signal from a monitoring device worn by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Program staff” means an employee designated by the Commissioner to work in the home detention unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Release date” means any of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Mandatory release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Mutual agreement programming release date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Parole release date or delayed parole release date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Unit” means a home detention unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Warden” means the chief managing official of the Maryland Correctional Prerelease System.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Organization and Staffing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To comply with Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 4, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commissioner shall organize and operate a home detention unit as a component of the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Staffing of the home detention unit shall consist of classifications to be determined by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Enforcement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §3-412, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commissioner shall designate individuals in the following classifications with arrest powers over an inmate placed into the home detention unit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Administrator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Correctional staff assigned to the home detention unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Select correctional officers assigned to the Division's investigation unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual designated by the Commissioner with arrest powers shall comply with all of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Satisfactorily complete a training program prescribed by the Maryland Police Training Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Satisfactorily complete required in-service training approved by the Maryland Police Training Commission, which training shall be completed during the calendar year following completion of the training program in §B(1) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As a part of the in-service training, qualify annually on authorized firearms and intermediate weapons in courses approved by the Maryland Police Training Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Administrative Search Warrant. Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §3-415, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee may petition a District Court or circuit court for an administrative search warrant within the jurisdiction where an inmate's approved residence is located, for the purpose of gaining entry to an inmate's residence to locate and return the inmate to institutional custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Removal of an Inmate From the Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §3-413, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee may remove an inmate from home detention participation and return the inmate to institutional custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In addition to the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee, a unit correctional officer or a designated member of the Division's investigation unit is authorized to order and direct removal of an inmate from program participation, if written documentation is submitted to and approved by the administrator before the end of the officer's shift in which the inmate was removed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate may be removed from program participation for any reason, including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violation of a program rule as set forth in Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medical reason, including mental health problems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Recommendation of program staff that an inmate is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Unable to maintain a functional home environment,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion of physically abusing an individual in the household, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion that an individual in the inmate's home is creating an environment detrimental to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §3-409, Annotated Code of Maryland, the willful violation by an inmate of a condition of program placement is a misdemeanor and, on conviction, is punishable for up to 12 months incarceration. The warden, assistant warden, administrator, or assistant administrator may, at their discretion, approve to petition the District Court in the jurisdiction where an inmate resides, with a statement of charges to charge an inmate with a violation of this regulation. Prosecution of an inmate under this regulation may be in addition to other administrative disciplinary action taken by the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An inmate convicted of a violation of Correctional Services Article, §3-409, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall lose previously earned credits for good conduct in an amount determined by an adjustment hearing officer during an adjustment hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An administrative disciplinary action taken against an inmate shall be performed in accordance with current Division policy on inmate discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An inmate may be considered as an escapee when:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Absent from an assigned location; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's location is unknown by program staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Inmate Eligibility Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner may specify treatment and educational programs an inmate is required to complete before becoming eligible for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may be required to participate in a program in the following areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Substance abuse treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Employment readiness training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A program as directed by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate is ineligible for home detention placement if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is serving a life sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has ever been convicted of or is now serving a sentence for a crime of violence as defined in Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>5 years have elapsed since expiration of sentence for the crime of violence, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The inmate is within 90 days of release on parole expiration or mandatory supervision;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has ever been convicted of the crime of child abuse under Criminal Law Article, §3-601, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has ever been found guilty of escape under Criminal Law Article, §9-404, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has a detainer or pending charge, with the exception of a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Payable fine,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Civil contempt of court offense, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Traffic offense, excluding manslaughter and homicide by a motor vehicle;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Except when the inmate has been convicted of civil contempt of court, is more than 18 months from a definite release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Is classified to maximum or super maximum security; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Does not have a telephone and home plan within the program catchment area.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate who has more than 6 months remaining before release at the time of home detention placement is ineligible if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is currently serving a sentence for the manufacturing, distribution, possession with intent to distribute, or conspiracy to distribute a controlled dangerous substance as defined by the Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has been previously removed from home detention placement for violation of a program rule during the inmate's current incarceration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate shall meet the following criteria to be eligible for placement into home detention:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has had no convictions for a category I or II rule violation for the past 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has signed a waiver of extradition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is within 18 months of a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Mutual agreement programming release date,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Delayed parole release date, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Mandatory supervision release date;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Agrees to accept approved employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has no chronic medical problem that would preclude the inmate's placement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has a telephone in the inmate's approved residence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Approving an Inmate for Home Detention Placement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>On determination of an inmate's interest in and eligibility for home detention placement, staff of the Division and Baltimore City Detention Center shall conduct screening, assessment, verification, review, and classification of an inmate for approval or disapproval based on exclusionary criteria in Regulation .05 of this chapter. The Division may establish written procedures establishing criteria for a psychological evaluation of an inmate before home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>On approval by staff of the Division or Baltimore City Detention Center, an inmate shall receive further screening from program staff for approval or disapproval based on established procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>On review and approval of the administrator, an inmate's base file and other screening documentation shall be forwarded to the Commissioner for final review and approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>On the Commissioner's approval, an inmate shall be scheduled for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>At each step of the screening process, if an inmate is disapproved for program participation, the rationale for the disapproval shall be noted, and the inmate shall be advised of the disapproval and rationale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If a previously registered victim notification requirement exists for an inmate being considered for home detention placement, commitment office staff shall send a certified letter to advise the victim and request that the victim respond to the warden of the facility in which the inmate is currently housed, by telephone or in writing within 7 days. The response shall be available to the classification team for evaluation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Placement of an Inmate Into Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate shall receive a complete orientation to the home detention program to include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Signing forms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Familiarization with the operation of electronic supervision equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Familiarization with home detention requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Following orientation, an inmate shall be transported to the inmate's approved residence where program staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Install and test assigned electronic supervision equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Review with the inmate work, treatment, and home schedules.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Following placement, program staff, upon request of the local police of the jurisdiction in which an inmate resides, shall notify the police in writing of the inmate's placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Program staff shall provide an inmate's employer with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A copy of home detention requirements which the employer and the inmate are required to follow; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An orientation to the program which includes the Division's expectations of a participating employer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Program Rules for an Inmate Assigned to Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate shall comply with a lawful order received from program staff and program rules established to effect the efficient operation of the program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Failure to comply with a lawful order or program requirements may result, at the discretion of the administrator, in an inmate's removal from home detention placement and return to institutional custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate shall agree to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate shall remain at the inmate's approved residence except for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Work during preapproved hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An approved visit to the unit offices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A prearranged and approved visit to a treatment site;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An emergency which is life-threatening to the inmate or another member of the household; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>As directed by the administrator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate may not violate a city, State, or federal law, and arrest or formal placement of a charge against an inmate for violation of a law shall result in removal from home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate may not own, possess, use, or have under the inmate's control a firearm or weapon.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An inmate is subject to search on demand by program staff of the inmate's person, vehicle, and residence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate may not deny entrance to the inmate's approved residence to program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate shall agree to see program staff on demand at the inmate's place of employment or at a location in the community designated by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An inmate may not use, or have on the inmate's person or under the inmate's control, an alcoholic beverage.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An inmate may not enter a location that serves or sells an alcoholic beverage, including but not limited to a bar, club, group meeting, or party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Use or possess a controlled dangerous substance; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Consume medication which is not prescribed by a physician and preapproved by program staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>An inmate is subject to urinalysis or another form of drug testing on demand by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>An inmate may be required to maintain employment in the private sector or through public service or community service assignment as approved by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>An inmate may not change employment without the prior approval of program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Loss of employment, unless no fault of the inmate, may result in removal from home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>An inmate may not apply for assistance from a private or governmental agency without the approval of the administrator or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>An inmate may not contract for or use a charge account, or make a credit application without the prior approval of the administrator or the administrator's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>An inmate shall comply with a directive issued to the inmate by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>An inmate shall attend a treatment activity directed by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>An inmate may not leave the State without prior written permission of the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>An inmate may not associate with an individual whom the inmate should reasonably know has a criminal record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>An inmate may not visit a correctional facility without prior approval of the administrator or the administrator's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>An inmate shall maintain, at the inmate's expense, a private telephone line during program placement, and an inmate may not leave the telephone receiver off the hook.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>An inmate shall answer incoming telephone calls. An incoming and an outgoing call not related to home detention supervision may not be longer than 10 minutes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>An inmate shall permit the installation of electronic supervision equipment at the inmate's place of residence and on the inmate's person as program staff may direct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>An inmate may not move, tamper with, or disturb electronic supervision equipment placed on the inmate's telephone line or person. An inmate shall be financially responsible for damage or loss of assigned electronic supervision equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>An inmate shall maintain basic telephone service at the inmate's residence. Call waiting is the only additional telephone service permitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>An inmate may be required to pay for electronic supervision costs, court-ordered child support, or court-ordered restitution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>An inmate may not operate a motor vehicle without obtaining permission from the administrator, and only on confirmation of the inmate's driver's license status and vehicle registration information by program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>An inmate may not change residence status, including the addition of a household member, without the approval of the administrator or the administrator's designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Supervision of a Home Detention Inmate."> <text>The Commissioner shall establish minimum standards of supervision as follows:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The inmate shall be required to submit to electronic supervision which includes telephone contact and reception of a signal from a monitoring device worn by the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The inmate shall admit program staff to the residence at any time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The inmate shall be personally monitored by program staff as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At home,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At work and through employment verification by contact with the employer and submission of a paycheck stub,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At unit offices,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Through random urinalysis, the frequency to be determined by the administrator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Disposition of Funds Collected from a Home Detention Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall determine the amount of, and collect from inmates in the program, a reasonable fee for the cost of electronic supervision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fees collected shall be processed in accordance with established fiscal procedures regarding the collection, disbursement, and accounting of funds.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner or designee may authorize an inmate's payment on a sliding scale or waive or adjust these costs, on the written recommendation of the administrator or the administrator's designee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §3-414, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01--.10 adopted as an emergency provision effective March 19, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 766); emergency status extended at 18:17 Md. R. 1913; emergency status expired October 15, 1991; emergency status reinstated effective November 6, 1991 (18:24 Md. R. 2640); emergency status expired December 9, 1991</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01--.10 adopted effective December 9, 1991 (18:24 Md. R. 2645)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01--.10 amended as an emergency provision effective July 14, 1992 (19:16 Md. R. 1469); emergency status extended at 19:22 Md. R. 1981; amended permanently effective December 21, 1992 (19:25 Md. R. 2207)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="27" heading="Inmate Discipline" reason="Repealed — See COMAR 12.03.01"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.37 adopted as an emergency provision effective March 9, 2006 (33:7 Md. R. 628); emergency status extended at 33:19 Md. R. 1555</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.37 adopted effective September 11, 2006 (33:18 Md. R. 1506)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03F adopted effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 21, 2008 (35:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised as an emergency provision effective September 17, 2011 (38:21 Md. R. 1275); revised permanently effective January 9, 2012 (38:27 Md. R. 1764)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective July 2, 2018 (45:13 Md. R. 668)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="28" heading="Administrative Remedy Procedures to Resolve Inmate Complaints"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Under the authority granted the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services under Correctional Services Article, §2-103, Annotated Code of Maryland and concurrence of the Commissioner of Correction and Director of Patuxent Institution:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>These regulations apply to an inmate in the custody of the Division of Correction and the Patuxent Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Responsibilities previously assigned under the Administrative Remedy Procedures to the Director of Patuxent Institution, such as reviewing, approving, and reporting are now the responsibility of the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations establish procedures for an inmate to seek resolution of a complaint through:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Informal resolution with facility staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Administrative Remedy Procedure, which is a formal process consisting of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Presentation of the complaint to the managing official for investigation and resolution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An appeal to the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except as permitted by the Inmate Grievance Office under COMAR 12.07.01, an inmate shall exhaust the remedies available under this chapter before submitting a complaint to the Inmate Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrative Remedy Procedure (ARP)” means a formal process established by the Commissioner of Correction to address inmate complaints concerning conditions of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Administrative Remedy Coordinator (ARC)” means an employee designated by the Commissioner of Correction or Managing Official to receive, acknowledge, and direct the investigation of ARP complaints and to maintain all records relating to the complaints according to procedures set forth in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Appeal” means the process by which an inmate seeks review by the Commissioner of Correction of a decision regarding a complaint submitted under the ARP at the correctional facility level.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Closely related issues” means matters that are the result of single incident or condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Conditions of confinement” means any circumstances, situations, or events that involve an inmate’s custody, transportation, incarceration, or supervision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Correctional facility” means a facility within the Division of Correction or Patuxent Institution that is operated for the purpose of confining an individual who is committed to the custody of the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Formal resolution” means a written decision and, if appropriate, relief from the managing official or Commissioner regarding an inmate complaint filed under the ARP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Frivolous” means a complaint that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is not serious or practical; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shows on its face a complete lack of substance or merit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Informal resolution” means the process by which an inmate seeks relief for a complaint from facility staff under this chapter other than through the ARP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual committed to the custody of the Commissioner and housed in a Division of Correction or Patuxent Institution correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Malicious” means an act that is spiteful, shows ill will, or demonstrates intent to cause harm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Managing official” means the warden or other individual responsible for the management of a correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“May not” means an absolute prohibition and does not imply discretion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Procedural dismissal on preliminary review” means the administrative refusal to accept, investigate, or process an inmate complaint under the ARP, because the inmate’s complaint:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Exceeds time limits for filing the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Does not provide required or sufficient information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Is incomplete; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Is determined to be frivolous or malicious.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Remedy” means an action to resolve conditions or circumstances that resulted in an inmate complaint under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Working day” means a day of the week excluding weekend days, State holidays, or days on which State offices are closed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Organization and Responsibilities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner, or a designee, is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Oversight of the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensuring that a managing official properly applies ARP policy and procedures authorized under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Designating a Headquarters ARC;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Designating Headquarters staff to investigate or delegate ARP investigative responsibilities authorized under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Responding to appeals with in the established time frame; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Reviewing ARP decisions on appeal from the correctional facility level.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Headquarters ARC is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Managing ARP duties at the Headquarters level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensuring that Headquarters staff perform and complete ARP assignments according to requirements under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reporting to the Commissioner, or a designee, compliance issues related to the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Processing ARP appeals within the established time frame;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Receiving, acknowledging, and directing investigations related to an ARP appeal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Maintaining documents and records related to the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Developing and implementing training programs for investigators and ARCs structured to facilitate the ARP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Ensuring facility compliance with requirements of this chapter by auditing correctional facility activities related to inmate complaints.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A managing official, or a designee, is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Oversight of and compliance with procedures to resolve inmate complaints at the managing official’s correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designating a facility ARC and an alternate facility ARC from the following positions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Case management specialist; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Correctional officer;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that facility staff are aware of the ARP by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Providing each new employee with an Administrative Remedy Procedure Fact Sheet for new employees;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Having the new employee sign a receipt for the Administrative Remedy Procedure Fact Sheet for New Employees; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Having the signed receipt placed in the employee’s facility personnel file;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensuring that staff attempt to resolve inmate complaints at the lowest possible level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Responding to inmate complaints within the established time frame; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensuring that the Introduction to the Administrative Remedy Procedure form is read to the inmate as part of inmate orientation and included in the inmate handbook.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A facility ARC is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Processing ARP complaints at the ARC’s facility in accordance with established procedures and within the required time frame;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensuring that facility staff complete ARP related duties in accordance with established procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Maintaining documents and records related to resolving inmate complaints under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Reporting ARP non-compliance issues to the managing official;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ensuring that ARP forms are available from case management, housing unit officers, and the inmate library; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensuring that appropriate accommodations are made for an inmate with limited English proficiency or a disability that affects the inmate’s ability to file a complaint under the ARP in accordance with Department procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A unit liaison:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is an employee assigned by the managing official, or a designee, to be the ARC’s point of contact in the unit investigating an ARP complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When assigned an ARP investigation, shall conduct or reassign the investigation to an employee in the same unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An individual designated to investigate an ARP complaint under this chapter shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Thoroughly investigate the complaint using the Administrative Remedy Procedure Case Summary form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complete the assigned investigation and forward documentation to the ARC assigning the investigation within the time limit established for the investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The managing official, or a designee, shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Forms required by an inmate to request resolution of a complaint under this chapter are available to the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If requested, the inmate is provided appropriate assistance with reading and completing the form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Conditions of Confinement Subject to the ARP."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate may use the ARP to resolve a complaint related to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Correctional facility policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Medical and mental health services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Access to a court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Religious liberties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Inmate property that is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Lost;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Damaged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Stolen;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Destroyed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Confiscated;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Complaints against staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Use of force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Sentence computation and diminution of confinement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Correctional facility conditions affecting inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Health;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Safety; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Welfare;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Retaliation for seeking to resolve a complaint through the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Management and application of the procedures under this chapter for resolving an inmate complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Commissary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Inmate telephone system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may not use the ARP to resolve a complaint concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Case management recommendations and decisions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Parole Commission procedures and decisions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate disciplinary hearing procedures and decisions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Appeals of a decision to withhold inmate mail; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The following acts by staff or another inmate, which shall be addressed according to Department procedures for addressing complaints under the Prison Rape Elimination Act:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Rape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sexual assault, sexual harassment, sexual abuse; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Other sexual misconduct.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Inmate Complaint Resolution — Overview."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An employee who is assigned to investigate and respond to an inmate complaint under this chapter shall work with the inmate to attempt to resolve the inmate’s complaint at the lowest level of inmate supervision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The process for resolving an inmate complaint consists of two components:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Informal resolution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Formal resolution through the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Informal Resolution.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may attempt to resolve a complaint informally by working with appropriate staff to reach a remedy to the conditions resulting in the inmate complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate may initiate a formal request to resolve the complaint if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate and staff are unable to remedy the inmate complaint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Staff does not respond to the inmate’s informal complaint.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate is not required to exhaust the informal resolution procedure in order to file a request for formal resolution through the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Formal resolution of an inmate complaint consists of utilizing the ARP to file:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A request for administrative remedy with the managing official; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal to the Commissioner, if the inmate is not satisfied with the managing official’s response to the request for an administrative remedy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the inmate’s complaint is not resolved after an appeal under the ARP, the inmate may file a grievance with the Inmate Grievance Office according to procedures under COMAR 12.07.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An inmate may not file a request to resolve a complaint under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On behalf of another inmate, staff, or other third person, such as a visitor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Brought as a class action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The transfer of an inmate to another facility in the Department does not terminate the ARP, although the transfer of an inmate may be relevant to a determination whether the request is moot or whether relief is available.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Filing a complaint with the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division does not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Constitute an administrative remedy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Excuse the inmate from the requirement of pursuing an administrative remedy under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>An inmate is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Using the ARP for the intended purpose; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Being honest and straightforward throughout the process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>An inmate may not be subject to retaliation because the inmate used the procedures established under this chapter to resolve an issue and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may use the ARP or an informal resolution to resolve a complaint of retaliation for using the procedures established under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the inmate’s complaint of retaliation is confirmed, the managing official shall ensure that the appropriate action is taken in accordance with the Department’s Standards of Conduct.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Limiting Requests for Formal Resolution of Inmate Complaints under ARP."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner, based on a recommendation from a managing official, may limit the number of inmate complaints for which an inmate may request formal resolution under the ARP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall base a decision to limit an inmate’s requests for formal resolution under the ARP on the inmate’s history of complaints under the ARP considering, at a minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number of formal resolution requests filed by the inmate during the 6 months immediately preceding the date of the most recent request for formal resolution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Of the number of requests under §B(1) of this regulation, the number that were:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Substantiated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Procedurally dismissed on preliminary review based on a finding that the inmate’s complaint was frivolous or malicious; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Information provided by the managing official supporting a recommendation to limit the inmate’s requests for formal resolution under the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A managing official seeking to limit the number of requests for formal resolution under the ARP that an inmate may submit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the request to the Commissioner in writing in a format and on forms approved by the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in the written request the information required under §§B(1)—(3) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Recommend to the Commissioner:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The number of requests an inmate may submit for formal resolution under ARP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The period for which the proposed limit remains in effect.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commissioner shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review a request to limit an inmate’s use of the formal resolution process under the ARP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Respond to the managing official in writing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Approving or denying the request; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Indicating a different:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Number of requests an inmate may submit for formal resolution under the ARP; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Period for which the limit remains in effect.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the Commissioner denies the request, the Commissioner shall include in the written response to the managing official the reason for the denial.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Withdrawing an ARP Request or ARP Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate filing an ARP request or appeal may withdraw the request or appeal at any time prior to the issuance of a decision on the request or appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate withdrawing a request or appeal shall submit the request to withdraw the request or appeal:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In writing using an Administrative Remedy Procedure Withdrawal form (Withdrawal form); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To the facility ARC receiving the original ARP request or the Headquarters ARC receiving the appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An ARC receiving a properly completed Withdrawal form shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Take steps to stop any action taking place related to the inmate complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Appropriately record action taken in response to the withdrawal request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>File the original Withdrawal form in the appropriate ARP file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Provide the inmate with a copy of the finalized Withdrawal form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Informal Resolution of an Inmate Complaint."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>As soon as possible after the incident resulting in the complaint occurred or the date the inmate first had knowledge of the incident, an inmate seeking informal resolution of a complaint under this chapter shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Document the request in writing on an Informal Inmate Complaint form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward the completed form to the appropriate unit head or shift commander.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate may file as many forms as necessary to address the incident; however, only one complaint may be on a single form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When completing the Informal Inmate Complaint form, the inmate shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The subject of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date the incident occurred or the inmate first had knowledge of the incident;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The names of other individuals involved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A brief description of the incident or complaint; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Date and sign the completed form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Filing a request for informal resolution of an inmate complaint does not extend the period for filing a request for formal resolution under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A unit head or shift commander receiving an Informal Inmate Complaint form shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Record on the form the date received and the initials of the individual receiving the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide a copy of the receipted form to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assign an individual, if possible familiar with the subject matter area involved in the complaint, to, within 15 calendar days of the date recorded on the request indicating receipt by the unit head or shift commander:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the form to establish the basis of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Research and review appropriate reports, records, policies, procedures and other documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Assess merit of the complaint in light of items under §E(3)(b) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If applicable, recommend a remedy to resolve the complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Draft and submit a response, with or without consultation with the unit head or shift commander, on the form to the individual assigning the case for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A unit head or shift commander receiving a report under §E(3)(e) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review and, if the report is properly completed in accordance with provisions established under this chapter, sign and date the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that a copy of the form is provided to the inmate filing the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If appropriate, ensure that the approved steps are taken to grant the approved remedy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Formal Resolution of an Inmate Complaint — Requests."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A request for formal resolution of a complaint under this chapter may be filed only by an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate seeking formal resolution of a complaint under this chapter, as soon as possible, but no later than 30 days after the date of the incident resulting in the complaint or the date the inmate first had knowledge of the incident, whichever is later, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Document the request in writing using an Administrative Remedy Procedure Request for Administrative Remedy form (Request form); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the completed Request form in accordance with the managing official’s written instructions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A staff member receiving a Request form under §B(2) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Date and sign the Request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide the inmate with a copy of the dated and signed Request form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Forward the Request form for processing in accordance with written procedures established by the managing official.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When completing the Request form, the inmate shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Use a typewriter or a black or blue ink pen;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The subject of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date the incident occurred or the inmate first had knowledge of the incident;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The names of other individuals involved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A brief description of the incident or complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Steps, if any, taken toward an informal resolution of the complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Relief requested to resolve the complaint; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date and sign the completed Request form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Formal Resolution of an Inmate Complaint — Preliminary Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Facility Preliminary Review of a Request Form.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 5 working days of the date of receipt of a Request form by the managing official, the facility ARC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Assign a case number to the request according to requirements established in Regulation .19 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Index the request according to requirements established in Regulation .19 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Review the request to determine if the request:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Is frivolous or malicious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is complete and submitted according to requirements under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Is eligible for resolution under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Has been submitted within established time requirements; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Take action required under §A(2) or (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the request is determined to be frivolous or malicious, the managing official, or a facility ARC, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Properly complete the appropriate part of the Request form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record that the request is procedurally dismissed as being frivolous or malicious, or both.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Request form is determined to incomplete and the missing information is necessary to review the inmate’s complaint, the managing official or facility ARC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Properly complete the appropriate part of the Request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record that the request is procedurally dismissed as being incomplete;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide specific direction to resolve the noted issue;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Establish a due date for the resubmission that is the later of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>15 calendar days from the date of the procedural dismissal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>30 calendar days of the date of the original submission of the Request form;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Return the completed Request form and a blank Request form to the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>File a copy of the completed Request form in the appropriate ARP file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A Request form may not be determined incomplete and therefore procedurally dismissed pending resubmission under §A(3) of this regulation solely because the inmate did not include information concerning actions taken to informally resolve the complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>After the managing official or a facility ARC reviews a Request form, the facility ARC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appropriately process the request based on the action resulting from the preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that the affected individuals are notified of the result of the preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the Request form is not subject to procedural dismissal on preliminary review on the date the case is indexed:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Review the request to determine the nature of the case and assign the case for investigation by an individual familiar with the nature of the case; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Return the receipt portion of the Request form to the inmate filing the request; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Appropriately file the ARP documents.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Headquarters Preliminary Review of a Request Form. If a Request form is submitted directly to the Commissioner without being submitted first to the inmate’s managing official, the Commissioner, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Refer the Request form to the appropriate managing official including the date that the request was received by the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Record the Request form in the Headquarters index without a case number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notify the inmate submitting the Request form, in writing, of the request being referred to the managing official.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A managing official who receives a Request form from the Commissioner shall process the Request form in accordance with provisions under §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Procedural Dismissal on Preliminary Review — Resubmission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Incomplete Request — Eligible for Resubmission.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A dismissal on preliminary review of a Request form may be resubmitted if the procedural dismissal on preliminary review is based on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An incomplete request form; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A requirement for more information than that provided on the Request form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a Request form from a managing official indicating the request is to be procedurally dismissed on preliminary review because of reasons under §A(1) of this regulation, the facility ARC, within 5 working days of the date of receipt of the request by the managing official, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign, date, and return the Request form to the inmate submitting the request including written notification of the procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide instructions for resubmitting the request that include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Completing a new Request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Complying with instructions provided; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Submitting the request to the facility ARC by the date specified in the notice;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide notice that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If the resubmission does not correct issues noted by the facility ARC, the procedural dismissal on preliminary review is final; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If the resubmission is not received by the date established by the facility ARC indicated in the notice provided under §A(2) of this regulation, the procedural dismissal on preliminary review is final.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate may appeal a dismissal in accordance with the procedures set forth in Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Procedural Dismissal on Preliminary Review — Ineligible for Resubmission.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A procedural dismissal on preliminary review of a Request form may not be resubmitted if the procedural dismissal on preliminary review is based on a finding by the facility ARC that the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmate complaint is frivolous or malicious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inmate complaint is not eligible for resolution under Regulation .04 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Except for provisions under §B(3) of this regulation, request was not submitted within established time requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Inmate complaint has previously been resolved outside the formal resolution process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Inmate complaint has previously been resolved through the formal resolution process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Inmate complaint is repetitive of a request previously filed by the inmate through the formal resolution process, and a response was issued as a result of the previous request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Request is in excess of an authorized limit on the number of requests the inmate may submit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Incident in the Request is determined by the facility ARC to be the basis of an investigation being conducted by the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a Request form from a managing official, indicating the request is to be procedurally dismissed on preliminary review for reasons under §B(1) of this regulation, the facility ARC, within 5 working days of the date of receipt of the request by the managing official, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign, date, and return the Request form to the inmate submitting the request including written notification of the procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include information as to the reason for the procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include a statement that the procedural dismissal on preliminary review is final; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Notify the inmate that the decision may be appealed to the Commissioner if the procedural dismissal is based on §B(1)(h) of this regulation and include in the notification the following statement:</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the managing official or the facility ARC receives a Request form after the permitted time frame for submitting a Request form, the managing official or facility ARC may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accept and process the Request form if the managing official or the facility ARC determines that the inmate has demonstrated that extraordinary circumstances prevented the inmate from submitting the Request form within the required time frame; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Procedurally dismiss the untimely Request form on preliminary review, with or without referring the untimely Request form to the appropriate facility for follow up independent of the ARP and notify the inmate that the decision may be appealed to the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a Request form is procedurally dismissed on preliminary review, the facility ARC, on the date the request is indexed, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Return the original and one copy of the request form to the inmate filing the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Place a copy in the ARP file maintained by the facility ARC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A procedural dismissal on preliminary review by a managing official, or a designee, may be appealed to the Commissioner according to Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Formal Resolution of an Inmate Complaint — Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a Request form is not procedurally dismissed under this chapter, a facility ARC:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On the date the Request form is indexed, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete and send the receipt portion of the Request form to the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review the request to determine the nature of the Request form in order to assign the investigation to the unit liaison familiar with the area or subject matter that is the basis of the Request form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not assign the request for investigation to an employee if that assignment is to an employee who is the subject of the complaint.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a Request form is received at the inmate’s current facility, but the complaint is based on an incident occurring at the inmate’s previous facility, the managing official, or facility ARC at the inmate’s:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Current facility shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Index the Request form at the current facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Forward the Request form to the managing official of the facility where the incident occurred; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Maintain a copy of the Request form at the inmate’s current facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Previous facility shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Respond to the Request form as though the Request form was originally received at that facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Complete all requirements of the ARP as established under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward a copy of the resulting ARP documentation to the current facility for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Notification to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Updating the index; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Filing in the current facility’s ARP file; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Maintain the original documentation in the current facility’s ARP files.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A unit liaison assigned to conduct an investigation of a Request form under this chapter is responsible for ensuring that the investigation is completed and may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Personally conduct the assigned investigation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Reassign the investigation to another employee in the unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An investigation of a Request form shall, absent good cause for not conducting an interview include an interview with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate filing the Request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A relevant witness named by the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A relevant employee, including a health care provider, involved in or able to provide relevant information related to the complaint and who, unless good cause exists, shall submit a written report of the information provided to the assigned investigator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If interviewing an inmate or multiple inmates involved in the complaint would pose a threat to safety or security at the facility, the interviews may not be required and the justification for not conducting the interview shall be included in the Administrative Remedy Procedure Case Summary form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>At the North Branch Correctional Institution, interviews of relevant inmates may be conducted using the facility intercom system to accommodate security requirements; however, personal interviews shall be conducted, absent good cause, if the intercom system is inoperable at the time of the interviews or if privacy concerns prevent use of the system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An investigation of a Request form shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In addition to interviews under §D of this regulation, include a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review of records, reports, policy and procedures, and other documents relevant to the inmate complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Finding of facts that chronologically identifies the events related to the inmate complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Recommendation and written justification determining the inmate complaint is considered:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Meritorious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Meritorious in part; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Dismissed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be completed within the period determined by the facility ARC;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Documented using an Administrative Remedy Procedure Case Summary form that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Information obtained from interviews and, if applicable, justification for not conducting a required interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Information obtained by reviewing documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Findings of fact; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A recommendation and justification for the recommendation as to the disposition of the case; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is submitted to the managing official or facility ARC assigning the case for investigation within the time frame established by the managing official or facility ARC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A managing official or facility ARC receiving a report and related documents under §G of this regulation shall review the report and related documents to ensure that the investigative actions and related documentation meet requirements of this chapter, and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the managing official’s or facility ARC’s review determines that the Administrative Remedy Procedure Case Summary is deficient or incomplete shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Return the documents to the investigator responsible for the investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide instruction as to correcting the identified deficiencies; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Establish a date for the investigator to return the documents with deficiencies resolved; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the managing official’s or facility ARC’s review determines the report and related documents are sufficient, shall prepare a response using the Administrative Remedy Request form, for the managing official’s signature or the Commissioner’s signature to the inmate submitting the Request form that is based on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The case summary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Attached documentation and reports; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The investigator’s recommendation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The response required under §H(2) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be provided to the inmate within 30 calendar days of the date the inmate filed a formal complaint using the ARP, unless an extension is authorized under §K of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In the first sentence of the response appropriately state that the complaint is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Meritorious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Meritorious in part; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Dismissed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Address each element and allegation of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Be easy to understand;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Clearly state the facts upon which the decision is based;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Provide an explanation of any remedy resulting from the findings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Notify the inmate that the decision may be appealed to the Commissioner; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Be forwarded to the managing official for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A managing official receiving documents under §H(3)(g) of this regulation shall review the information and if the action related to resolving the inmate complaint is determined:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Unsatisfactory, return the documents to the ARC with instructions directing additional action or information and resubmittal for review; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Satisfactory, sign and date the appropriate documents and return all documents to the ARC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>An ARC receiving:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An unsatisfactory finding under §I(1) of this regulation shall ensure steps are taken to address any deficiencies and return the document so that notification to the inmate filing the request is made within the established time frame; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A satisfactory finding under §I(2) of this regulation shall, within the established time frame, distribute:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The original and one copy of the completed Request form to the inmate filing the Request form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A copy of the Request form signed by the inmate and originals of related documents to the ARP file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Extension of 30 Calendar Day Processing Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If apparent that conditions beyond the correctional facility’s control exist, making 30 calendar days insufficient to complete processing a Request form, the managing official is permitted one extension of 15 days.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the managing official, or a designee, extends the time for responding to a Request form, the ARC, before expiration of the original 30 calendar day period, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete an Administrative Remedy Process Extension form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Forward the completed Administrative Remedy Process Extension form to the inmate filing the Request form whose approval of the extension is not required.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The ARC shall include the Administrative Remedy Process Extension form in the documents related to the Request form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>An inmate may appeal a decision made under this regulation in accordance with provisions under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Request for Formal Resolution of an Inmate Complaint — Remedy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an inmate complaint is meritorious or meritorious in part, the response by the managing official shall include a remedy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A remedy to resolve an inmate complaint may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to substance of policy, rule, or procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appropriate amendments that are communicated effectively and promptly to appropriate individuals; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instructions for implementing change;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to interpreting policy, rule, or procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Written explanation of the questioned policy, rule, or procedure that is communicated effectively and promptly to appropriate individuals; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instructions for implementing change;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to application of policy, rule, or procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Written direction to the appropriate employee to properly apply the policy, rule, or procedure correctly; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instructions for implementing change;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to individual inmate actions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Protection of the inmate who filed the Request form that may include reassignment of one or more of the inmates involved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Safeguards to prevent retaliation against the inmate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Remedy to make the inmate “whole” again, such as returning property;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to the computation of the term of confinement or diminution of confinement credits:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prompt re-computing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If appropriate, expedited processing of any privileges or change in status based on the new computation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to loss of inmate property within the custody and control of the unit:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Return or replacement of property of equal value at time of loss in accordance with standard practices for determining the value of depreciated property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Monetary reimbursement equal to value of property at time of loss; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the nature of the inmate complaint relates to living conditions and facilities, prompt improvement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the remedy includes monetary reimbursement for property:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An Inmate Property Reimbursement form shall be used to calculate the amount of reimbursement at the time of the loss.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except under provisions of §C(3) of this regulation, the ARC shall ensure that the inmate is presented with a completed Request for Inmate Personal Property Reimbursement form indicating the reimbursement value and if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accepts the value:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The inmate shall indicate acceptance on the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The inmate shall sign the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The managing official shall ensure that the agreed to monetary reimbursement is deposited in the inmate’s facility account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The ARC shall ensure that Request form documents are appropriately filed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>The matter is considered closed and finally resolved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refuses to accept the value:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The inmate’s refusal shall be indicated on the form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The inmate shall sign the form indicating refusal to accept the reimbursement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The form shall be filed in the appropriate ARP file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>No monetary reimbursement is to be deposited in the inmate’s facility account; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>The matter is considered to be closed at the applicable level of the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an inmate refuses settlement under §C(1)(b) of this regulation, before the managing official’s response to the inmate’s complaint, the managing official’s response shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>State that the Request form is meritorious in part;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>List the property that was lost or damaged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>State the amount of reimbursement offered to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>State that the inmate refused the reimbursement offered and that no monetary reimbursement is to be deposited in the inmate’s facility account; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Ensure that Request form documentation is filed in the appropriate ARP file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If appropriate, a managing official may include, as a remedy, a recommendation to change policy or procedures that relate to the nature of the inmate complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Facility staff shall fully comply with a remedy in the managing official’s response to an inmate complaint under this chapter as soon as possible, but no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the response.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An ARC receiving a response from the managing official containing a remedy shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify appropriate staff of the remedy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Monitor action taken to implement the remedy to ensure the remedy is fully implemented no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the response by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maintaining a separate chronological file of incomplete remedies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reviewing the file at least weekly to ensure implementation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Notifying the managing official issuing the response to an inmate complaint when the remedy is not fully implemented within the required period.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>After full implementation of a remedy, the ARC shall file the response according to procedures under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Appeal — Requesting."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate filing a request for formal resolution of an inmate complaint may appeal to the Commissioner:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A procedural dismissal on preliminary review of the Request form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The managing official’s failure to provide a response within established time requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A decision by the managing official contained in the response to the Request form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate filing an appeal under this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the request in writing in a format and on a form approved by the Commissioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include all of the following in the appeal:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the inmate filing the appeal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The name of the correctional facility housing the inmate filing the appeal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A statement describing the reason for the appeal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The original case number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The date the appeal is submitted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The signature of the inmate submitting the appeal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A copy of the original complaint with all supporting documentation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A copy of the procedural dismissal on preliminary review or managing official’s decision;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Include one of the following in the statement required under §B(2)(c) of this regulation as the grounds for the appeal:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The basis for disagreement with the Facility ARC’s decision or reason for procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The basis for disagreement with the Managing Official’s decision, remedy, or response; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A failure by Managing Official to respond within the established time frame;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Limit the basis of the appeal to the areas identified under §B(2)(c) of this regulation without introducing a new inmate complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C of this regulation, file the appeal with the Commissioner as indicated in the notice provided in accordance with Regulation .11 of this chapter so that the Headquarters ARC receives the appeal within 30 calendar days of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For an appeal of a procedural dismissal on preliminary review, the date the inmate received notice of the procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For an appeal of a managing official’s decision or remedy in a response to a Request form, the date the inmate received the response; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For an appeal of a Managing Official’s failure to respond within the established time frame, the date the managing official’s response was due to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the inmate demonstrates that extraordinary circumstances exist that prevented submitting an appeal within the established time frame, the Commissioner may accept a late filing of an appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When submitting an appeal under this section, the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is encouraged to submit the Request form to the Commissioner using the U.S. Postal Service.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May submit the Request form using the Department courier system knowing that the Department is not responsible if the appeal is not received within the time frame established for submitting an appeal under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Within 5 working days of the date the appeal is received by the Commissioner, the Headquarters ARC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Index the appeal according to the originally assigned case number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct a preliminary review of the appeal and determine to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accept and process the appeal within the established time frame; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Procedurally dismiss the appeal on preliminary review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Appeals — Preliminary Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Headquarters ARC shall conduct a preliminary review of an appeal submitted in accordance with this chapter following the applicable procedures established under Regulation .10 of this chapter for a preliminary review of a Request form received by a managing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the Headquarters ARC procedurally dismisses on preliminary review an appeal under §A of this regulation, the Headquarters ARC shall comply with applicable requirements established under Regulations .10 and .11 of this chapter for procedurally dismissing on preliminary review a Request form received by a managing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Headquarters ARC shall procedurally dismiss on preliminary review, without the opportunity for re-submission, a properly submitted appeal challenging a managing official’s procedural dismissal on preliminary review of a Request form if, after reviewing the managing official’s rationale, the Headquarters ARC agrees with the managing official’s decision.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Appeals — Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An appeal accepted by the Headquarters ARC shall be investigated.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for a Request form dismissed in accordance with Regulation .11 of this chapter, an investigation of an appeal under this chapter shall be limited to the issues identified in the initial Request form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>On the date the Headquarters ARC indexes the appeal, the Headquarters ARC shall process the appeal for investigation using appeal related forms and documents according to applicable requirements under Regulation .12 of this chapter for investigating a Request form received by a managing official.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The results of an investigation of an appeal shall be recorded and communicated using appeal related forms and documents according to applicable requirements under Regulation .12 of this chapter for recording, reporting and communicating results of an investigation of a Request form received by a managing official.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Appeals — Remedy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner, or a designee, shall respond in writing to an appeal within 30 calendar days of the date the inmate files the appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an appeal is found to be meritorious or meritorious in part, the response by the Commissioner shall include a remedy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A remedy for an appeal may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Actions identified under Regulation .13 of this chapter for a Request form received by a managing official; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Other action consistent with the purpose of the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Monitoring implementation of a remedy, required notification, and filing resulting from an appeal under this chapter are performed using appeal-related forms and documents according to applicable requirements under Regulation .13 of this chapter for remedies for a Request form received by a managing official.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Appeals — Inmate Grievance Office."> <text>An inmate may seek review by the Inmate Grievance Office according to procedures under COMAR 12.07.01 of a decision by the Commissioner or the failure of the Commissioner to file a response to an appeal within the time frame established under §A of Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Documentation — Filing — Reports."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Case Indexing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Headquarters ARC and each facility ARC shall maintain an index of Request forms and, at Headquarters, appeals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commissioner shall determine the format and content of the index.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Headquarters ARC and each facility ARC shall establish a new index for each calendar month to record information concerning Request forms received at either level and appeals received by Headquarters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Headquarters ARC and a facility ARC shall index each Request form received at either level and an appeal received by Headquarters within 5 working days of the date recorded on the Request form or appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The index shall record for each case:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the inmate filing the request and the inmate’s identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The case number that consists of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The correctional facility’s acronym in upper case followed by a dash;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A four digit sequential number beginning with 0001 on January 1st of each calendar year followed by a dash; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The last 2 digits representing the calendar year;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The date that the case is indexed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If appropriate, information concerning procedural dismissal on preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If appropriate the date a re-submission or non-concurrence decision is indexed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The most appropriate subject codes indicating the nature of the complaint (only 2 codes may be used);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If the case is accepted for processing, an abstract of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The date the managing official or Commissioner:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Signed the response to the inmate complaint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Procedurally dismissed the complaint;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The date the inmate signed the response indicating receipt of the response from the managing official;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>The final disposition of the inmate complaint; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Other information related to the case, such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A brief description of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Justification for a procedural dismissal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The date a resubmittal is due.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Headquarters ARC and a facility ARC shall update the index at the time new information is received concerning a case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A facility ARC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>By the tenth working day of each month, forward a copy of the index for the previous month to the Headquarters ARC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>When dispositions have been recorded for all cases on a monthly index, forward a copy of the completed index to the Headquarters ARC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Filing — Case Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each facility ARC and the Headquarters ARC shall establish and maintain a system for filing documents related to requests for formal resolution of an inmate complaint and related appeals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A facility ARC and the Headquarters ARC shall maintain documents related to an ARP case and related appeals for a minimum of 5 years from the date of a final disposition of the case and then dispose of the documents in accordance with the applicable document retention schedule.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Program Reports.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An ARC shall complete reports in a format and on forms approved by the Commissioner containing data that may be used to analyze the ARP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Quarterly, during each calendar year, each facility ARC shall forward to the Headquarters ARC a copy of reports required by the Commissioner related to the ARP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Audits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner, or a designee, shall establish:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A system to audit the ARP at each correctional facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A schedule for audits authorized under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An audit team consists of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Headquarters ARC, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At least one facility ARC selected by the Headquarters ARC from a correctional facility other than the correctional facility subject to the current audit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An audit, at a minimum, consists of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An entrance interview with the managing official of the correctional facility being audited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Explain the purpose of the audit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide an overview of the audit process;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Examining:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Required files and documents related to the correctional facility’s use of the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Documents related to investigations of inmate complaints under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Actions taken related to implementing remedies resulting from meritorious or meritorious-in-part inmate complaints;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conducting interviews with inmates and staff to assess the effectiveness of the ARP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Interviews with correctional facility staff to determine necessary amendments to the ARP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An exit interview with the managing official to provide an overview of findings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Audit Report.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 30 calendar days of the date an audit is completed, the Headquarters ARC shall prepare and submit to the Commissioner, or a designee, and to the respective managing official a written report summarizing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The results of the audit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If appropriate, compliance issues that need to be addressed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 30 calendar days of the date a managing official receives an audit report from the Headquarters ARC, the managing official shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Acknowledge receipt of the report; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If appropriate, provide a plan of action to correct compliance issues identified by the audit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If appropriate, the Headquarters ARC shall monitor a managing official’s progress to correct noted compliance issues.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A correctional facility may be subject to a non-scheduled audit or follow-up audit to determine progress on corrective action specified in a managing official’s plan of action to correct compliance issues identified in an audit report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109, 3-205, 3-209, and 3-211, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 12, 2018 (45:5 Md. R. 286)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="29" heading="Inmates Convicted as Adults While Younger than 18 Years Old"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This regulation applies solely to an inmate convicted of a crime that the inmate committed while younger than 18 years old and for which the inmate was sentenced to life imprisonment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This regulation supersedes any conflicting regulation or policy.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Case manager” means the case management specialist assigned to an inmate during the case management process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Inmate” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Inmate case record” means documentation assembled, maintained, and used under Correctional Services Article, §3-601, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Juvenile lifer” means an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Outside detail” means a work assignment at a location other than the facility where an inmate is housed, and during which the inmate is under the direct supervision of a correctional officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Programming” means the process of placing an inmate in programs that address the inmate’s risks and needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Release.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Release” means any type of discharge from custody of the Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Release” includes administrative release, parole, court ordered release, mandatory supervision release, expiration of sentence, work release, and community leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Release” does not include an escape.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Release date” means the date a juvenile lifer may be released from incarceration if the juvenile lifer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has been conditionally approved for parole by the Governor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is entitled to release on mandatory supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Security” means a correctional facility’s physical features which help control inmate behavior and prevent escape.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Classification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Initial Security Classification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon intake of a juvenile lifer to a Division correctional facility and in accordance with the procedures established in COMAR 12.02.24, a case manager shall use the Division’s initial security classification instrument to conduct an individualized assessment of the juvenile lifer to determine an appropriate security level as defined in COMAR 12.02.08.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A Division case manager shall assign the juvenile lifer to the least restrictive security level consistent with the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Outcome of the security classification instrument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Identified risk and needs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Public safety; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Safe and orderly operation of the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>After a juvenile lifer’s initial classification, eligibility for a less restrictive security level that includes participation in an outside detail, a work release program, or specific programs shall be determined during the juvenile lifer’s annual classification status review in accordance with the Case Management Manual and other applicable directives and regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Security Reclassification and Status Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Division employee shall use the Division’s security reclassification instrument to conduct an individualized assessment of the juvenile lifer to determine an appropriate security level as defined in COMAR 12.02.08.02:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Annually in accordance with the Case Management Manual and other applicable directives and regulations; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon the Maryland Parole Commission’s request following a hearing conducted in accordance with the provisions established in COMAR 12.08.01 to improve a juvenile lifer’s suitability for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A juvenile lifer, regardless of whether the juvenile lifer has a release date, shall be eligible for reclassification to a security level below medium security, if approved by the Commissioner, or a designee of the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A Division employee shall presume that a juvenile lifer is permitted to be assigned to the least restrictive security level, if the juvenile lifer’s score on the security reclassification instrument indicates eligibility for a less restrictive security level than the juvenile lifer’s current classification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A Division employee may not apply the mandatory override in the security classification instrument that precludes a juvenile lifer from assignment to a security level below medium security.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Any override of the security classification instrument requires the Division employee to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the reason for the override in the inmate’s case record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the juvenile lifer with a written explanation of the reason for the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the Commissioner, or the Commissioner’s designee, denies a juvenile lifer assignment to a security level below medium security, the Commissioner, or the Commissioner’s designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the reason for the denial in the inmate’s case record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the juvenile lifer with a written explanation of the reason for the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>In order to improve a juvenile lifer’s suitability for parole, a case manager, the warden, and the Commissioner shall give significant weight to the requests or recommendations of the Maryland Parole Commission that a juvenile lifer be permitted to be assigned to a less restrictive security level or participate in specified inmate programming.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A juvenile lifer may not lose a privilege, job, or housing assignment in order to undergo a risk assessment or security status review as requested by the Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Program Eligibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Juvenile Lifer with a Release Date.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A juvenile lifer who has a release date shall be eligible for an outside detail or the work release program, if approved by the Commissioner, or the Commissioner’s designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Commissioner, or the Commissioner’s designee, denies a juvenile lifer’s participation in an outside detail or the work release program, the Commissioner, or the Commissioner’s designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the reason for the denial in the inmate’s case record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the juvenile lifer with a written explanation of the reason for the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Juvenile Lifer Without a Release Date.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If warranted by exceptional circumstances, a juvenile lifer who does not have a release date shall be eligible for an outside detail if recommended by the Commissioner of Correction, or a designee of the Commissioner, and approved by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Secretary denies an outside detail for a juvenile lifer, the Secretary or the Secretary’s designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the reason for the denial in the inmate’s case record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the juvenile lifer with a written explanation of the reason for the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 3-205, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 20, 2021 (48:19 Md. R. 802)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="03" heading="Operations"> <chapter num="01" heading="Inmate Disciplinary Process"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Secretary), the Commissioner of Correction, the Director of Patuxent Institution, and the Commissioner of Pretrial Detention and Services have adopted the following inmate disciplinary regulations that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Establish:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The process under which an inmate may be disciplined for non-compliance with a rule, policy, procedure, regulation, or statute or as otherwise provided by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The duties and responsibilities of Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) staff under the inmate disciplinary process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The authority for Department staff to exercise and carry out duties and responsibilities of the inmate disciplinary process; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide for the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Uniform administration, management, and orderly operation of the facility and Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Orderly, safe, and secure operation and management by Department staff of Department correctional facilities, detention facilities, home detention program, and the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Uniform administration of inmate discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Management and control of the Department’s inmate population;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Enforcement of statutes or rules as otherwise provided by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Security of the facility, Department, and community; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Safety of an inmate, staff, an individual, and the community.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations do not convey or create enforceable rights, interests or benefits for an inmate.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Assault” means an unlawful or impermissible threat or attempt to do bodily harm to another.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Assigned area” means a location where an inmate is authorized or permitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Battery” means the unlawful, unauthorized, or impermissible touching or striking of an individual by another with or without consent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Business Day.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Business day” means an official working day of the week, typically, the days between and including Monday to Friday.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Business day” does not include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>State holidays;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Weekends (Saturday and Sunday);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A day on which facility operations or activities are limited or reduced to only necessary or essential services due to security or safety reasons; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A day on which Department administrative offices are closed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Calendar day” means a day of a week.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Category of Inmate Rule Violation” means the grouping of inmate rule violations according to the severity of the offense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“CMHC-J” means the Correctional Mental Health Center-Jessup.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Competent” means the defendant is able to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appreciate and understand the alleged inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Participate in the inmate disciplinary process to resolve the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Constructive possession” means the defendant has dominion or control over an article, object, asset, substance or property based upon consideration of the following factors:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The proximity of the defendant to the article, object, asset, substance, or property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The ability and means of the defendant to possess the article, object, asset, substance, or property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Whether the article, object, asset, substance, or property was within the plain view or within the knowledge of the defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The proprietary interest in the place where the article, object, asset, substance, or property was found or rests; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The defendant’s participation with others in a common design involving mutual use and enjoyment of the article, object, asset, substance, or property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Contraband” includes property, a device, an instrument, an article, a liquid, a substance, or a material that is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Defined as non-allowable, or is not authorized by statute, regulation, directive, or policy for an inmate to possess, transfer to another individual, or receive from another individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Defined as allowable by statute, regulation, directive, and policy for an inmate to possess, transfer to another individual, or receive from another individual, but that is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Passed or transferred to another individual without authorization by staff, or the transfer is not permitted by the rules of the facility or Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Possessed in an area or location where an inmate is not permitted by the rules of the facility or Department or by order of staff to possess or use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Altered or modified from the original purpose, form, design, use, or content;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Used for a purpose other than that which is permitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Required to be registered with the facility or Department and is found in the inmate’s possession without the required registration under the rules of the facility or Department.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance (CDS)” means a substance listed in schedules I through V as defined in Criminal Law Article, §§5-101(g) and 5-401 — 5-406, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Cumulative witness” means an individual who can only testify to facts already in evidence or whose proffered testimony would be repetitive to the proffered testimony of another witness already approved by the hearing officer to testify.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Disrespect” means a physical act, verbal statement, or gesture:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Of insolence that is arrogant, presumptuous, impudent, or insulting in manner; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That demonstrates a lack of respect, directly or indirectly, toward an individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Disruptive Act.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Disruptive act” means an action that may:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Disturb the peace of the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Interfere with or prevent the orderly operation of a facility or community detail; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Interfere with or threaten the security of a facility or the community.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Disruptive act” includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An unauthorized gathering;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A demonstration or mass disturbance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A group work stoppage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Misusing, altering, tampering with, or damaging property during an act that interferes with or threatens the security of a facility or the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Setting a fire; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Possessing, using, or manufacturing an explosive or flammable device, excluding an unaltered cigarette lighter, match, or pack of matches.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Escape” means the defendant’s:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Unlawful or unauthorized absence or departure from a facility or grounds of a facility to which the inmate is assigned or located;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Unlawful or unauthorized absence or departure from a locked cell or dormitory to which the inmate is assigned or located;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Unlawful or unauthorized absence or departure from a designated area or location while out of the facility and in the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Unlawful or unauthorized failure to follow an approved itinerary for travel or movement while in the community or departure from an order, rule, policy, or procedure of the Department or facility for travel or movement while in the community; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Failure while in the community to return at a specified time to a place of assignment, custody, or confinement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Facility representative” means staff designated by the managing official, or a designee, to represent the interests of the facility under the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Fraud or misrepresentation” means a false, misleading, or deceptive:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Act;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Statement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Expression; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Omission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Hearing officer” means an impartial, non-advocate, fact-finder who presides over the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and determines the disposition of an inmate rule violation charged and, if applicable, imposes sanctions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>Horseplay.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Horseplay” means rough, rowdy, or boisterous play that is consensual and done for amusement or entertainment of all involved parties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Horseplay” may not be used by a defendant as a defense to a battery charge where there is evidence of physical contact between the defendant and one or more individuals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Hostage” means an individual whose freedom of movement is restricted without authority or justification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Immediate family” as used in this chapter means an inmate’s legal spouse, natural grandparents, parents, legal guardian, siblings, children, grandchildren, and persons who have these relationships through adoption.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Indecent exposure” means the willful display of the genitals, buttocks, or female breast to another individual as an act of abuse, disrespect, vulgarity, harassment, humiliation, or sexual gratification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Incident report” means a disposition of an inmate rule violation charged where the defendant and the facility or the defendant and the hearing officer agree that the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Waives a hearing and hearing rights for the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Receives no sanction for the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Agrees that the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation and the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing forms documenting the incident report shall be maintained in the defendant’s case record file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>Informal Disposition or Resolution.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Informal disposition or resolution” means a process, other than a formal disciplinary proceeding under the inmate disciplinary process, that permits, based on a mutual agreement between the defendant and facility staff, or the defendant and the hearing officer, resolving an inmate rule violation charged through an incident report or informal disposition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Informal disposition or resolution” includes a disposition of an inmate rule violation charged where the defendant and the facility or the defendant and the hearing officer agree that the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Waives a hearing and hearing rights for the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Receives a sanction in accordance with this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agrees that the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation and the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing forms documenting the informal disposition shall be maintained in the defendant’s case record file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual who is actually or constructively detained or confined in a correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inmate”, unless specifically stated otherwise in this chapter, includes an individual referred to as a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Non-sentenced resident or detainee in the custody of the Department and confined to a correctional, detention, or transitional facility or home detention program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Sentenced inmate or detainee in the custody of the Department and confined to a correctional, detention, or home detention facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>An Eligible Person or Patuxent youth, or any other individual in the custody of the Department and housed in the Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A juvenile housed in the custody of the Department and confined to a correctional, detention, or home detention facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>An individual committed to the custody of the Department, but housed in or confined in another jurisdiction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Inmate representative” means a staff member or an inmate assigned to the defendant’s housing facility and permitted to represent and assist the defendant during the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>Intimidating, Coercive, or Threatening Language.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Intimidating, coercive, or threatening language” includes language that is directed toward an individual or property named or un-named that intends to induce fear, or implies or intends to imply harm, the threat of harm, or the use of force.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Intimidating, coercive, or threatening language.” A defendant may not claim the inability to carry out the implied or perceived harm, threat of harm, or use of force as a defense to a charge of using intimidating, coercive, or threatening language under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Intimidating, coercive, or threatening language” includes, but is not limited to, language that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Seeks compliance with a demand; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Intends to deter or prevent an individual from performing or carrying out an act, task, or action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>“Intimidating, coercive, or threatening language” may be expressed or conveyed:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Verbally;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>By gesture;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>By drawing; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>By display or projection of an image.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Intoxicant” means an unauthorized medication, drug, or substance that has psychotropic or hallucinogenic properties, excluding alcohol, that may or may not also be identified in the Annotated Code of Maryland as a controlled dangerous substance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Masturbation” as used in this chapter means intentional touching of the individual’s or another inmate’s genital, anal, breast, or other intimate area for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sexual arousal or gratification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The abuse, intimidation, humiliation, or harassment of staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“May not” means an absolute prohibition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Order” means a command, direction, or instruction given by staff to an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>Plea Agreement.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Plea agreement” means the defendant and facility representative agree to a mutually satisfactory disposition for each defendant inmate rule violation charged that is subject to approval by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Plea agreement” is not binding on a hearing officer and does not require that the hearing officer honor the sanctions recommended as part of a plea agreement reached by the defendant and the facility representative.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Possess” or “possession” means actual or constructive dominion or control over:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An article;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An object;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An asset;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A substance; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Preliminary review” means an initial appearance by a defendant during a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding before a hearing officer to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review an attachment or other evidence submitted by facility staff or a defendant regarding the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Determine if the defendant requested representation, a witness, or evidence to present to the hearing officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Determine whether the defendant and the facility are prepared to proceed to the evidentiary phase of the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Restitution” means payment by a defendant for the documented expense or cost to the State, an individual, or entity associated with:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An inmate rule violation charged resulting in a finding of guilt or informal disposition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An illegal, unauthorized, or unreasonable expense incurred due to the act or actions of the defendant; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The repair or replacement of altered, damaged, destroyed, stolen, or missing property, tools, or equipment incurred due to the act or actions of the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(36)"> <text>“Sanitation assignment” means a sanction pursuant to a guilty finding or informal disposition of an inmate rule violation charged where the defendant is assigned to a cleaning task determined by staff for which diminution credits and pay are not authorized.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(37)"> <text>Security Equipment or Property.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Security equipment or property” includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Facility, dormitory, or cell housing fixture, device, or item that is for the purpose of inmate control, confinement, observation, or restraint or the security of the facility, Department, or community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Bed or bunk bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Desk or chair;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Staff uniform;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Light fixture;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Restraint or confinement fixture, device, or item;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Computer or communication fixture, device, or item;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>State telecommunication device not intended for inmate use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Animal used for the operation, security, safety, or control of a location;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Vehicle or mode of transportation used for the operation, security, safety, or control of a location or the transport of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Fixture, component, device, document or form, or item used for the confinement or restraint of an inmate or security and control of an inmate or the operation, security, safety, or control of a location; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>Tool, component system, item, or furniture used for the operation, security, safety, control, or maintenance of a location.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Security equipment or property” excludes the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Mattresses, pillows, and bed linen;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Clothing articles;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Toilet or sink;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Mirror;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Towel or wash cloth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Locker, drawer, or box;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Clothes hanger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Rug or homemade rug.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(38)"> <text>“Sexual Act” means the actions of two or more individuals engaged in acts involving physical contact for purposes of sexual arousal or gratification and includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Contact between the penis and the vulva or the penis and the anus;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Contact between the mouth and the penis, vulva, or anus;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Penetration of the anal or genital opening of another person, however slight, by a hand, finger, object, or other instrument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Any other intentional touching, either directly on or through the clothing, of or with the genitalia, anus, groin, breast, inner thigh, or the buttocks of another person, excluding contact incidental to a physical altercation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A sexual crime identified under Criminal Law Article, §§3-301 — 312, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Kissing, hugging, or other physical contact for sexual arousal or gratification or the abuse of either party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(39)"> <text>“Sexual conduct” means a non-physical behavior or act of a sexual nature by an inmate directed toward another individual and includes but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sexual advances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Requests for sexual favors; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Verbal comments, gestures, or actions of a derogatory and offensive sexual nature.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(40)"> <text>“Special needs inmate” means a defendant whose ability to participate in the inmate disciplinary process is compromised by impaired hearing, speech, cognition, mental health, or proficiency in the spoken or written English language.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(41)"> <text>Staff.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Staff” means a permanent, contractual, or temporary employee or other individual under contract or agreement to provide goods or services to the Department or a unit, facility, or inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Staff” does not include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A volunteer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An intern.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(42)"> <text>State Property.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“State property” means tangible property owned by the Department or another State agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>State property includes, but is not limited to, items intended for inmate use such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Inmate uniforms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A desk or chair;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A sink or toilet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A locker, drawer, or box;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Inmate telephone, teletypewriter (TTY) device, or other telecommunication device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Food from dietary other than what is issued as part of a State provided meal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Food from dietary that is removed from or attempted to be removed from dietary without authorization even if issued as part of a State provided meal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(43)"> <text>“Telecommunication device” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A device that may be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>3G, 4G, or greater or less enabled;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Wifi, internet, or email ready; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Enabled to transmit telephonic, electrical, digital, cellular, radio communications, or photographs regardless of whether functional or non-functional;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An accessory or part of a device that may be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>3G, 4G, or greater or less enabled;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Wifi, internet, or email ready; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Able to transmit telephonic, electrical, digital, cellular, or radio communications or photograph regardless of whether functional or non-functional; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An item including, but not limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Tablet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Cellular or digital telephone;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Video, audio, or photographic device; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Modem equipped device; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A component of or an accessory for the items such as but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>SIM card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Bluetooth equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Charger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Earpiece; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Carrying case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(44)"> <text>Unauthorized Financial Account.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Unauthorized financial account” means a financial account that is not permitted by the Department for an inmate to open, access, or otherwise use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Unauthorized Financial Account” includes, but is not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Check or checking account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Check card or check card account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Credit card or credit card account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Green Dot card or Green Dot account numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Western Union card or Western Union account numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Pay Pal card or Pay Pal account numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Debit card or Debit card account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Money order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Gift card or gift card account numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Other financial account not authorized or listed under this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Items and documentation related to an unauthorized financial account.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Unauthorized financial account” does not include an active or reserve account permitted and maintained under Correctional Services Article, §3-609, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(45)"> <text>Weapon.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Weapon” means an instrument, item, article, substance, liquid, tool, or material that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>May be used for offensive or defensive combat;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>May be used to threaten, harm, or injure an individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>May be used for a purpose or reason other than as a weapon, but that could be used as a weapon regardless of whether or not the original character of the instrument, item, article, substance, liquid, tool, or material was altered.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Weapon” includes an instrument, item, article, substance, liquid, tool, or material that otherwise meets the definition of weapon that an inmate is permitted to possess in an explicitly designated area, but is possessed in an area other than where the instrument, item, article, substance, liquid, tool, or material is not explicitly authorized by staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Inmate Compliance Requirements, and Time and Procedure Requirements — General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate Compliance Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate shall comply with a rule, policy, procedure, regulation, or statute or other provision of law that may have been enabled by or for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The facility to which the inmate is assigned;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An authority where the inmate may be located, in the custody of, assigned to, or housed when outside the facility, in the community, or a location other than in the Department; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The program to which the inmate may be assigned or is voluntarily participating.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate compliance under §A(1) of this regulation or non-compliance under §B of this regulation shall be applicable to the inmate at all times in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A Program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A location or custody and supervision of another entity, agency, or jurisdiction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inmate Non-Compliance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate found not to be in compliance, as required under §A(1) and (2) of this regulation, or suspected of, or alleged by staff as having committed an inmate rule violation under Regulation .04 of this chapter shall be subject to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate disciplinary process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A sanction in accordance with this chapter when found guilty of the inmate rule violation charged or as part of an informal disposition of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The act of soliciting, conspiring to commit or attempting to commit an inmate rule violation, or aiding, assisting, or facilitating the commission of an inmate rule violation, whether under Regulation .04 of this chapter or stated as a facility inmate rule violation, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Constitute the commission of that inmate rule violation by the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Subject the defendant to the prescribed sanctions for that inmate rule violation charged in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Time and procedure requirements in this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Establish a standard for staff that provides for the administration and management of inmate discipline in a correctional or detention facility, the home detention program, or in the community under the authority of the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Neither create nor convey an enforceable inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Right;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Entitlement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Benefit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Interest.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate’s disciplinary conviction under the inmate disciplinary process may not be affected or disturbed by the denial, non-compliance with, delay, or failure by staff to carry out, provide for, or meet a time or procedural requirement in this regulation and the inmate rule violation or violation charged may not be dismissed unless the defendant can demonstrate that the violation of the time or procedure requirement:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Was not based on good cause; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Substantially harmed the defendant’s ability to make a relevant case presentation regarding the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Time or Procedure Violation.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A defendant’s allegation of harm due to a time or procedure violation not specifically related to the defendant’s ability to make a case presentation may not be cause for a dismissal or a not guilty finding of the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Examples of harm that may not affect a disciplinary conviction include, but are not limited to, issues relating to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Time spent on administrative segregation pending a disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Removal from or missed time from a work or program assignment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Reduced facility privileges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Security level determinations, transfers, or other case management decisions; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Parole decisions or consideration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Contraband may be charged as a single inmate rule violation or in conjunction with other inmate rule violations that may include, but are not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An unauthorized substance, drug, intoxicant, alcohol, or control dangerous substance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A telecommunication device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A security item;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Tobacco; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Currency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate may be charged with and found guilty of multiple inmate rule violations for the same reported conduct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Battery.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A charge of “battery” under Regulation .04C(3) of this chapter may not be automatically excused by a claim of “self-defense”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A hearing officer may permit a claim of “self-defense” to be considered in the disposition of a charge of battery or the administration of sanctions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate is not entitled to a claim of “self-defense” and a hearing officer is not required to accept a claim of “self-defense”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An inmate is required to retreat from a threat if at all possible or a claim of self-defense may not be raised.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A charge of “Refuse” to accept work or housing under Regulation .04 §G(2) may not be excused by the defendant’s unsubstantiated claim of a perceived danger or threat of harm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Consent — Sexual Act and Sexual Conduct.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A defense of consent to a charge of a sexual act or sexual conduct may only be considered in an act between a defendant and a Department staff member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the hearing officer finds that the involved staff member did consent to the sexual act or sexual conduct, the defendant may not be found guilty of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the hearing officer finds that the defendant engaged in a sexual act or sexual conduct with the staff member without the staff member’s consent, a finding of guilt may be entered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A defense of consent may not be considered when the sexual act or sexual conduct occurs between inmates or inmates and non-Departmental staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Inmate Rule Violation Summary."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate Rule Violation. — The Department has adopted an inmate rule violation summary to ensure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff and inmate knowledge of conduct prohibited by the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate compliance as required by Regulation .03 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Category of Inmate Rule Violation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For the purpose of organizing inmate rule violations under this regulation and to facilitate understanding by staff and inmates, the Department has established categories of inmate rule violations based on the severity of the offense associated with an inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The categories of inmate rule violations are:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category IA — most severe inmate rule violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Category IB;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Category II;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Category III;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Category IV; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Category V — least severe inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Category IA Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>100 — Participate in a disruptive act;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>101 — Commit assault or battery on staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>102 — Commit assault or battery on an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>103 — Commit assault or battery on a person who is neither staff nor an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>104 — Make threats that include the use of physical harm to objects, property, or individuals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>105 — Possess, use, or manufacture a weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>106 — Escape when assigned maximum or medium security status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>107 — Escape when assigned minimum security status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>110 — Possess an implement or article that may be used in an escape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>116 — Possess, misuse, tamper with, damage, or destroy security devices, equipment, property, detection or monitoring equipment, or fire suppression or alarm devices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>117 — In any manner, arrange, commit, perform, or engage in a sex act or sexual conduct;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>119 — In any manner, commit, conspire to commit, or participate in an act of masturbation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>122 — Possess a telecommunication device, SIM card, battery charger, carrying case, or other device or article identified with a telecommunication device; or willfully pose for the taking of an unauthorized photograph or video recording or make an unauthorized audio recording;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>124 — Be involved with or participate in willful or negligent homicide; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>125 — Be involved with or participate in the taking of a hostage;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Category IB Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>108 — Escape when assigned pre-release security status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>109 — Escape while in the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>111 — Possess a drug, controlled dangerous substance, or medication requiring staff observation to ingest, or an intoxicant excluding alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>112 — Use a controlled dangerous substance, use a medication requiring staff observation to ingest when not prescribed, or use an intoxicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>113 — Vacant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>114 — Possess a drug, controlled dangerous substance, or medication requiring staff observation to ingest, or an intoxicant, excluding alcohol, in a sufficient quantity, or possess packaging materials, suggesting distribution of or the intent to distribute;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>115:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Refuse or fail to provide a required volume of urine necessary for urinalysis testing; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide a diluted or an adulterated urine specimen for urinalysis testing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>118:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make application for, obtain, or possess articles or materials for an unauthorized financial account; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Use an unauthorized financial account;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>121 — Possess tobacco in sufficient quantity or the materials necessary for packaging tobacco, or other related products that suggests an intent to distribute, or distribution of tobacco;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>123 — Possess currency in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A facility where currency is not permitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An amount that is $50 or greater in excess of the amount the inmate is permitted to possess;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>126 — Knowingly provide false reports, claims, accusations or information related to the Prison Rape Elimination Act (PREA) or use the PREA Hotline other than for the intended purpose.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Category II Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>200:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Refuse testing or assessment for the mandatory education program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refuse assignment to or refuse to participate in the mandatory education program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Engage in behavior that causes removal from the mandatory education program;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>201:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Refuse testing or assessment for a program designated as a mandatory remediation program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refuse assignment to or refuse to participate in a program designated as a mandatory remediation program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Engage in behavior that causes removal from a program designated as a mandatory remediation program;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>202 — Refuse:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To participate in or submit to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sampling collection; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To be fingerprinted as required by statute, law, or the Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>203 — Disobey a specifically cited facility Category II rule not listed in this regulation as an inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Category III Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>300:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Administer a tattoo;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Receive a tattoo; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Possess tattoo equipment, materials, or paraphernalia;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>301 — Possess or use alcohol without authorization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>302 — Possess equipment, materials, or paraphernalia that may be used in the manufacture of alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>303 — Refuse to submit to alcohol detection testing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>304 — Possess, use, hoard, or accumulate medication without authorization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>305 — Participate in an act that is in violation of a law, statute, ordinance, or provision of law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>306:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Gamble; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Possess gambling paraphernalia;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>307 — Participate in an act of extortion, bribery, or coercion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>308:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Steal State property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Possess stolen State property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Possess State property without permission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Tamper with, damage, or destroy State property;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>309:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Steal the property of an individual or entity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Possess stolen property of an individual or entity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Possess property of an individual or entity without permission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Alter, tamper with, damage, or destroy property of another individual or entity;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>310 — Participate in an act not included as an inmate rule violation under this regulation that is in violation of a rule, policy, directive, or regulation of a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Department program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Facility program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Community program;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>311 — Possess currency in an amount that is $20 or more in excess of the amount the inmate is permitted, but less than $50 in excess of the amount the inmate is permitted to possess;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>312:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Interfere with or resist a search of a person, item, area, or location;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cause the early return of a community detail due to a violation of the rules;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Commit any inmate rule violation outside of the confinement of a secure facility;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>313 — Disobey a specifically cited home detention or work release rule not listed in this regulation as an inmate rule violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>314 — In any manner, commit, conspire to commit, or participate in an act of indecent exposure;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>315 — Possess or pass contraband; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>316 — Disobey an order.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Category IV Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>400 — Vacant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>401 — Vacant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>402:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Enter or be in a location without authorization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Leave an assigned location without authorization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Be absent from or late reporting to an assigned location without authorization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Loiter or linger in a location without authorization; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Refuse or fail to obey or follow an order, rule, policy, or procedure regarding inmate movement or travel within or outside of the facility;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>403:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide false information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Alter, misrepresent, or forge a document; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Possess an altered, misrepresented, or forged document;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>404 — Possess currency in an amount that is less than $20 in access of the amount the inmate is permitted to possess;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>405 — Vacant:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>406 — Vacant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>407 — Participate in or operate an unauthorized business, personal service, or enterprise;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>408 — Vacant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>409:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make an unauthorized telephone call;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make or participate in a three way telephone call;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Use a telephone for an unauthorized or illegal purpose;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>410 — Demonstrate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disrespect;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Insolence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Use of vulgar language; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>411 — Possess tobacco in a limited quantity that may suggest personal use when there is no other evidence to suggest intent to distribute or distribution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Category V Inmate Rule Violations. An inmate may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>500 — Fail to possess or properly display a required inmate identification badge or card when directed by staff or required by facility rule;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>501 — Participate in reckless behavior or horseplay;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>502 — Fail to maintain:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Personal cleanliness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The cleanliness of the facility or assigned housing area; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The cleanliness of a location other than in the facility; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>503 — Disobey a specifically cited facility Category V rule not listed in this regulation as an inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Phase — Investigating and Reporting an Inmate Rule Violation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Investigation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff shall initiate an investigation when there is cause to believe that an inmate is non-compliant and has committed an inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>As part of the investigation, staff shall attempt to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine the facts and circumstances of the event;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Identify the inmate’s alleged conduct and inmate rule violation committed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Identify a witness who may have factual knowledge of the reported event and alleged inmate rule violation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Identify, secure, and preserve evidence regarding the reported event and the alleged inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An investigation under this regulation may include, but not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A verbal or written event report to the shift supervisor or commander; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An investigation that requires a period of time to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Interview a witness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Gather evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Determine the facts of the event as to what occurred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Identify individuals involved; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Select the possible inmate rule violation or violations under Regulation .04 of this chapter to be charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Reporting an Inmate Rule Violation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon completion of the investigation under §A of this regulation, when staff determines that an inmate allegedly violated an inmate rule or rules under this chapter, staff shall use a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form to report the inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an inmate is alleged to commit an inmate rule violation, the reporting staff shall, within 1 calendar day of the completion of the required investigation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete the reported facts section of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Forward the completed Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form to the shift supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Shift Supervisor Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form, the shift supervisor, shall review:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Administrative reports submitted in connection with the event; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Attachments or other evidence that may have been submitted by staff regarding the inmate’s alleged inmate rule violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>After conducting the review, the shift supervisor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Return the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form to reporting staff if the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form is defective or in error and requires correction, addition, or deletion requiring staff to provide the shift supervisor with the corrected Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Determine the inmate rule or rules with which the defendant is to be charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Make a recommendation to the shift commander that the defendant be housed in administrative segregation pending the outcome of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, if the shift supervisor believes that the conduct alleged in the reported event or the defendant’s disciplinary history constitutes a threat to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Security of the facility, Department, or community; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Record the inmate rule violation or violations charged in the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If the defendant is charged with a Category IA, IB, or II inmate rule violation, refer the case to a hearing officer for a formal disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If the defendant is charged with only a Category III, IV, or V violation, refer the case to a hearing officer for a disciplinary proceeding, or offer the defendant an informal resolution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the shift supervisor recommends placing the defendant in administrative segregation under §C(2)(c) of this regulation, forward the completed Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form to the shift commander for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Shift Commander Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a recommendation in accordance with §C(3) of this regulation, the shift commander shall review the recommendation and determine if there is cause to believe the defendant is or is not a threat to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Security of the facility, Department, or community; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the shift commander finds there is cause to believe there is a security or safety threat posed by the defendant’s reported conduct, inmate rule violation charged, or the defendant’s disciplinary history, the shift commander shall approve placing the defendant on administrative segregation housing status and indicate the approval on the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Additionally, the shift commander may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Exercise the same options authorized for a shift supervisor under §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Completion of Review. — The shift supervisor’s review required under §C of this regulation and, if required, a shift commander’s review under §D of this regulation shall be completed within 1 calendar day of the date that the last draft of the reported facts section was accepted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Redrafting Notice of Inmate Rule Violation Form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing Form.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A shift supervisor, shift commander, or facility representative reviewing a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form may direct the staff submitting the form to make corrections, additions, deletions, or other changes to the form or other documentation submitted with the form prior to or after service of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form on the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except under §F(3) of this regulation, if staff determines that the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form is technically in error or evidentially insufficient after the defendant has been served a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prepare a new or revised Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form that supersedes the previously served Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form and:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Correct an error; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provide omitted or additional information; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that the new or revised Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form is served on the defendant in accordance with the service process under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To correct a minor error or omission to a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form (for example a name or date or the absence of a signature or date) or attach new or additional information, staff may complete a matter of record form, memorandum, or correspondence addressed to and received by the defendant explaining the correction or providing a copy of the new or additional information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Referral for Informal Resolution.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a shift supervisor, shift commander, facility representative, or hearing officer determine that a defendant charged only with Category III, IV or V violations should be offered an informal resolution, the defendant may be offered either an:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Informal disposition with a sanction; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Incident report without sanction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The shift supervisor, shift commander, facility representative, hearing officer, or any other staff is not required to offer a defendant charged with only a Category III, IV, or V inmate rule violation an informal resolution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An informal resolution may be offered any time before the completion of a formal disciplinary proceeding before a hearing officer including, but not limited to, before or during the preliminary hearing or case presentation portion of the disciplinary proceeding before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A defendant is not required to accept an informal resolution and may reject the offer and request a formal disciplinary proceeding before a hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A defendant’s acceptance of an offer of an informal resolution shall mean the defendant accepts and agrees with the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Waiver of the formal disciplinary proceeding under the inmate disciplinary process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Offer of informal resolution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Proposed sanction, if applicable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Placement of the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Informal Resolution form in the defendant’s case record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Waiver of the right to appeal the informal resolution disposition for each inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The defendant’s acceptance of a hearing officer’s offer of an informal resolution on the audio record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall constitute the defendant’s acceptance of and agreement with the offer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A defendant’s refusal to accept an offer of informal resolution shall be the defendant’s:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Rejection of the offer of informal resolution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Request for the hearing officer to proceed with a formal disciplinary proceeding under the inmate disciplinary process to resolve the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the managing official, or a designee, believes the offer of informal resolution made to the defendant is in error, the managing official, or a designee, may remand the matter to the hearing officer assigned to the facility for a review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>A hearing officer receiving a remanded informal resolution shall determine if the informal resolution is in compliance with requirements for informal resolution and if finding that the informal resolution is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Not permitted, proceed with the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Permitted, affirm the informal resolution and conclude the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Service of Notice of Inmate Rule Violation Form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing Form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution Form."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Staff shall serve a defendant with a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form before the defendant appears before a hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Staff Service Responsibilities.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff assigned to serve a defendant with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Serve the applicable forms on the defendant within 24 hours of the final review of the shift supervisor or, if applicable, the shift commander.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the defendant with a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Retain possession of and not provide the defendant with an attachment or other evidence submitted with the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form, which may include, but may not limited to, a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Report;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Document;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Documented verbal or written statement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Photograph;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Video;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Telephone conversation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Evidence related to the reported event, the inmate rule violation charged, or reported conduct of the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Forward an attachment and other evidence submitted with the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form to, if designated, the facility representative or staff designated by the managing official, or a designee, who shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maintain the attachment and other evidence in a secure location designated by the shift supervisor or, if applicable, the shift commander; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Present the attachment and other evidence at the time the defendant appears before the hearing officer for a preliminary review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When serving a defendant with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form staff, unless prevented by a security or safety issue or a time constraint, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the defendant with a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form and provide the defendant the opportunity to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Read the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Request representation or witnesses on the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Request evidence on the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Sign for receipt of the defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form on the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, make a record of any cause that may prevent service of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sign the name of the staff member performing the service and date as a record of service in the designated section on the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Provide the defendant with a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Return the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form to the shift supervisor or, if applicable, the shift commander.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the defendant is being served with a Notice of an Offer of Informal Resolution form, staff serving the defendant shall permit the defendant to accept or reject the offer of information resolution and sign Notice of an Offer of Informal Resolution form accordingly as a record of the defendant’s decision to accept or reject the offer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the defendant rejects an offer of informal resolution, staff shall permit the defendant the opportunity to request representation, witnesses, and or evidence on the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Defendant Responsibilities at the Time of Service of a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation Form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing Form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution Form.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The defendant shall notify staff serving Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form if the defendant is unable to read or understand the document.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant, at the time of service, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign for receipt of the defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide notice at service of the defendant’s request for representation, a witness, or evidence for the purpose of the defendant’s possible case presentation during the formal disciplinary proceeding on the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sign and date the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form in the designated section of the facility’s copy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Return the facility’s copy of Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form to the staff serving the document.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request for Representation, Witness, Evidence.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the defendant does not request a representative specifically by name, a witness or witnesses specifically by name, and evidence with a specific description of that evidence at the time of service, or does not sign for receipt of Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the defendant is considered to have waived the defendant’s right to make the request for a representative, witness or evidence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the defendant does not request as specified under §C(2)(b) or C(3)(a) of this regulation and subsequently makes a request for a representative, a witness, or evidence at the preliminary hearing or formal disciplinary proceeding before a hearing officer, that request may be denied.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After service of a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Offer of Informal Resolution form staff shall return the appropriately endorsed documents to the shift supervisor or, if applicable, shift commander, who shall review the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that the service process been properly completed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form were not altered by the defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Take the appropriate steps to secure and preserve evidence properly requested by the defendant at service if that evidence is available and under control of the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Forward the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form to staff designated for scheduling the defendant for an appearance before a hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Delay and Waiver of Service.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Good cause shall permit the delay of the service of the defendant with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Examples of good cause are, but may not be limited to, when the defendant is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An escapee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A patient in a community hospital or medical center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A patient in a facility medical infirmary or unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Assigned to a mental health housing unit in the community or in the facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Placed on staff alert status due to being deemed an immediate risk to the safety or security of staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A defendant may be served with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form while the defendant is a medical or mental health patient, if medical or mental health staff in charge of care for the defendant determine the defendant may be served.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When there is good cause that delays service designated staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Serve the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form on the defendant within 3 business days after the cause for delay of service no longer exists;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make a record of the cause that delayed service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Inform the hearing officer of the cause for delay if the delay is raised at the defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The defendant’s refusal to sign for receipt of service shall be considered a waiver of the Department’s obligation for timely service of the defendant with a copy of Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the defendant does not return at service the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form to the staff serving the documents, that action is concluded to be a waiver of the service requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the defendant becomes disruptive with or poses a security or safety threat to staff serving the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, staff shall conclude under this regulation that the defendant has waived the service process and terminate the service by leaving a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form with the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If service of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form is waived by the defendant under provisions of §§E(5) — (7) of this regulation, the defendant is considered to have waived the right to request representation, witnesses, or evidence at any point in the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Procedure — Hearing Docket."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The facility managing official, or a designee, shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff is designated to establish a hearing docket to schedule the appearance of a defendant before the hearing officer for a preliminary hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The preliminary hearing is scheduled to occur within 7 business days of service of Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form on the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Staff may not schedule a defendant’s preliminary hearing to occur within 24 hours of service of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form on the defendant, except if the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Elects to waive the right to at least 24 hours of notice in order to prepare; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is scheduled to be released from the custody of the Department before the expiration of the required 24 hour notice, in which case the appearance of the defendant shall be scheduled prior to the defendant’s release, with as much time as practicable prior to the scheduled appearance to permit the defendant to prepare a defense regarding the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Procedure — Mental Health Hearing Docket."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the defendant is assigned to a mental health unit in the facility or in the community, staff designated to schedule a hearing shall hold the defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer in abeyance until the defendant is released from the mental health treatment facility, except when mental health staff provide documentation that the defendant is competent to participate in a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the defendant is housed in a facility mental health unit for more than 30 calendar days, staff designated to schedule a hearing shall contact the facility’s mental health staff and request a determination whether the defendant is competent to participate in a disciplinary proceeding and if mental health staff document that the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is competent to participate in a disciplinary proceeding, the defendant shall be scheduled for appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Was not competent at the time of the alleged inmate rule violation or is not currently competent to participate in a disciplinary proceeding, or is housed in a community mental health unit for more than 30 calendar days:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The disciplinary proceeding shall be scheduled in absentia; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The hearing officer shall enter a disposition of “Not Competent” and the disciplinary proceeding shall be concluded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing officer shall find that there is good cause for staff non-compliance with time or procedure requirements when the defendant is housed in a community or facility mental health unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Whether or not the defendant is currently under the care of mental health staff, if there is cause to believe that the defendant may not be mentally competent and is unable to participate in the inmate disciplinary process, the hearing officer shall postpone the disciplinary proceeding and the facility representative or other facility staff shall refer the defendant to the Department’s mental health staff to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Assess the defendant’s mental health status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine whether the defendant is competent to participate in the disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If mental health staff determines that the defendant is not competent to participate in the inmate disciplinary process, the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Disciplinary proceeding shall be held in absentia; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Hearing officer shall enter a disposition of “Not Competent” and conclude the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If mental health staff determines that the defendant is competent to participate in the inmate disciplinary process, the hearing officer shall proceed with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If mental health staff determines that the defendant is competent, and after carefully considering the determination made by mental health staff, the hearing officer disagrees, the hearing officer may still make a finding that the defendant is not competent and, upon making such a finding, enter a disposition of “Not Competent” and conclude the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures Phase — Special Needs Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Interpreters.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If raised as an issue by the defendant, the hearing officer shall make a finding as to whether or not the defendant has the need for an interpreter before moving forward with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may consult with medical and case management, without the defendant present, in order to determine if an interpreter is necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an interpreter is required:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An inmate may not serve as an interpreter under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An interpreter may be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Staff fluent in the preferred language of the defendant; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provided through a State contracted vendor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>After making arrangements for an interpreter, facility staff shall reschedule the defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The hearing officer shall administer an affirmation to the interpreter prior to permitting the individual to assume the role as the defendant’s interpreter.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The affirmation given shall be stated by the hearing officer to the proposed interpreter as: “Do you solemnly swear or affirm that you will provide an accurate, complete, and impartial interpretation of all statements made during this proceeding to the best of your knowledge and ability.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>After administering the affirmation to the proposed interpreter, the individual shall be required to acknowledge the affirmation in the affirmative prior to the hearing officer permitting that individual to act as the inmate’s interpreter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Illiteracy.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If raised as an issue by the defendant, the hearing officer shall make a finding as to whether the defendant is illiterate before moving forward with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may consult with the education department and case management, without the defendant present, in order to determine if the defendant is illiterate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the hearing officer determines the defendant is illiterate, the defendant shall be provided with a representative to assist during the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing officer may grant a defendant identified as a special needs inmate under this regulation additional time to prepare or greater procedural latitude in the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A delay in the scheduling of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding due to special accommodations required for a special needs inmate shall be considered to be based on good cause.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Facility Representative."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A managing official, or a designee, may elect to designate staff to act as the facility representative to represent the facility’s interests during a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The facility representative, with or without consultation with the shift supervisor or commander, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Add additional inmate rule violation charges to the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and re-serve the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form on the defendant either before the disciplinary proceeding or in the preliminary phase of the disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Delete or choose not to pursue charges approved by the shift supervisor or commander;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Correct a technical, procedural, evidentiary, or formatting error found in the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Return the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form to the shift supervisor or shift commander for correction or revision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Offer an informal resolution to the defendant for any Category III, IV, or V inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Enter into a plea agreement with the defendant for presentation to the hearing officer to resolve the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Make determinations regarding the release or withholding of the identity of a confidential informant or other security sensitive evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Present argument and evidence to the hearing officer in support of the facility’s case presentation as to the defendant’s inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Require staff to submit additional reports or present staff to testify concerning information relevant to the defendant’s inmate rule violation charged as a witness during the facility’s case presentation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Appeal to the managing official, or a designee, the hearing officer’s decision rendered or sanction imposed if there is cause to believe the hearing officer under this chapter acted erroneously.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>For the purposes of the security and control of a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and safety of staff and inmates participating in a disciplinary proceeding, the facility representative or escort officer shall determine the manner and form in which an inmate participant shall be restrained consistent with Department policy and procedure and the policy and procedures established by the facility in which the inmate participant is housed.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility representative or escort officer may employ more restrictive handcuffing or other restraint procedures than are required by the rules of the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may request additional handcuffing or other restraints be used.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Hearing Officer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Hearing Officer. The hearing officer, as the fact finder, shall be fair and impartial and may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Interpret Department policy and procedures or the time or procedure requirements under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Make applicable rulings at any stage of the disciplinary process based on the hearing officer’s interpretation of Department policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Weigh the evidence presented during the evidentiary phase and make findings of fact based upon evidence found credible and reliable by a preponderance of the evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Determine the disposition of each inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Determine the number, period, and effective date of sanctions to be imposed when applicable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Provide assistance with an investigation or other legal matters that may involve:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Office of the Attorney General; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An office of a State or local government agency;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Order the removal of any hearing participant from the location of the disciplinary proceeding if the hearing participant becomes disruptive or becomes a threat to the safety and security of the facility or any other hearing participant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Perform other duties as assigned by the hearing officer supervisor or the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Facility Hearing Officer. A managing official, or a designee, may designate a facility hearing officer to act as a hearing officer without regard to whether a hearing officer is available to preside over disciplinary proceedings at the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Ex Parte Communication — Permitted. Unless otherwise stated under this regulation, the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Elect to discuss a pending case and its evidentiary merits in the absence of the defendant, or, if designated, the facility representative with:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Staff of the Office of the Attorney General;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A law enforcement official;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Staff assigned to the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The hearing officer supervisor, or a designee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The Secretary, or a designee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Elect to discuss a non-evidentiary matter in the absence of the defendant, or, if designated, the facility representative regarding one or more of the following matters:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Security or safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A plea agreement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An informal resolution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A postponement request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A time requirement or procedure of a regulation under this chapter or Department policy or procedure; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Representation or witness request; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Elect to, without the defendant present:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Question or take testimony from a witness or confidential informant witness whose identity may not be revealed to a defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review or examine security sensitive evidence that may include a document, video record, or other security sensitive evidence in the presence of staff necessary for security and safety of the hearing officer, witness, confidential informant, or security sensitive evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary and Evidentiary Phases — Written Record and Audio Recording."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The hearing officer shall be responsible for a record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding when the defendant is before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The hearing officer shall ensure that both a written record and audio recording are used to document and record a defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The written and audio record shall only be considered a record of the Department exclusively for the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Use of staff in the conduct of the Department’s daily business;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Record retention requirements of the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Statutory requirements of the Annotated Code of Maryland regarding documenting the defendant’s case record as to the defendant’s disciplinary history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The audio record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding may not be considered to be an entitlement, a right, or for the benefit of a defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Audio Recording.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inability to record a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall preclude the hearing officer from conducting the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding cannot be audio recorded and the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding may not proceed, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Advise the defendant that the disciplinary proceeding cannot be audio recorded and the inmate’s disciplinary proceeding may not proceed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Postpone the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Advise the facility staff to reschedule the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding when circumstances permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The postponement of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding due to an inability to audio record the defendant’s disciplinary hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall be considered good cause for the delay of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not support the dismissal of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Written Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The written record is a summary of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and may not be considered a full transcript.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A hearing officer’s failure to completely document the written record may not be the basis for a reversal of the hearing officer’s findings of fact or disposition of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Inmate Waiver of Appearance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a defendant elects not to appear before the hearing officer or to participate in the disciplinary proceeding, the defendant is considered to waive:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The defendant’s preliminary review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The opportunity to claim a denial of a due process right or claim a violation of a time or procedure requirement applicable to this chapter pursuant to statute, law, or policy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The ability to attend and participate in all stages of the disciplinary proceeding under the inmate disciplinary process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The opportunity to make a case presentation and present evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The opportunity to make a presentation regarding appropriate sanctions, if applicable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The post-disciplinary procedures under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Any and all rights, claims, or procedures normally available to the defendant under the authority of a statute, law, policy, or procedure applicable to the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The hearing officer may determine that the defendant waived an appearance before the hearing officer and participation in the disciplinary proceeding if the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submits a Waiver of Appearance form or written statement informing the hearing officer of the defendant’s decision not to appear or participate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Poses a threat to the security of the facility or the safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Delays appearance before the hearing officer or willfully delays reporting to the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Refuses to obey instructions or resists or interferes with the duties of staff prior to an appearance before the hearing officer or after reporting to the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Violates security procedures for the escort of the defendant to or at the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Elects to depart voluntarily from the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding prior to the conclusion of the disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Becomes disruptive prior to the appearance before the hearing officer or after arriving at the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Exhibits conduct that poses a threat to the security of the facility or location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or the safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Requires removal from the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding at the direction of the hearing officer or staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a defendant elects not to appear before the hearing officer, elects not to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, or is removed or not permitted to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Continue with the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding in the absence of the defendant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Render a disposition for each inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When determining that the defendant’s right to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is voluntarily or involuntarily waived by the defendant, the hearing officer may accept:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Waiver of Appearance form or a written statement signed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The defendant or staff having direct knowledge of the defendant’s decision not to appear before the hearing officer or to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Staff having direct knowledge of the defendant’s conduct that supports a determination that the defendant has involuntarily waived the defendant’s right to appear before the hearing officer or to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sworn testimony from staff having direct knowledge of the defendant’s:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Decision not to appear before the hearing officer or to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conduct that supports a determination that the defendant has involuntarily waived the defendant’s right to appear before the hearing officer or to participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Statements made by the defendant in the hearing officer’s presence or observations of the defendant’s conduct made by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Preliminary Review. The matters that may be addressed by the hearing officer, facility representative, if designated, or the defendant at the preliminary review may include, but may not be limited to, one or more of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate rule violation or violations charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A representation request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A witness request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An evidence request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A postponement request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A time or procedure requirement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The form of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Any issues with or arising from the manner of service of process of the documents under §A(1)(g) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An attachment or other evidence review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Determinations regarding security sensitive evidence or confidential witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A plea agreement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>An informal resolution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>A plea by the defendant to the inmate rule violation or violations charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If during or at the conclusion of the preliminary phase of the inmate disciplinary proceeding, a defendant elects not to or fails to raise any matter listed under §A of this regulation, the defendant is concluded to have waived the opportunity to make a motion regarding the matter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>During the preliminary review, the hearing officer shall ensure that a description of an attachment or other evidence submitted by staff as to the inmate rule violation charged is reviewed and summarized for the record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding except that security sensitive evidence may not be read into the record or released to a defendant or other inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the hearing officer determines that the factual content of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form, or any attachment, report, or evidence attached to or referred to in the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form, if found to be credible and reliable, would constitute an inmate rule violation not charged by staff, the hearing officer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May notify the participants in the preliminary review that the additional inmate rule violation may be charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May inquire if the facility representative, if designated, or other facility staff intends to add the applicable inmate rule violation, and, if added, ensure that the record of the disciplinary proceeding reflects the additional inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall, if raised by a participant in the preliminary review, permit the request for a postponement of the disciplinary proceeding for a reasonable time so the party to the preliminary review making the request may further prepare the case in regard to the additional inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>At the conclusion of the preliminary review, the hearing officer shall inquire if the defendant and facility representative, if designated, or facility staff is prepared to proceed with an evidentiary portion of the disciplinary proceeding.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the defendant or the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff is not prepared to proceed, the hearing officer shall provide the defendant or the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff an opportunity to address the issue.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may, without the request of any other hearing participant, postpone a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing officer shall determine the merits of the moving participant’s request for a postponement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When the hearing officer does not find that a postponement of the disciplinary proceeding is warranted, the hearing officer shall proceed with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is postponed, staff shall reschedule the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding as soon as circumstances permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The postponement of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall be considered good cause for the delay and may not be considered cause for dismissal of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Failure to request a postponement shall be deemed a waiver of the right to request and be granted a postponement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>When a previously postponed case is resumed, the hearing officer shall determine whether to continue the defendant’s previous disciplinary proceeding or whether circumstances require a de novo or new preliminary or evidentiary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Phase — Dismissing an Inmate Rule Violation Charged."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A hearing officer may only elect to dismiss an inmate rule violation charged based on cause established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Time or Procedural. A hearing officer may dismiss an inmate rule violation charged if the defendant established that a time or procedural violation requiring dismissal of an inmate rule violation charged under this chapter has occurred and meets the requirements for a dismissal under §C of Regulation .03 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Lack of Evidence or Failure to Make a Prima Facie Case. After reviewing a report, an attachment, or other evidence submitted by the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff, the hearing officer may dismiss an inmate rule violation charged for lack of evidence if the hearing officer determines that the facts as stated in a report, an attachment, or other evidence considered in the light most favorable to the facility and inferences resulting from those facts do not support a finding that the defendant committed the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Technical Defect or Error.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A non-evidentiary defect or error in drafting of either a defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form may not be considered a cause under this regulation to support dismissal of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A possible non-evidentiary defect or error may include, but not be limited to, one or more of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An incorrect inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An incorrectly cited date or time reference;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An incorrect inmate control or state identification number or name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A missing signature on any form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The absence of a shift supervisor or shift commander review; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A failure of service on the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To correct the defect or error, the hearing officer shall inform the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff of the defect or error identified and the need for correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>After correction, the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the defendant with notice consistent with §F of Regulation .05 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Schedule the defendant for an appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The identification of a defect or error shall be considered good cause to suspend the inmate disciplinary process until the defect or error is corrected.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Failure to Serve the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation Form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing Form.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If raised during the preliminary review that the defendant did not receive service of the defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the hearing officer shall determine whether the defendant received service.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A hearing officer may rely on one or more of the following in order to determine whether staff complied with service requirements of this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The defendant’s presentation regarding the claim of not being served a copy of the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The record of service as stated on the facility’s copy of the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form or Department data records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Testimony of staff serving the defendant with the defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Rebuttal presentation, if presented by the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff, to the defendant’s presentation under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The failure of the defendant to be served with the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form prior to the defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer may not, under this regulation, be considered a cause to support the dismissal of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the hearing officer determines that staff failed to meet service requirements, the hearing officer shall notify the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff of the non-compliance with service requirements and direct staff to comply service requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the hearing officer determines that staff did comply with service requirements, the hearing officer shall proceed with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the defendant waives the service process, the hearing officer shall proceed with the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The failure of staff to serve the defendant with the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form shall be considered good cause for the delay of a time or procedure requirement under the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Review — Defendant Request for Representation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A defendant referred to the hearing officer for a disciplinary proceeding may elect to request representation to assist the defendant during the disciplinary proceeding.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a defendant requests representation for the inmate disciplinary process and the request is subsequently approved:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All responsibilities established under this chapter for the defendant during the preliminary hearing, case presentation, and sanctioning phase of the disciplinary proceeding become the defendant’s representative’s responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The defendant agrees that the defendant’s representative is the agent of the defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The defendant, on review, is bound by the decisions, actions, and presentation of the defendant’s representative.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Defendant Representation Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When a defendant is served with the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the defendant is required to list the name of the defendant’s requested representative in the section of the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form designated for the name of the representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant’s failure to list the name of the requested representative at the time of service shall be a waiver of defendant’s opportunity for representation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon the appearance of the defendant before the hearing officer for a preliminary review of the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the hearing officer shall determine if the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate did list the name of a requested representative at service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Individual listed is permitted to represent the defendant according to requirements of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The facility representative, if designated, or facility staff may make an objection to the defendant’s requested representative.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an objection is raised, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Permit the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff to state the reason or cause the defendant’s requested representative is not eligible to represent the defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Permit the defendant an opportunity to address the facility representative’s, if designated, or facility staff’s objection to the defendant’s requested representative; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>After reviewing the facility representative’s, if designated, or facility staff’s objection and the defendant’s response, determine if the objection is sustained or overruled and advise the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff and defendant of the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the facility representative’s, if designated, or facility staff’s objection is sustained, the defendant may request that the hearing officer postpone the disciplinary proceeding to permit the defendant an opportunity to obtain another representative or to permit the defendant more time to prepare to proceed without representation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the disciplinary proceeding is postponed due to an issue with a defendant’s representative and a subsequent request for a defendant representative is denied or the defendant’s approved representative is unprepared, the hearing officer shall find that the defendant has waived the right to request representation and the hearing officer shall proceed with the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hearing officer is not obligated to grant a postponement requested by the defendant in accordance with provisions of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The appearance of a defendant’s requested representative at a disciplinary proceeding is voluntary on the part of the requested representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If a requested representative declines to appear at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding or represent the defendant at the disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer may not compel a requested representative to appear at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding or act as the defendant’s representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The hearing officer shall only permit a willing individual to appear as the defendant’s representative who is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Assigned to the general population of the facility where the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is to take place; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Permitted under this regulation and by the managing official, or a designee, to represent the defendant;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A staff member:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Employed at the facility where the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is to take place; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Permitted under this regulation and by the managing official, or a designee, to represent the defendant; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A protective custody inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Approved by the managing official, or a designee, to represent another protective custody defendant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Assigned to the facility where the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is to take place.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A hearing officer may not permit an individual requested to be a defendant’s representative if the requested individual is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Banned as a defendant representative by the Secretary, Deputy Secretary, Executive Director, Field Support Services, managing official, or a respective designee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Identified as a threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assigned to disciplinary or administrative segregation, cell restriction, or medical or mental health housing or status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A protective custody inmate requested to represent a defendant who is not assigned to protective custody;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An attorney or paralegal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A visitor to the facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>In a location where staff escort or vehicular transportation to the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is required.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>If the defendant does not request representation at service and subsequently requests representation at the defendant’s appearance before a hearing officer, the hearing officer may elect to permit the request for representation only if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The requested individual is permitted under this regulation to represent a defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The requested individual is present at the time and location where the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is to take place;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>There is no request for postponement by the requested representative; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The defendant’s representative and the defendant are prepared to proceed with and participate in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>If the defendant requested representation at service and is subsequently informed that the requested representative declined to represent the defendant or is unavailable and the defendant requests the opportunity to obtain another representative and a postponement to obtain representation, the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permit the request and postpone the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding for one calendar day; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Deny the defendant’s request and proceed with the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The hearing officer when permitting a postponement under §J(1) of this regulation may not grant a subsequent postponement request if the defendant does not obtain representation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>If an approved defendant’s representative makes an appearance at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the defendant’s representative is obligated to remain at the defendant’s disciplinary hearing until released by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>If the defendant’s representative, during the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, voluntarily elects not to continue as the defendant’s representative or is removed from the disciplinary proceeding due to the representative’s conduct or threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conclude that the defendant has waived representation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Continue the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding with no consideration for a postponement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Defendant Preparation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility is not required to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Permit the defendant access to the defendant’s representative in preparation for the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make special arrangements for the defendant or the defendant’s representative to have access to materials to prepare for the defendant’s case presentation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may not grant a postponement solely to allow the defendant and the defendant’s representative time to confer concerning the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Review — Witness Request."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The defendant charged with an inmate rule violation or, if designated, the facility representative or facility staff may make a request that an individual appear as a witness to testify during the case presentation phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Defendant Request for a Witness.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When served with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the defendant is required to list the name of the defendant’s requested witness in the section of the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form designated for the name of a witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant’s failure to list a requested witness by name shall be a waiver of the opportunity to request a witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall be responsible for informing the hearing officer of the facility’s witness request during the preliminary review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A hearing officer may request the testimony of a witness at any point in the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>During the preliminary review of the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the hearing officer shall consider a defendant’s request for a witness.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer shall solicit a proffer from the defendant to determine the relevancy of the testimony in relation to the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Based on the given proffer, a hearing officer shall permit a witness to testify if the witness’ testimony is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Relevant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not repetitive or cumulative to evidence already in the record of the disciplinary proceeding or to the proffered testimony of another witness; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Not a threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A witness otherwise allowed under this regulation may be denied if there is reasonable belief that the witness’s testimony would constitute a threat to security of the facility, Department, or community, or safety of an inmate, staff, or other individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The testimony of a witness may be taken in person, via video conferencing, or via conference call.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary and Evidentiary Phases — Confidential Informant Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual providing information regarding the defendant’s inmate rule violation charged may be identified as a confidential informant witness when there is cause to believe that identifying the individual to the defendant is a threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A hearing officer may not reveal the identity of a confidential informant witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a hearing officer is provided with testimony, a written statement, or a report referring to information received from a confidential informant witness, the hearing officer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May not share the testimony or documented statement of the confidential informant witness with a defendant or the defendant’s representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not reveal the identity of the confidential informant witness to the defendant or the defendant’s representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not permit the confidential informant witness to be called as a requested witness at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding by a defendant, defendant’s representative, if designated, the facility representative, or facility staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>May provide to the defendant or defendant’s representative an oral summary of the confidential informant witness’s testimony or documented statement that is not specific in detail so as to identify the confidential informant witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The facility representative, if applicable, or staff may provide the defendant with a written summary of the confidential informant witness’s testimony or documented statement that is not specific in detail so as to identity the confidential informant witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The hearing officer shall consider the information provided by the confidential informant witness to determine the credibility and reliability of the information provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Information provided by a confidential informant witness shall be concluded to be sensitive and maintained in a sealed record for only staff with a need to know to access the information or the identity of the confidential informant witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The identity of a confidential informant witness or any information that may identify a confidential informant witness, may not be released to any agency that maintains records that are a matter of public record without a court order or authorization from the Office of the Attorney General, Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>When the hearing officer concludes that an individual identified by staff as a confidential informant witness does not meet the requirements to be classified as a confidential informant witness, the following shall apply:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer shall postpone the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer shall inform the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff of the hearing officer’s conclusion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall inform the managing official, or a designee, of the hearing officer’s conclusion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the managing official, or designee, agrees with the hearing officer, facility staff shall schedule the defendant for an appearance before a hearing officer and reveal the identity of the witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the managing official, or a designee, disagrees with a hearing officer’s conclusion, the managing official, or designee, may appeal the hearing officer’s decision to the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Upon receipt of the Secretary’s, or a designee’s, decision regarding the appeal under §H(5) of this regulation, the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall schedule the defendant for an appearance before a hearing officer and all hearing participants, including the hearing officer, shall abide by the decision of the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Review — Review of Attachment or Other Evidence Requests."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An attachment or other evidence submitted by staff with or independently of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form shall be concluded to be evidence regarding the defendant’s inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In the interest of security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual, a defendant may be limited in or restricted from examining or possessing an attachment or other evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>To prevent and avoid accidental, unauthorized, or erroneous release to a defendant, defendant’s representative, or loss or misplacement of evidence, staff shall retain custody of the attachment or other evidence until the defendant’s appearance before the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Staff may not provide the defendant with a copy of an attachment or other evidence when the defendant is served with the defendant’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>When the defendant appears before the hearing officer for the preliminary review, the hearing officer, while conducting the preliminary review, shall advise the defendant or defendant’s representative, of an attachment or other evidence that was submitted by the staff in regard to the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If requested by the defendant, or defendant’s representative, the hearing officer shall conduct a review of the attachment or other evidence during the preliminary review to determine if there is cause to believe that the attachment or other evidence is security sensitive and may not be examined or possessed by a defendant or defendant’s representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the hearing officer determines an attachment or other evidence is not security sensitive the defendant or defendant’s representative:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May request to review the attachment or other evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall comply with the facility’s existing rules or procedures for requesting a copy of an attachment or other evidence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not use a request for a copy of an attachment or other evidence as the basis to request a postponement or a delay in the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If the hearing officer determines that an attachment or other evidence submitted is security sensitive or may pose a threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual if revealed to a defendant or defendant’s representative, the hearing officer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall conclude the attachment or other evidence is a sealed record and not subject to the examination or possession by a defendant or defendant’s representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall inform the defendant or defendant’s representative that the attachment or other evidence is security sensitive and may not be revealed to the defendant or the defendant representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not disclose to the defendant or defendant’s representative the content of the attachment or other evidence deemed to be security sensitive; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>May verbally provide the defendant or defendant’s representative with a brief summary of the content of an attachment or other evidence as long as the summary does not compromise the content of the evidence identified as security sensitive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>If, after reviewing an attachment or other evidence, any hearing participant is not prepared to proceed, the hearing officer may grant a postponement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>If the disciplinary proceeding is postponed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The delay of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding may not be considered a cause to dismiss the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Staff shall reschedule the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding as soon as circumstances permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Defendant Request for an attachment or other evidence.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When served with a Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, the defendant is required to list a detailed description of a request for an attachment or other evidence in the appropriate section of the facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form designated for evidence requests.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant’s failure to give a detailed description of the attachment or other evidence requested shall be deemed a waiver of the defendant’s opportunity to make the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>The hearing officer may approve an attachment or other evidence requested by the defendant or defendant’s representative only if the hearing officer finds that the request was made at service and deemed appropriate under this regulation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer may not compel the production of an attachment or other evidence when denied by an entity, staff, or an individual in control of the requested attachment or other evidence that is identified as security sensitive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer shall deny a request for an attachment or other evidence made by the defendant or defendant’s representative that is deemed:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Irrelevant to the merits of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cumulative to a factual matter or evidence to be presented or already in the record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A threat to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing officer may not permit a request for or inspection of an attachment or other evidence that includes, but may not be limited to, a security:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Post order not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Emergency plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Photograph not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Video monitoring record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Property, equipment, item, or device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Directive not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Testing equipment or the testing equipment supplies; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Confidential statement or notation regarding security sensitive information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hearing officer shall deny a request to inspect evidence deemed to be contraband that includes, but may not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A tool;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A drug or medication;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A controlled dangerous substance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A cellular telephone;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Tobacco, or currency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Escape or drug paraphernalia.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the hearing officer determines that an examination of security sensitive or contraband evidence is required, the hearing officer shall conduct the examination outside the presence of the defendant, defendant representative, or any other inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>When the hearing officer determines that an examination of a security or video record is required, the hearing officer shall conduct the review outside the presence of the defendant, defendant representative, or any other inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Security Sensitive Information Presentation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When investigating a defendant’s conduct in an event, staff shall determine if a record, report, document, an attachment, or other evidence related to the defendant’s conduct is security sensitive.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To determine if information is security sensitive, staff shall consider if divulging the information establishes a potential threat to the security operations, intelligence gathering, investigation methods and techniques of the facility, Department, or public safety or an individual providing security sensitive information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If making a determination that information is security sensitive, staff may consider that the information:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Was provided by an inmate, confidential informant witness, or individual whose identity, if revealed, may pose a threat to the safety of that inmate, confidential informant witness, or individual or security of the facility, Department, or community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Would reveal the method, technique, or factual details of a security or intelligence investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Would reveal the method, quality, design, and field of view or coverage by the facility security monitoring equipment or systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Could reveal facility security staffing plans, emergency plans, or operations; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Was obtained by a law enforcement agency, a State or federal intelligence office or unit, or the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In cases where staff have cause to believe that releasing information arising from an investigation of the defendant’s conduct in an event would compromise security operations or intelligence gathering, or investigation methods and techniques of the facility or Department, or the safety of the public or an individual providing information regarding the investigation, staff shall inform the hearing officer that the information is security sensitive and not release the security sensitive information or evidence to the defendant, defendant’s representative, or other inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the hearing officer concludes that an attachment or evidence is not security sensitive, but facility staff disagrees, the following shall apply:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hearing officer shall postpone the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The hearing officer shall inform the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff of the hearing officer’s conclusion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall inform the managing official, or a designee, of the hearing officer’s conclusion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the managing official, or a designee, agrees with the hearing officer that the attachment or evidence is not security sensitive and may be released to the defendant or defendant’s representative, facility staff shall schedule the defendant for a disciplinary proceeding and reveal the attachment or other evidence deemed to be not security sensitive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If the managing official, or a designee, disagrees with a hearing officer, the managing official, or a designee, may appeal the hearing officer’s decision to the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Upon receipt of the Secretary’s, or a designee’s, decision regarding the appeal, the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall schedule the defendant for a disciplinary proceeding and all hearing participants, including the hearing officer, shall abide by the decision of the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Presentation of Security Sensitive Information at a Disciplinary Proceeding.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hearing officer:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>May not provide detail regarding investigation methods or techniques used to obtain the security sensitive information, the specific content of security sensitive information, or the source providing the security sensitive information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>May summarize the content of the security sensitive information that specifically relates to the inmate rule violation charged as long as that summary does not compromise the security sensitive nature of the factual details of the information being reviewed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The content and details of information obtained through the facility security video monitoring system may be summarized for the defendant or defendant’s representative; however, the hearing officer may not reveal the specific capabilities or limitations of the facility’s security monitoring system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The hearing officer may provide the defendant or defendant’s representative with specific content information from a document the defendant authored.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The hearing officer may not provide the defendant or defendant’s representative with information for review that is identified as being a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Directive not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Policy not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Procedure not classified for examination by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Photographic record not classified for examination by an inmate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Material, file, record, or document not classified for inmate examination or by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The hearing officer may summarize for the defendant or defendant’s representative security sensitive information deemed relevant to the outcome of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding as long as that summary does not reveal the specific content of the information under review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If the hearing officer is presented with security sensitive information obtained from a confidential informant witness during the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer may not reveal any information that may disclose the identity of the confidential informant witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When issuing a written decision that includes security sensitive information, the hearing officer shall summarize for the record the security sensitive information considered in rendering the decision as to the inmate rule violation charged and ensure that the summary does not reveal the specific details of the security sensitive information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Post Hearing Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may review security sensitive information when conducting a review of the hearing officer’s decision as to the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Staff shall preserve the security sensitive information, by ensuring that the security sensitive information is not included in the defendant’s case record file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Security sensitive information may not be released to another State agency without a court order or authorization from the Office of the Attorney General, Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Security Monitoring Video Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the reported event that is the subject of the inmate rule violation charged was recorded by the facility’s security monitoring system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The defendant or defendant’s representative is required to request at the time of service that the video record be preserved and made available for the hearing officer to review as part of the defendant’s case presentation and the request made at service is required to be renewed during the preliminary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The facility representative, if designated, or facility staff may request during the preliminary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding that the hearing officer view the video record as part of the facility’s case presentation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the video has been preserved and is available for inspection, the hearing officer shall conduct a review, without examination by any inmate, of the requested video recording.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Preliminary Phase — Defendant Plea."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before concluding the preliminary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer shall request a plea from the defendant as to each inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Plea.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When entering a plea for each inmate rule violation charged, the defendant may enter only one of the following for each inmate rule violation charged:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Guilty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not Guilty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Not Competent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>No plea.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Guilty Plea. If the defendant enters a guilty plea to the inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer, before accepting the guilty plea, shall determine the defendant understands that the guilty plea is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A waiver by the defendant of the inmate disciplinary process and appeal rights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An admission by the defendant that the defendant committed the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An affirmation that the defendant’s guilty plea is voluntary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the hearing officer accepts the plea of guilty, the hearing officer shall proceed to the sanction phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Once the hearing officer accepts the guilty plea, the defendant is considered to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Waive a claim that there was a delay, an error, or a denial of a time or procedural requirement applicable to the inmate disciplinary process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Admit to committing the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Waive a claim that there was a due process or statutory requirement violation applicable to the inmate disciplinary process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Waive a claim of an evidentiary error; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Waive a claim that the conviction is not supported by substantial evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The hearing officer upon accepting the defendant’s guilty plea to an inmate rule violation charged shall determine the sanction, period of the sanction, and effective date of the sanction to impose.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the hearing officer does not accept the guilty plea, the hearing officer shall proceed with the case presentation phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Not Guilty Plea. If the defendant enters a not guilty plea for an inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conclude the defendant denies committing the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Enter the not guilty plea in the written and audio records of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Proceed with the case presentation phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Not Competent. If the defendant enters a plea of Not Competent, the hearing officer or facility representative, if designated, or facility staff shall postpone the case, if necessary, and contact the facility’s mental health staff and request that staff determine whether the defendant is competent to participate in the disciplinary proceeding and whether the defendant was competent to understand and control the alleged behavior at the time of the offense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>No Plea. If the defendant does not enter a plea to an inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer shall enter a Not Guilty plea on behalf of the defendant and proceed in accordance with §B(7) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Plea Agreement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer or facility representative, if designated, or facility staff and the defendant, or defendant’s representative may enter into a plea agreement to resolve the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The use of a plea agreement is discretionary and voluntary, and the plea agreement is not required to be offered or accepted by the hearing officer, staff, or defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The use of a plea agreement permits the facility representative, if designated, facility staff, shift supervisor or shift commander, hearing officer, or the defendant or defendant’s representative to propose a plea agreement to resolve the inmate rule violation charged that shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A guilty plea or acceptance of an informal resolution by the defendant to one or more of the inmate rule violations charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The sanction, period of the sanction, and effective date of the sanction applicable to the inmate rule violation found guilty or disposed of informally.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The facility representative, if designated, facility staff, shift supervisor or shift commander, or hearing officer is not obligated to offer a plea agreement to or consider a proposed plea agreement by the defendant or defendant’s representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The hearing officer is not obligated to accept all or part of the proposed plea agreement including the defendant’s guilty plea, sanction, or period of sanction to be imposed for the inmate rule violation charged.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hearing officer is not obligated to accept the sanction recommended; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The hearing officer may accept the guilty plea, but increase the period of the sanction recommended and add additional sanctions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A plea agreement may be offered at any time before or during the preliminary hearing or before or during the case presentation portion of the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".21" heading="Pre-Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Case Presentation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The defendant or the defendant’s representative or the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff may present evidence and argument as part of the presenting party’s case presentation during the evidentiary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The defendant’s refusal or failure to appear before the hearing officer or the defendant’s removal from the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall be considered a waiver of the defendant’s opportunity to make a case presentation during the evidentiary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant or the defendant’s representative or the facility representative and not the hearing officer, are responsible for presenting evidence requested by the defendant or the defendant’s representative or the facility representative or call approved witnesses as part of the presenting party’s case presentation during the evidentiary phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the defendant or the defendant’s representative or the facility representative, if designated, or facility staff do not present the requested evidence or call an approved witness during the presenting party’s case presentation prior to the hearing officer closing the evidentiary record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the opportunity to present evidence or call the witness is considered to be waived.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The facility representative may make an evidentiary case presentation on behalf of the facility as part of a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding for an inmate rule violation charged for consideration by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a facility representative was not designated, the hearing officer shall consider the report found in the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form, an attachment, or other evidence that may have been submitted by staff as to the inmate rule violation charged as the facility’s evidentiary case presentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The defendant’s representative or, in the absence of a representative, the defendant, may elect to make an evidentiary case presentation in response to the inmate rule violation charged for consideration by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Testimony.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Testimony of a witness permitted by the hearing officer shall be under an oath administered by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before a permitted witness testifies, the hearing officer shall use the following oath to swear in the witness at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding: “Do you solemnly swear or affirm under the penalties of perjury that the testimony you are about to give at this disciplinary proceeding shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth?”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The witness is required to provide an affirmative response to the oath before the witness begins to testify.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hearing officer may limit the scope of testimony presented by or questioning of a requested witness:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If it is determined that the testimony may pose a risk to the security of the facility, Department, or community or safety of an inmate, staff, or an individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the testimony by or questioning of the requested witness is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Irrelevant to the merits of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Cumulative to a factual matter or evidence already in the record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A hearing officer may elect to call a witness or view evidence not requested by either hearing participant in order to clarify:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Evidence presented;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A fact in evidence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A policy, procedure, or practice.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A witness may not be compelled by the hearing officer to make an appearance, testify, or answer a question asked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the witness refuses to appear, testify, or answer a question asked, the hearing officer may not dismiss the rule violation charged due to the failure of the witness to appear, testify, or answer a question asked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the witness who has refused or failed to testify is a staff member, the hearing officer may, but is not required to, draw a negative inference from the refusal to testify.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The facility representative, the defendant and the hearing officer may question a witness giving testimony except that if the defendant has a representative, only the representative, and not the defendant, may question a witness giving testimony.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Inmate Medical Information Presentation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A defendant’s request for the defendant’s own medical records as evidence shall be concluded to be the defendant’s authorization for staff to obtain and disseminate the medical record requested by the defendant and to include that medical record in the case record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The failure of the defendant to list the requested defendant medical record as an evidence request at service of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Disciplinary Hearing form shall be concluded to be a waiver of the opportunity to request the medical record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A defendant may not review another inmate’s medical record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Upon the making of a proffer by the defendant that another inmate’s medical record would contain relevant and non-cumulative evidence, the hearing officer may view the evidence in camera without releasing the information to the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Upon approval of the managing official, a staff member shall have access to an inmate’s medical record if the record contains evidence that is relevant to the case, and disclosure of the medical record to the staff member is necessary for an investigation or a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>By email or conference call, request facility medical unit staff to provide inmate medical information deemed relevant and necessary by the hearing officer for the purposes of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review an inmate medical record if the hearing officer determines that review of a medical record is necessary for the disposition of the inmate rule violation charged regardless of whether the inmate who is the subject of the medical record has signed a written release of the inmate’s medical information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prior to rendering a decision as to the inmate rule violation charged, consider if the defendant has a disciplinary conviction history for each inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Consider the disciplinary conviction history in determining whether the defendant committed the inmate rule violation charged; but</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not render a decision as to the defendant’s inmate rule violation charged based solely on the defendant’s disciplinary conviction history or the lack thereof.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Prior to closing the record, the hearing officer may consider any information available to the hearing officer in an official database maintained or used by the Department such as, but may not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Offender Based State Correctional Information System (OBSCIS);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Offender Case Management System (OCMS);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Criminal Justice Information System (CJIS);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any telecommunication provider to the Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The SafetyNet including the Department’s policies and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Any inmate’s electronic case file or hard copy base file; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Department memoranda, regulations, directives, notices, or bulletins.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The hearing officer is permitted to take official or administrative notice of facts without the benefit of adversarial presentation of evidence.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer shall advise the parties of the findings of fact of which the hearing officer has taken official or administrative notice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing participants shall be given an opportunity to rebut, through argument, any relevant facts that the hearing officer would otherwise presume to exist under the doctrine of official or administrative notice.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The defendant’s representative or, in the absence of a representative, the defendant and the facility representative may raise objections.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When considering an objection, the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Allow the opposing party the opportunity to comment on the merits of the objection raised; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Consider the merits of the objection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer shall inform all parties of the hearing officer’s decision to sustain or overrule the objection raised.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Facility Case Presentation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility bears the burden to prove that it is more likely than not that the defendant committed the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The facility’s case presentation as to the inmate rule violation charged may include, but may not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Argument on the merits of evidence that may be or was presented at the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding for the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Presentation of evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Testimony by the facility representative; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Calling or questioning a witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If designated, the facility representative shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make the case presentation for the facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include in the facility’s case presentation:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The event report found in the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If applicable, an attachment or other evidence submitted by staff regarding the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In the absence of the facility representative, the hearing officer shall accept as the facility’s case presentation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The report found in the defendant’s Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, an attachment or other evidence submitted by staff regarding the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The facility, and not the hearing officer, has the burden of presenting evidence or calling a permitted witness as part of the facility’s case presentation prior to the hearing officer closing the evidentiary record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The failure of the facility to present requested evidence or call a permitted witness prior to the hearing officer closing the evidentiary record shall be concluded to be a waiver of the opportunity to present the requested evidence or call a witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The failure of the facility representative to question a witness at the time the witness is called or after giving testimony, prior to the witness being excused, shall be concluded to be a waiver of the opportunity to question that witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Defendant Case Presentation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The defendant may make an evidentiary case presentation in accordance with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant is not obligated to make an evidentiary case presentation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The failure of the defendant to make an evidentiary case presentation may not be considered as an adverse inference toward the defendant or concluded to be an admission of guilt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the defendant has designated a representative, only the representative may question witnesses and make arguments.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The defendant’s evidentiary case presentation may include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Argument on the evidentiary merits of evidence that was presented by the facility or on the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Presentation of evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Testimony, if volunteered, by the defendant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presenting witness testimony.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The defendant is not obligated to testify as part of the defendant’s evidentiary case presentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the defendant testifies as part of the defendant’s evidentiary case presentation and is questioned by the hearing officer or the facility representative, the defendant is obligated to and shall respond to the question asked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The hearing officer may draw an adverse inference to the defendant’s evidentiary case presentation if the defendant, after giving testimony:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Refuses or fails to answer a question asked; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Evades answering a question asked.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The defendant, and not the hearing officer, has the burden of presenting requested evidence or calling a requested and permitted witness as part of the defendant’s case presentation prior to the hearing officer closing the evidentiary record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The failure of the defendant to present requested evidence or call a requested witness during the defendant’s case presentation prior to the hearing officer closing the evidentiary record shall be concluded to be a waiver of the opportunity to present the requested evidence or call a requested witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The failure of the defendant to question a witness at the time the witness is called or after giving testimony prior to the witness being excused shall be concluded to be a waiver of the defendant’s opportunity to question the witness.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Non-Staff Witness Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The appearance of an individual as the requested witness, who is not identified as staff, is voluntary and that individual may not be compelled to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appear;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Give testimony; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Answer a question asked.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A requested non-staff witness may not be permitted if the individual requires a staff escort or transportation by vehicle to the location of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A requested non-staff witness may be permitted to testify, at the discretion of the hearing officer, by telephone conference call.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Staff Witness Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When approved by the hearing officer, staff is required to appear, testify, and respond directly to questions asked by the defendant or defendant’s representative, the facility representative, or the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may direct staff not to answer a question and may direct a hearing participant to ask a different question if the hearing officer determines the question asked is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Irrelevant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cumulative or repetitive; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Argumentative or abusive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the staff witness requests the opportunity to review a report or other evidence prior to or after being asked a question, the hearing officer shall permit staff the opportunity to review the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form or Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form, a report, an attachment, or other evidence prior to answering a question.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If staff refuse or fail to make an appearance, testify, or answer a question asked, the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conclude that the witness willfully elected not to appear, testify, or answer the question asked; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Draw an adverse inference to the facility’s case presentation as to the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>Security Sensitive Testimony. If testimony of a requested witness is determined to be security sensitive, the hearing officer, in order to preserve the security and safety of the witness:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May take testimony from the witness in-person or by telephone conference call without the defendant, defendant’s representative, or facility representative present;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May, if safety and security permit, provide the defendant, the defendant’s representative, or the facility representative with a general summary of the security sensitive testimony taken from the witness, but may not provide factually detailed content of the testimony deemed security sensitive; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May, if safety and security require, only advise the defendant, the defendant’s representative, or the facility representative that, for the purposes of the record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the testimony is security sensitive and may not be revealed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Telephone Conference Call — Witness Testimony.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer may elect, for convenience of the witness or hearing participants, or to ensure that the hearing is held in a timely manner, to use a telephone conference call to take testimony from a requested witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer shall, prior to the giving of testimony, advise the individual testifying that the testimony is audio recorded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Rebuttal Presentation and Closing Argument.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer, at the conclusion of the defendant’s case presentation, shall provide the facility representative the opportunity to rebut the evidentiary case presentation of the defendant by presenting additional evidence and calling a witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer may provide the defendant and the facility representative the opportunity to make a closing argument.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="R."> <text>If the defendant waived the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer shall conclude that the defendant waived the opportunity to make an evidentiary case presentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="S."> <text>Prior to closing the evidentiary record, the hearing officer shall inquire of both the defendant or defendant’s representative and the facility representative whether the case presentation of both parties has concluded.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="T."> <text>At the conclusion of the case presentation by both the defendant or defendant’s representative and the facility representative, the hearing officer shall advise the hearing participants that the evidentiary record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is closed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="U."> <text>If the hearing officer determines there is no other matter to be considered, that has not already been presented or addressed, the hearing officer may close the evidentiary record and proceed to the fact finding and decision phase of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding without the consent of the parties.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".22" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Fact Finding and Decision Phase — Rendering the Decision."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>After closing the case presentation portion of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the hearing officer shall weigh and consider the evidence presented during the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Determine from the evidence presented, which evidence is credible and reliable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine from the credible and reliable evidence the findings of fact as to the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Render a decision as to whether the defendant did or did not commit the inmate rule violation charged based on the findings of fact.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When rendering the decision as to the inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer shall decide if the evidence determined to be credible and reliable:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Proves more likely than not that the defendant did commit the inmate rule violation charged, in which case the hearing officer shall enter a guilty decision for the inmate rule violation charged; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Does not prove more likely than not that the defendant committed the inmate rule violation charged, in which case the hearing officer shall enter a not guilty decision for the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When entering the decision, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Enter the applicable decision for each inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inform the defendant or defendant’s representative and the facility representative of the decision for each inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When the hearing officer finds that a report submitted as evidence during the disciplinary proceeding is factually credible and reliable, the report may be the sole basis for the hearing officer to render the disposition of an inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".23" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Sanction Phase — Imposing a Sanction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the hearing officer renders a decision that the defendant is guilty of the inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer shall permit the defendant or defendant’s representative and the facility representative the opportunity to present arguments on the possible sanction or sanctions for the inmate rule violation for which the defendant was found guilty (If the defendant is represented, the representative, and not the defendant, shall present the argument for or against sanctions).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The hearing officer shall inform the defendant or defendant’s representative and the facility representative of the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sanction imposed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Period and effective date of the sanction imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A sanction imposed becomes effective on the date determined by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A sanction may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Disciplinary segregation housing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Cell or bunk restriction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Revocation of earned good conduct or special project credits, or both, that may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be applied to a sentenced inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .25 of this chapter, be applied to a non-sentenced defendant later sentenced regardless of when the conduct underlying the inmate rule violation charged occurred or when the sanction was imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Suspension of an inmate privilege established by the Department or facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Restitution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Reprimand; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Sanitation assignment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The hearing officer when imposing a sanction or the period of the sanction may consider either aggravating or mitigating factors associated with the inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding or informal disposition to either enhance or reduce the severity of the sanction and or period of the sanction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The hearing officer prior to imposing a sanction and period of the sanction shall weigh and consider the defendant’s inmate rule violation history as documented by the defendant’s case record covering the current term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A sanction being served by a defendant shall be suspended and subsequently resumed at the time when the defendant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Was temporarily out of custody due to an escape, erroneous release, or medical or mental health admission and is later returned to the custody of a Department correctional facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is under the custody and supervision of another jurisdiction or agency due to security reasons, on a detainer, or writ, and is later returned to the custody of the Department.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".24" heading="Determination of Defendant’s Adjustment History — Credits and Segregation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When imposing the sanction of revocation of credits and disciplinary segregation, the hearing officer shall determine the appropriate sanction by using the defendant’s adjustment history.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a defendant is found guilty of the inmate rule violation charged, the hearing officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix, established under Regulation .27 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Identify the category of the inmate rule violation of which the defendant was found guilty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Determine by a database maintained by the Department or the defendant’s case record the defendant’s adjustment history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Plot the credits that may be revoked or the days of segregation that may be imposed based on the intersection of the category of the inmate rule violation of which the defendant was found guilty and the defendant’s adjustment history; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Determine if the sanction for revoking credits and the number of days of disciplinary segregation is recommended or mandatory.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Plotted Sanction Cell.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The plotted sanction may be stated as either a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specific number of credits or days; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Range with the minimum to maximum number of credits or days that may be imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for provisions under §E of this regulation, only sanctions stated in the Adjust History Sentencing Matrix for revoking credits or assigning segregation are to be imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Adjustment History. The Adjustment History Sentencing Matrices categorize an inmate’s adjustment history and identify the approved range of imposable discipline based on previous inmate rule violations as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the current inmate rule violation is the first guilty finding on record in any category of inmate rule violation under any incarceration then the imposed discipline shall be for a “First Offense”;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the current inmate rule violation is the second guilty finding on record in the instant offense category of inmate rule violation, and occurs within 9 months or less from the guilty finding for a “First Offense” in the same instant category of inmate rule violation, then the imposed discipline shall be for a “Second Offense”;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the current inmate rule violation is the third or greater guilty finding on record in the instant category of inmate rule violation, and occurs less than 2 years from the guilty finding for a “Second Offense” or subsequent offense in the same instant category of inmate rule violation, then the imposed discipline shall be for a “Third Offense+”; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any guilty finding occurring 2 or more years after a guilty finding in the same instant category of inmate rule violation may not be considered when imposing discipline or sanctions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Overriding an Adjustment History Matrices Sanction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the hearing officer disagrees with the sanction plotted using the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix, the hearing officer may override the adjustment history level of the defendant to another level (First, Second or Third Offense).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An override under this regulation may be for the purpose of reducing the severity of the sanction determined by the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrices due to a mitigating factor, whereby the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Waive the adjustment history level as determined by the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Select an alternative adjustment history level from the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An override to reduce the severity of a sanction may be based on one or more of the following mitigating factors:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>No prior guilty finding for the current inmate rule violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The period of time since the last conviction on record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The lesser severity of the current guilty finding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The defendant’s mental health status at the time the inmate rule violation occurred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The need for progressive discipline; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The defendant’s acceptance of responsibility for the current inmate rule violation for which the defendant was found guilty.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hearing officer may not override an Adjustment History Sentencing Matrices sanction stated in a sanction cell by suspending the sanction and imposing a period of probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If employing an override under this regulation, the hearing officer shall identify in the written and audio record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding the mitigating factor used to reduce the sanction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A sanction once imposed may not be affected by a later modification of the defendant’s disciplinary adjustment history record.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".25" heading="Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix — Revocation of Credits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Earned credits may only be revoked as a sanction imposed for an inmate rule violation of which the defendant was found guilty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If sanctioning authorized under this regulation permits revoking diminution credits and the inmate rule violation occurred while the defendant was confined in a Department correctional facility in pre-sentence status, the hearing officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Revoke diminution credits awarded for good conduct during the month that the inmate rule violation occurred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Revoke diminution credits awarded for good conduct in addition to the credits awarded during the month that the inmate rule violation occurred, if the hearing officer determines that an aggravating factor warrants the revocation of additional credits; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Not revoke diminution credits earned for participation in special projects or work assignments.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing officer, in accordance with §B of this regulation, shall revoke earned credits as a sanction in accordance with the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix, as established under Regulation .27 of this chapter for all Category IA, IB, and II inmate rule violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The hearing officer, in accordance with §B of this regulation, may</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Revoke earned credits as a sanction in accordance with the Adjustment History Sentencing Matrix, established under Regulation .27 of this chapter for Category III, IV, or V violations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Impose an alternative sanction established under Regulation .28 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Impose as a sanction a combination of revoking credits and alternative sanctions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a defendant is found guilty of multiple inmate rule violation charges involving more than one category of inmate rule violations that occurred during a single reported event, the hearing officer shall, if the inmate rule violations charged result in guilty findings:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Include a Category II Inmate Rule Violation, revoke all available earned credits; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Do not include a Category II Inmate Rule Violation, only revoke the number of earned credits based on the one inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding that is from the most severe category of the inmate rule violations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Except for provisions under §B of this regulation, if a defendant’s good conduct credit balance is insufficient to cover the number of earned credits revoked imposed as the sanction, the deduction for the negative balance of earned credits due shall be applied by staff, in whole or in part, against the balance of the defendant’s special project credits on record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Revocation of earned credits may be imposed independently of or in conjunction with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Disciplinary segregation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Alternative disciplinary sanctions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".26" heading="Adjustment History Sentencing Matrices — Imposing Disciplinary Segregation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Disciplinary Segregation Sanction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer shall indicate the effective date for the disciplinary segregation sanction imposed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the defendant is on administrative segregation pending the outcome of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding or was on administrative segregation pending investigation of the event that is the basis of the inmate rule violation charged for which the defendant was found guilty, the defendant shall be credited for the period served on administrative segregation from the date of placement only toward:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Cell restriction; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Disciplinary segregation if imposed as a sanction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the defendant was not on segregation prior to the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the effective date for the disciplinary segregation sanction imposed shall be the same date of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and begin immediately.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Disciplinary segregation sanctions may not be imposed consecutively.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Disciplinary segregation may be imposed independently of or in conjunction with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Revocation of earned credits; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Alternative disciplinary sanctions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The discipline of inmates housed in a Department correctional facility pursuant to an agreement with an agency of the federal government shall be governed by this Chapter, consistent with the Federal Performance-Based Detention Standards issued by the United States Department of Justice.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".27" heading="Adjustment History Sentencing Matrices."> <text>Category of Inmate RuleViolation Matrix for Imposition of Segregation Sentence First Offense Second Offense Third Offense + IA 0 — 60 0 — 90 0 — 180 IB 0 — 30 0 — 60 0 — 90 II 0 0 0 III 0 — 15 0 — 30 0 — 60 IV 0 0 0 V 0 0 0</text> <text>Category ofInmate RuleViolation Matrix for Imposition of Credit Revocation for Sentenced Inmates First Offense Second Offense Third Offense + IA 60 — 90 90 — 180 180 — 365 IB 30 — 60 60 — 90 90 — 180 II All All All III 0 — 15 15 — 30 30 — 60 IV 0 — 5 5 — 15 15 — 30 V 0 0 0</text> <text>Category ofInmate RuleViolation Matrix for Imposition of Segregation Sentence for Inmates Less Than 18 Years of Age First Offense Second Offense Third Offense + IA 0 — 20 0 — 30 0 — 40 IB 0 — 10 0 — 15 0 — 20 II 0 0 0 III 0 — 5 0 — 7 0 — 10 IV 0 0 0 V 0 0 0</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".28" heading="Alternative Disciplinary Sanctions and Informal Disposition Sanctions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Privilege Suspension.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Suspension of a defendant’s Department or facility inmate privileges may be imposed as a sanction for an inmate rule violation of which the defendant was found guilty or as part of an offer of informal disposition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Suspension of Department or facility inmate privileges is based on the judgment of the hearing officer or staff offering the informal disposition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing officer or staff may suspend a defendant’s Department or facility inmate privileges as a sanction for the period specified under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Staff may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Only impose a sanction as part of an informal disposition agreed to by the defendant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not impose a sanction while the defendant is pending a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A defendant may be placed on administrative segregation pending a disciplinary proceeding for safety or security reasons.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Informal Disposition or Alternative Disciplinary Sanctions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An informal disposition sanction or alternative disciplinary sanction is separate and distinct from the revoking of earned credits and disciplinary segregation as a sanction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer or staff when offering a defendant an informal disposition shall include a sanction from the sanctions listed under §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing officer may impose an alternative disciplinary sanction listed under §D of this regulation for the defendant’s inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An alternative disciplinary sanction may be imposed independently of or in conjunction with:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Another alternative disciplinary sanction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Revoking earned credits; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Disciplinary segregation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Informal Disposition Sanctions. The following may be imposed as a sanction under an informal disposition:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reprimand;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sanitation assignment for a specific period up to but not to exceed 15 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Restitution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Suspension of any of the following privileges:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Radio, compact disc or tape player, digital music player, video game player, television, telephone, or commissary, privileges excluding personal hygiene and legal correspondence items, for a specified period up to but not to exceed 30 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Catalog privileges for a specified period up to but not to exceed 180 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Visitation privileges, except legal and clergy, for a specified period up to but not to exceed 30 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A specified Department or facility inmate privilege not included in this regulation for a specified period up to but not to exceed 30 calendar days; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Cell restriction for a specified period up to but not to exceed 15 calendar days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following may be imposed as a sanction under an alternative disciplinary sanction:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reprimand;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sanitation assignment for a specified period up to but not to exceed 30 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Restitution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Suspension of any of the following privileges:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Radio, compact disc or tape player, television, telephone, or commissary, excluding personal hygiene and legal correspondence items, privileges for a specified period up to but not to exceed 60 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Catalog privileges for a specified period up to but not to exceed 365 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Visitation privilege, except legal and clergy, for a specified period up to but not to exceed 60 calendar days; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A Department or facility privilege not included in this regulation for a specified period up to 60 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Cell restriction for a specified period up to but not to exceed 30 calendar days; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Restriction of visitation privilege, except for legal and clergy visitation, to immediate family members for a specified period of up to 180 calendar days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Cell restriction under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall include a requirement that the defendant is restricted to a designated location and prohibited from participation in all Department or facility inmate privileges and activities to include recreation and commissary; but</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not prohibit the defendant from participation in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Work, program, or school assignments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Meals as scheduled by the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Shower periods as scheduled and permitted by the facility staff for an inmate designated cell restriction status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Visitation periods as scheduled and permitted by the facility’s rules;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Facility passes as scheduled and permitted by facility staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A religious service as scheduled and permitted by the facility’s rules;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Case management, medical, or psychological appointments as scheduled and permitted by facility staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Commissary purchases of personal hygiene and legal correspondence items permitted by the facility’s rules.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Cell restriction and segregation may not be served or imposed consecutively.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".29" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Post Disciplinary Proceeding Phase — The Hearing Officer’s Decision and Case Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Hearing Officer’s Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearing officer, at the conclusion of a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall prepare a written decision documenting the decision rendered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hearing officer’s written decision regarding the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Preliminary matters raised by hearing participants during the preliminary hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A summary of the evidence and testimony presented during the case presentation by the defendant, if applicable the defendant’s representative, if applicable facility representative, or facility staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A summary of the evidence found credible and reliable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The findings of fact made by the hearing officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The disposition of each inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The sanction and period of the sanction imposed for each inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If applicable, documentation for the informal resolution accepted by the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Service of the Decision. Upon receipt of the hearing officer’s written decision, facility staff shall serve the defendant with a copy of the hearing officer’s decision within 3 business days following the date of the hearing officer’s decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The facility representative, if designated, or designated facility staff shall follow the process established by the managing official, or a designee, for the defendant’s housing facility for distribution of the hearing officer’s decision that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Advising appropriate staff of the hearing officer’s decision and sanctions, if applicable; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Returning documents, records, and physical evidence regarding the defendant’s concluded disciplinary proceeding to the designated file or storage location.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Inmate Case Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff shall be responsible for maintaining and documenting a case record of the defendant’s disciplinary history.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The defendant’s case record shall include the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A guilty decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A not guilty decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A Not Competent decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An informal resolution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A dismissal of the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The facility’s copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The written record of the disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>An attachment or other evidence that was considered at the disciplinary proceeding, except if the items are determined to be security sensitive or confidential as provided in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except for security sensitive information, and subject to Correctional Services Article, §3-602, Annotated Code of Maryland, a defendant’s case record may be reviewed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Facility staff or Department staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department Intelligence and Investigative Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An attorney or an individual authorized in writing by the defendant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Staff of the Parole Commission or the Division of Parole and Probation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>An individual or agency authorized by the Secretary, or a designee, or statute or as otherwise provided by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Staff of the Office of the Attorney General;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Staff of the Inmate Grievance Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Staff of the Office of Administrative Hearings; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Staff of a State’s Attorney’s Office.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Security sensitive information may only be released with authorization from the Secretary, or a designee, to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Department staff on a need to know basis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An individual or agency authorized by the Secretary, or a designee, or as otherwise provided by law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Staff of a State’s Attorney’s Office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Staff of the Office of the Attorney General.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Staff shall ensure that the defendant’s case record is maintained under the requirements of the Correctional Services Article for the retention of inmate case record information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Audio Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The audio recording of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is a record of the Department that is for the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Internal operations and administrative functions of the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Administration and management of the Department’s business.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An audio record may not be considered a right, interest, benefit, or an entitlement for the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Staff shall ensure that the audio record of a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding is maintained under the requirements of the Correctional Services Article for the retention of inmate case record information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of an audio record may be requested and provided as required under COMAR 12.11.02 Public Information Requests, but will only be released if permitted under Correctional Services Article, §3-602, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An audio recording is not considered to be part of the administrative record of a disciplinary proceeding that is forwarded to the Inmate Grievance Office or the Office of Administrative Hearings in an inmate grievance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A fee in the amount of $5 for the cost of copying an audio record shall be charged to the interested party requesting a copy of an audio recording of a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".30" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Post Disciplinary Proceeding Phase — Appeal of the Hearing Officer’s Decision or Sanction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Appeal by the Defendant.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A defendant may only appeal the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sufficiency of the evidence presented as part of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Interpretation of the law, rules, policy, procedures, or regulations applicable to the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sanction imposed as a result of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A defendant shall file an appeal in writing with the managing official of the facility where the defendant is housed within 15 calendar days of the date the defendant received the hearing officer’s decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the defendant fails to file a written appeal with the managing official or the managing official does not receive the defendant’s appeal within the 15 calendar days of the date of the hearing officer’s decision, the defendant is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Considered to have waived the opportunity to appeal under this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not considered to have exhausted administrative remedies available to the defendant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the defendant is transferred to another facility other than the facility where the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding occurred within the 15 calendar days, the defendant may file the appeal with the managing official of either facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The managing official of the sending facility shall forward the appeal to the facility that receives the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The defendant shall give notice of the transfer and appeal to the managing official of the receiving facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Appeal by the Facility.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If designated, a facility representative, or in the absence of a representative, facility staff may appeal:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hearing officer’s decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, sanctions imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal shall be in writing and delivered to the managing official within 5 calendar days of the date of the hearing officer’s decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Appeal to the Inmate Grievance Office. A defendant may appeal the managing official’s decision to the Inmate Grievance Office as provided under COMAR 12.07.01.05 and 12.07.01.08.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Appeal — Guilty Plea.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a defendant entered a guilty plea to an inmate rule violation charged and the hearing officer accepted and entered the plea into the record of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding, the defendant may file an appeal based on only the following claims:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The process or procedures by which the defendant entered the guilty plea regarding the inmate rule violation charged was in error or the guilty plea was procedurally not permitted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If imposed, the hearing officer’s sanction was in error or procedurally not permitted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A defendant filing an appeal of a guilty plea may not raise a claim that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hearing officer’s decision was arbitrary or capricious, clearly erroneous, or not based on substantial evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The hearing officer relied on evidence that was insufficient or considered in error;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>There was a denial or violation of a due process, statutory, time, or procedure requirement applicable to this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>There was a denial by staff or the hearing officer of a representative, a witness, or evidence requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Appeal — Waiver of Appearance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a defendant waived the defendant’s appearance before a hearing officer and in the defendant’s absence the hearing officer proceeded with the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding and found the defendant guilty of the inmate rule violation charged, the defendant may file an appeal that is limited to a claim that the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Process by which the hearing officer concluded that the defendant waived an appearance was in error;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hearing officer’s decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged for which the defendant was found guilty was arbitrary, capricious, or clearly erroneous;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Hearing officer’s decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged for which the defendant was found guilty relied on evidence that was in error, insufficient, or procedurally not permitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sanction imposed regarding the inmate rule violation charged for which the defendant was found guilty was in error or procedurally not permitted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A defendant who waived an appearance before the hearing officer may not raise a claim that there was a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Denial of a due process, statutory, time, or procedure requirement applicable to this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Denial of a representative, a witness, or evidence regarding the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The time period for a defendant to file an appeal expires at the end of the 15th calendar day after the date the defendant was served with the hearing officer’s decision.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".31" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Post Disciplinary Proceedings Phase — Managing Official’s Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Review by the Managing Official.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, shall conduct a review of the defendant’s disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The managing official may assign a designee to conduct the required review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The managing official, or designee, shall review a defendant’s disciplinary proceeding before the hearing officer even if the ultimate disposition is an informal resolution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The informal resolution offered by staff and accepted by the defendant are not required to be reviewed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A managing official’s, or a designee’s, review is a review on the record and not a de novo or new hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The managing official may not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Reconsider the evidence in the record of the disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Substitute the managing official’s, or a designee’s, judgment for that of the hearing officer’s or make de novo or new fact findings as to the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Render a de novo or new decision in lieu of the decision by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, shall document the review in the written record of the disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, shall complete the review of the hearing officer’s decision and sanction, if imposed, regarding the inmate rule violation charged within 30 calendar days of the date the defendant received the hearing officer’s decision, but after the 15 calendar day time period for the filing of an appeal by the defendant has elapsed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may conduct an immediate review of the hearing officer’s decision without waiting for the expiration of the defendant’s appeal period:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>When the disposition of one or more of the inmate rule violations is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A dismissal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A Not Guilty finding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A finding that the defendant is or was Not Competent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>An informal resolution accepted by the defendant; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, reduces a sanction imposed by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may remand the hearing officer’s decision to the hearing officer for written clarification by the hearing officer of the decision or sanction regarding the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disciplinary proceeding procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Evidence weighed and considered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Findings of fact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Decision as to the inmate rule violation charged; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Sanction, if imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The time and procedure requirements for the managing official’s review:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall be suspended pending the managing official’s, or a designee’s, remand; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not resume until the managing official, or a designee, receives the hearing officer’s written response.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Authority and Action of the Managing Official.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A managing official, or a designee, conducting the review of the hearing officer’s decision shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review the record of the disciplinary proceeding and determine from that record if a reasonable individual could have reached the decision rendered by the hearing officer based on the evidence presented at the disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Consider an alleged time or procedural violation under this chapter, when raised in an appeal by the defendant, facility representative or facility staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Determine if the sanctions imposed were in compliance with the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, when conducting the review of the hearing officer’s decision regarding an inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding and, if imposed, the sanction, may, without explanation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Affirm the hearing officer’s decision and, if imposed the sanction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Vacate the guilty finding and the sanction imposed regardless of the category of the inmate rule violation charged or procedural requirement of this chapter, and enter an incident report in the defendant’s case record as the disposition for the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Vacate the guilty finding and the sanction imposed and enter a Not Guilty disposition in the defendant’s case record for the inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Vacate the guilty finding and the sanction imposed and enter a Not Competent disposition in the defendant’s case record for the inmate rule violation charged; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Affirm the hearing officer’s decision, but elect to modify the sanction imposed for the inmate rule violation resulting in a guilty finding by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Reducing the sanction period imposed by the hearing officer regardless of whether the reduced sanction is in compliance with or below the minimum sanction or sanction period required by a regulation of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reducing an informal disposition with sanction to an incident report with no sanction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may not increase the sanctions imposed by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may appeal the hearing officer’s decision to the Secretary, or a designee, and request the Secretary, or a designee, to reverse the hearing officer’s decision and remand the inmate rule violation charged for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding when the managing official, or a designee, concludes the hearing officer’s decision was erroneous due to one or more of the following circumstances:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An arbitrary or capricious decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A clearly erroneous decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An erroneous interpretation of a policy, time requirement, or procedure;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The decision relied on evidence alleged or found to be fraudulent or a misrepresented;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The decision was rendered without consideration of evidence that was either presented or not presented at the defendant’s disciplinary hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The sanction was not in compliance with minimum requirements of regulations in this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A disposition of Not Competent was entered and there is new evidence that the defendant is competent to participate in the disciplinary proceeding or was competent at the time of the offense.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The managing official’s, or a designee’s, recommendation for reversal and new disciplinary proceeding shall include the reason for the appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The time period and procedure requirements for the managing official’s, or a designee’s, review under this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be suspended pending the managing official’s, or a designee’s, appeal to the Secretary, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Resume on the date the Secretary’s, or a designee’s, written decision regarding the managing official’s, or a designee’s, appeal is received by the managing official, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Notification of the Managing Official’s Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff shall serve the documentation of a completed managing official’s, or a designee’s, review on the defendant within 30 calendar days of the date the defendant was previously served the hearing officer’s decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the defendant does not receive the managing official’s, or a designee’s, review under the 30 calendar day time requirement the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review process is considered to be complete; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hearing officer’s decision and sanction, if imposed, is affirmed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".32" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Post Disciplinary Proceedings Phase — Remanding the Inmate Rule Violation Charged."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Only the Secretary, or a designee, or a court of proper jurisdiction may disturb the decision concerning an inmate rule violation charged and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reverse the decision of the hearing officer regarding the inmate rule violation charged: and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Remand the case for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official, or a designee, when conducting a review of the hearing officer’s decision or a decision previously reviewed by a managing official, or a designee, may, without regard for a procedure or time requirement under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Appeal the hearing officer’s decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged to the Secretary, or a designee, regardless of the date of the decision or if previously reviewed by a managing official; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Request the Secretary, or a designee, to reverse the hearing officer’s decision and remand the inmate rule violation charged for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, upon receipt and review of the managing official’s, or a designee’s, appeal may approve or disapprove the managing official’s, or a designee’s, recommendation to reverse the hearing officer’s decision and remand the case for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the Secretary, or a designee, disapproves the managing official’s, or a designee’s, recommendation, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secretary, or a designee, shall notify the managing official, or a designee, that the hearing officer’s decision is affirmed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Managing official, or a designee, shall notify the defendant of the Secretary’s, or a designee’s, decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Secretary, or designee, approves the managing official’s, or a designee’s, recommendation, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Hearing officer’s decision is considered to be reversed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inmate rule violation charged is to be scheduled for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When the disciplinary proceeding is remanded for a de novo disciplinary proceeding, the managing official, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the defendant of the Secretary’s, or a designee’s, decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that the defendant is scheduled for a remanded disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notify staff that the disciplinary proceeding is heard de novo unless ordered otherwise by the Secretary, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure that the remanded disciplinary proceeding is not heard by the original hearing officer of record unless otherwise ordered by the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Rehearing Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 7 business days of the managing official’s, or a designee’s, notification of a Secretary’s order or order of a court that the inmate rule violation charged was remanded for a de novo or a new disciplinary proceeding under this regulation, staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the defendant with a copy of the Notice of Inmate Rule Violation form and Notice of Inmate Disciplinary Hearing form regarding the remanded inmate rule violation charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the defendant the opportunity to request representation, a witness, or evidence at service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Schedule the defendant for a disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Except for the 7 business day time frame for service of the remand order on the defendant, the time and procedure requirements of this chapter shall govern the disciplinary proceeding and post disciplinary proceeding phases conducted as a remanded hearing in accordance with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The managing official, or a designee, may appeal the hearing officer’s decision of the remanded disciplinary proceeding in accordance with the procedures under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The defendant may appeal the hearing officer’s decision of the remanded disciplinary proceeding in accordance with the procedures under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".33" heading="Disciplinary Proceeding Procedures — Post Disciplinary Proceedings Phase — Review by the Secretary."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, has the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Authority and discretion to modify, suspend, or terminate the inmate disciplinary process consistent with due process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Final authority to interpret the time and procedure requirements of the inmate disciplinary process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, without regard for a time or procedure requirement established under this chapter, may review a disciplinary proceeding or hearing officer’s decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, without regard for a time or procedure requirement established under this chapter, may take an action regarding a disciplinary proceeding or hearing officer’s or staff’s decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged that includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Remanding the inmate rule violation charged for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A de novo or new inmate disciplinary proceeding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Other action permitted under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Modifying or vacating a sanction imposed regarding the inmate rule violation found guilty or an informal disposition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reversing a decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged found guilty, not guilty, dismissed, not competent, or due to an informal resolution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Reducing a decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged or an informal disposition to an incident report; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Vacating the decision regarding the inmate rule violation charged found guilty, not guilty, dismissed, not competent, or reduction to an informal resolution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".34" heading="Video Conferencing."> <text>The Department may, for the purposes of the inmate disciplinary process, use video conferencing or other electronic media or technology.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c), 3-205, 4-208, and 5-201, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 2, 2018 (45:13 Md. R. 668)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Religious Services"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Business day” means a day other than a Saturday, Sunday, State Holiday, or day on which State administrative offices are closed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Ceremonial meal” means a religious meal associated with the commemoration of a formal religious or sacred observance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Chief Medical Officer (CMO)” means the highest ranking healthcare professional responsible for the administration of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services’ (Department’s) medical, mental, and dental healthcare services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Commissary manager” means the individual responsible for a facility commissary or the Department contract monitor for a commissary vendor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Enhanced meal” means a dinner meal with additional portions of food provided in addition to the regular meal to meet the minimum daily nutritional needs during a religious observance of fasting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Halal diet” means food that is certified by a recognized Muslim Certification Agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Health Services Administrator (HSA)” means a medical professional responsible for planning, directing, and coordinating the healthcare operations within a healthcare facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“High religious observance” means the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Jewish high holy days of Rosh Hashanah, Yom Kippur, and Passover; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Islamic high holy month of Ramadan.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Incarcerated individual” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Kosher diet” means food that is certified by a recognized Orthodox Jewish Certification Agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Passover” means a holiday that celebrates the deliverance of the ancient Hebrews from slavery.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Registered religious preference” is the faith group with which the incarcerated individual is affiliated within the Department’s Religious Services Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Religious diet” means a dietary option that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets or exceeds established nutritional standards based on the Dietary Reference Intake, Food and Nutrition Board, Institute of Medicine, Nutritional Academies, for ages 19—50 years old and above, with the exception of iron for pregnant females;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conforms to dietary restrictions of the incarcerated individual’s designated faith group; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Cannot be met by the Department’s standard menu.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Religious Diet Program (RDP)” means a food services operation within the Department that is administered by the Chief of Religious Services and the Director of Food Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Seasonal observance” means a worship or celebration recognized annually at a specific time of year, which, unlike a routine observance, has specific value to a particular religious group.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Seder Plate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Seder Plate” means a ceremonial plate for the Seder service that is separate from the special Passover meal and is provided during Passover Seder service.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Seder Plate” for the Jewish, Messianic House of Yahweh, Assemblies of Yahweh, and Hebrew Israelites faith groups consists of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Matzo;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Roasted lamb bone;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Bitter herb horseradish and romaine lettuce;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Parsley and celery or boiled potato;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Chopped, mixed apples and nuts with grape juice; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>A cup of salt water.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Chaplaincy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Exercise of Religious Belief.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within security and program limitations, the Commissioner of Correction, Commissioner of Pretrial and Detention Services, and the Director of Patuxent Institution shall ensure that each incarcerated individual has reasonable opportunity to exercise personal religious beliefs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commissioner of Correction, Commissioner of Pretrial and Detention Services, and the Director of Patuxent Institution shall ensure that each religion receives equal access to religious services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Incarcerated individual participation in religious programming is voluntary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commissioner of Correction, Commissioner of Pretrial and Detention Services, and the Director of Patuxent Institution shall ensure that religious services are conducted by chaplains or approved religious volunteers, or both, and are available to the general incarcerated individual population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Religious activities are subject to supervision by facility security staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Ceremonial Meal.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A holy day or seasonal observance may be held with a meal if the meal is part of the holy day or observance based on religious tradition or mandate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each Department-recognized religious faith group may have one ceremonial meal in a calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An incarcerated individual may attend only one ceremonial meal during the calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A ceremonial meal shall be served in the food service facility, except when the managing official, or a designee, approves another location.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Facility food services is the only source of food items for use with a ceremonial meal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The facility chaplain shall coordinate with Food Services to ensure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appropriate ritual food items are available for the ceremonial meal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>At least 60 days are afforded for preparation for the ceremonial meal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Holy day or seasonal observances may be held for incarcerated individuals in special confinement housing if operational capabilities of the facility permit without jeopardizing facility safety and security.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Religious Diet Program — General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Department shall make reasonable accommodations to provide incarcerated individuals in each correctional facility under the Department’s authority with dietary options that meet accepted religious dietary requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Department’s RDP consists of the following two meal platforms:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Halal diet that shall be offered to an incarcerated individual who has designated the incarcerated individual’s religious faith as one of the following Islamic faith groups:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shi’ite;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sunni;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Nation of Islam;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Moorish Science Temple (all recognized groups); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other recognized religions that have the same basic tenets that require the Halal diet; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Kosher diet that shall be offered to an incarcerated individual who has designated the incarcerated individual’s religious faith as one of the following faith groups:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Jewish;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>House of Yahweh;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Assemblies of Yahweh;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Messianic Jewish;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Hebrew Israelites; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Other recognized religions that have the same basic tenets that require the Kosher diet.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In October of each calendar year, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prepare an annual religious services plan for the next calendar year;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in the religious services plan the dates for high religious observance, seasonal observances, fasting periods, and programs for each recognized faith group that requires a special ceremonial diet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Distribute the annual religious services plan to the managing official, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director of Food Service, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that the RDP dietary platforms are certified by an appropriate authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that the RDP meets or exceeds minimum daily nutritional requirements established and approved by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics as they relate to food service in a correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provide correctional dietary managers with a copy of the RDP menu, as well as announcements, updates, and changes to ensure that the RDP maintains compliance with both religious and nutritional dietary requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure that correctional dietary managers and food service contractors are adhering to RDP requirements regarding the use of designated Kosher emblem tape; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ensure that a correctional dietary manager does not alter the RDP menu except where seasonal availability of fresh produce or unexpected unavailability of canned or frozen food items warrants acceptable substitution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A correctional dietary manager may make temporary nutritionally equal substitutions if the substitutions are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Based on the availability of seasonal produce; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In accordance with the Department’s Dietary Program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An incarcerated individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May abstain from regularly offered food items that the incarcerated individual believes to be prohibited by the incarcerated individual’s religion; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Abstaining from certain food items under §E(1) of this regulation may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Still achieve a balanced diet by eating food items that are not prohibited by religious beliefs that are being offered to the incarcerated individual population;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not be served pork, pork items, and foods prepared with pork renderings; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Choose to participate in the master cycle meat menu or the lacto-ovo vegetarian menu.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An incarcerated individual who voluntarily withdraws or is involuntarily removed from the RDP in accordance with provisions under Regulations .05 and .06 of this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May request a lacto-ovo vegetarian menu for nonreligious reasons; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not be reconsidered for the RDP until existing RDP-related sanctions end and the incarcerated individual files a request in accordance with Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The managing official may suspend the delivery of an incarcerated individual’s RDP meal for up to 48 hours during a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Declared emergency where halal or kosher meals are unavailable; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Lockdown of a housing area where the RDP participant is assigned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The facility shall provide an RDP bag lunch for an RDP incarcerated individual assigned to a work crew outside the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Prescribed Medical Diets.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An incarcerated individual prescribed a medical diet may request to participate in the RDP by following the RDP request process described in Regulation .04 of this chapter using the Religious Diet Application Form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an incarcerated individual discloses a food allergy or a currently prescribed medical diet on the Religious Diet Application Form, the facility chaplain shall submit the incarcerated individual’s RDP application to the facility’s HSA and facility’s designated dietary officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The RDP application of an incarcerated individual with a food allergy or a prescribed medical diet shall be reviewed on a case-by-case basis by the Department’s CMO, or CMO’s designee, and a Department registered and licensed dietitian nutritionist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the CMO, or CMO’s designee, and a Department registered and licensed dietitian nutritionist determine that the RDP is compatible with the prescribed medical diet with reasonable modification, the incarcerated individual may opt to receive an RDP diet that meets the nutritional and therapeutic requirements of the prescribed medical diet.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Reasonable modification includes, but is not limited to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Omission or substitution of foods to which the incarcerated individual is allergic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Increase of the caloric value of a meal during periods of religious fasting; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Adjustment of scheduled meal delivery times during periods of religious fasting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reasonable modification does not include a dietary change with no medical or religious rationale as determined by the Chief of Religious Services, CMO, and a Department registered and licensed dietitian nutritionist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the CMO, or CMO’s designee, and a Department registered and licensed dietitian nutritionist determine the requested RDP is incompatible with, and cannot be modified to meet the nutritional and therapeutic requirements of the incarcerated individual, the CMO or CMO’s designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Explain to the incarcerated individual the nature of the incompatibility and the available options set forth in §I(6)(a) and (b); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be responsive to any questions or concerns communicated by the incarcerated individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>After the incarcerated individual and the facility chaplain have been notified of the determination made by the CMO, or CMO’s designee, and a Department registered and licensed dietitian regarding the RDP application, the incarcerated individual may choose one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Remain on the prescribed medical diet and withdraw their RDP request; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refuse the prescribed medical diet and participate in the RDP without any modification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Refusal of a prescribed medical diet.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An incarcerated individual who refuses a prescribed medical diet shall be counseled and required to sign an acknowledgment indicating the incarcerated individual’s informed consent and understanding of the potential adverse consequences of refusing the prescribed medical diet.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Prior to requiring the incarcerated individual to sign the acknowledgment, the CMO or designee shall ensure that the incarcerated individual is competent to make an informed decision concerning the incarcerated individual’s refusal of the medical diet.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An incarcerated individual currently prescribed a medical diet shall, before participating in a period of religious fasting:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review health and medical diet concerns with the facility’s medical staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, sign an acknowledgment indicating the incarcerated individual’s informed consent and understanding of the potential adverse consequences of refusing the prescribed medical diet for the period of the religious fasting; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>After the period of the religious fasting ends, return to the applicable medical diet, if the medical condition warranting the diet still exists.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Requesting and Processing an Inmate’s Request to Participate in the Religious Diet Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual seeking to participate in the RDP shall submit a completed Religious Diet Application Form to the facility chaplain, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a Religious Diet Application Form under §A of this regulation, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Meet with the incarcerated individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review with the incarcerated individual the requested RDP platform;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review with the incarcerated individual the Religious Diet Agreement, specifically the violation and sanction section;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Inform the incarcerated individual that violation of RDP requirements may result in the incarcerated individual's involuntary suspension from the RDP independent of the incarcerated individual disciplinary process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Inform the incarcerated individual that the incarcerated individual is required to reapply for participation in the RDP every 2 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Obtain information from the incarcerated individual concerning the incarcerated individual’s registered religious preference and the reasoning for the request to participate in the RDP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Discuss other applicable information used in connection with the RDP request;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Use information provided by the incarcerated individual in connection with the incarcerated individual’s records and other available documentation to determine if the incarcerated individual is a designated participant in a Department-recognized faith group that requires a diet that can only be satisfied by the RDP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Use forms approved by the Chief of Religious Services to record:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Information obtained from the incarcerated individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>RDP information provided to the incarcerated individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When processing an incarcerated individual's request to participate in the RDP, the facility chaplain, or a designee:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall complete a review of all forms and applicable information obtained in connection with the incarcerated individual's RDP application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall, based on the available information concerning the application to participate in the RDP, determine if the incarcerated individual is eligible to participate in the RDP based on the incarcerated individual's recognized participation in a religious faith group listed under Regulation .03 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not deny an incarcerated individual’s application to participate in the RDP because the incarcerated individual is assigned to special confinement housing or a medical unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>May deny an incarcerated individual’s application to participate in the RDP because the incarcerated individual falsified information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>May require additional information from the incarcerated individual to complete or supplement the incarcerated individual’s RDP application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Shall decide based on all information available and considered to approve or deny the incarcerated individual’s RDP application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Shall document the decision to approve or deny the incarcerated individual’s request to participate on the RDP application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon completion of an incarcerated individual’s request to participate in the RDP, the facility chaplain or a designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a request for RDP participation is denied:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet with the incarcerated individual and provide the reason for the denial;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record the date of the meeting to discuss the denial on the form approved by the Chief of Religious Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Ensure that the completed paperwork is forwarded to Case Management for inclusion in the incarcerated individual’s base file; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a request for RDP participation is approved:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet with the incarcerated individual to obtain the incarcerated individual’s signature on a Religious Diet Agreement Form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Forward a copy of the incarcerated individual’s completed Religious Diet Agreement Form to the Correctional Food Services manager for the incarcerated individual’s facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the completed paperwork to Case Management for inclusion in the incarcerated individual’s base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Voluntary Withdrawal from the RDP."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual may voluntarily withdraw from participation in the RDP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An incarcerated individual voluntarily withdrawing from the RDP, as soon as possible after deciding not to participate, shall notify the facility chaplain, in writing on a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>That the incarcerated individual is voluntarily withdrawing from the RDP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The reason for withdrawing from the RDP.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of notification under §B of this regulation, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall meet with the incarcerated individual submitting the notification to advise the incarcerated individual that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Once voluntarily removed from the RDP, except for provisions under §C(3) and (4) of this regulation, the incarcerated individual may not re-apply for RDP participation for 1 year from the date voluntary removal was accepted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C(3) and (4) of this regulation, once an incarcerated individual has requested voluntary withdrawal from the RDP three times, the incarcerated individual may not re-apply for participation in the RDP until after 2 years from the date of the last voluntary withdrawal from the RDP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An incarcerated individual voluntarily withdrawing from the RDP may continue to participate in other faith group religious observances and ceremonial meals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An incarcerated individual who has a medical condition that cannot be accommodated through reasonable modification may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Voluntarily withdraw from the RDP; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Immediately reapply to the RDP if the medical condition resolves.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A facility chaplain, or a designee, processing an incarcerated individual’s voluntary withdrawal from the RDP shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Record the approval on a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Record the meeting and conditions of the incarcerated individual’s voluntary withdrawal discussed with the incarcerated individual as required under §C of this regulation on a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within 5 business days of the date the incarcerated individual’s voluntary withdrawal request is processed:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the correctional dietary manager of the incarcerated individual’s withdrawal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the correctional dietary manager with an updated list of RDP participants; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Forward the completed forms recording the voluntary withdrawal to Case Management for inclusion in the incarcerated individual’s base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Involuntary Suspension from the RDP."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual may be involuntarily removed from the RDP independent of the incarcerated individual disciplinary process for violating the agreed upon conditions of participation in the RDP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An employee with knowledge that an incarcerated individual enrolled in the RDP has consumed or purchased from the commissary a food item that is not part of the incarcerated individual’s approved RDP dietary platform shall report the allegation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In a manner or on a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To the facility chaplain, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of an allegation under §B of this regulation, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the allegation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Handle the allegation in accordance with provisions under §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A facility chaplain, or a designee, handling an alleged RDP agreement violation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Meet and discuss the alleged RDP agreement violation with the incarcerated individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine if the incarcerated individual violated the agreed-to RDP conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If determining that a violation of the RDP conditions did occur, except for provisions under Regulation .05C(3) of this chapter, determine a sanction as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>First offense, the incarcerated individual shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Counseled regarding commissary or food items that may be purchased or consumed under the RDP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Required to sign a new RDP agreement acknowledging understanding the consequences of a second offense; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Permitted to continue in the RDP;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Second offense, the incarcerated individual shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Counseled regarding commissary or food items that may be purchased or consumed under the RDP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Suspended from the RDP for 90 days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Upon completion of the 90-day suspension, required to sign a new RDP agreement acknowledging understanding the consequences of a third offense before being permitted to participate in the RDP following the 90-day suspension; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Third offense, the incarcerated individual shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Counseled regarding commissary or food items that may be purchased or consumed under the RDP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Suspended from the RDP for 1 year; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Upon completion of the 1-year suspension, required to reapply to participate in the RDP in accordance with procedures established under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Meet with the affected incarcerated individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discuss the decision, any imposed sanctions, and the impact of continued violations of the agreed-to RDP conditions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain the incarcerated individual's signature on a new RDP Agreement form;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Document the process and meetings in a manner or on a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If after 5 business days from the date the incarcerated individual is notified of a decision, the incarcerated individual does not appeal the facility chaplain’s, or a designee’s, action:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Forward a copy of the documentation to Case Management for inclusion in the incarcerated individual's base file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the decision results in changes to notification previously made to the facility’s correctional dietary manager, within 5 business days of the end of the period for filing an appeal, provide written notification of the appropriate updates to the facility correctional dietary manager.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An incarcerated individual involuntarily suspended from the RDP may continue to participate in other faith group religious observances and ceremonial meals.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Appeal of Involuntary Suspension from the RDP."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual may appeal a facility chaplain’s, or a designee’s, decision made in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An incarcerated individual filing an appeal under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>File the appeal within 10 business days of the date of the adverse decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the appeal on a form or in a manner approved by the Chief of Religious Services to the facility chaplain, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Remain in the RDP during the appeal process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within 10 business days of receipt of an appeal under §B of this regulation, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Attach the incarcerated individual’s appeal to other forms completed as part of the action taken by the facility chaplain, or a designee, to remove the incarcerated individual from the RDP;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide a written recommendation regarding the appeal that includes the reason and support for the recommendation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Forward the documents to the managing official, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Within 10 business days of receipt of an appeal under §C(3) of this regulation, the managing official, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review and, if necessary, obtain additional information concerning the documents received;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Decide to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Affirm the original decision and sanction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Affirm the original decision and reduce the original sanction; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Overturn the original finding that a violation occurred;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provide a written decision that includes the reason and support for the decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Forward the documents to the facility chaplain, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon receipt of a decision under §D(4) of this regulation, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall comply with applicable requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Re-admittance to the RDP Following Involuntary Suspension."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual who was previously involuntarily suspended from the RDP for 1 year may re-apply to participate in the RDP.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An incarcerated individual reapplying for the RDP following being involuntarily suspended from the RDP for 1 year shall be readmitted if the incarcerated individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has completed the period of suspension related to the involuntary suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Makes a request in accordance with provisions under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is approved for the RDP in accordance with provisions under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="RDP Commissary Products."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>RDP-approved food products shall be available from the commissary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The commissary manager shall ensure that food items approved for use with the RDP are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Certified by the appropriate recognized religious certification authority; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Appropriately marked on the commissary products list to identify the RDP diet platform to which the items apply.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An incarcerated individual approved for participation in the RDP, as an agreed-to condition of participation in the RDP, may only purchase commissary food items approved for the specific RDP diet platform for which the incarcerated individual has been approved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If requested by the commissary manager, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall provide the commissary manager:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>With a list of incarcerated individuals approved for the RDP; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Indicate for each incarcerated individual on the list the RDP platform for which the incarcerated individual is approved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a facility chaplain, or a designee, has knowledge that an incarcerated individual is allegedly violating the agreed-to terms for participation in the RDP, the chaplain, or a designee, shall address the alleged violation according to procedures established under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Halal Diet Platform Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The RDP Halal Diet platform is a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet that is Halal Certified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>At a minimum, 30 days before the observance of Ramadan, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall inform the facility’s correctional dietary manager, or a designee, of the following to ensure that an incarcerated individual who will observe the ceremonial fasting (dawn to sunset) is provided with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If needed, an early breakfast served before dawn; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A late dinner served immediately after sunset that consists of an enhanced meal as prescribed by the Office of Food Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Daily during the Ramadan observance, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall inform the correctional dietary manager, or a designee, of changes to the list of incarcerated individuals approved to participate in the observance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The commissary manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that appropriate Ramadan food items, traditionally used breaking a fast, such as dried date palms (dates), are available for purchase by the incarcerated individuals a minimum of 60 days before the Ramadan observance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Advise the facilities when the Ramadan food items, including dried dates, are available for purchase and the cost of each item.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A facility chaplain, or a designee, shall notify the facility’s Islamic incarcerated individual population, at least 60 days before the Ramadan observance, of the availability of the Ramadan food items, including dried dates, and the cost of each item.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Kosher Diet Platform Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Food service employees and applicable food services contractor staff in a facility that provides the RDP Kosher platform diet shall be trained in the Kosher Diet procedures according to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On an annual basis, a mandatory RDP Kosher platform training shall be provided for all food service employees and contractors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>RDP Kosher platform training shall be provided for newly hired food service employees and contractors within 60 days of hiring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Upon completing the Kosher Diet training, a food service employee shall sign and date the Food Service Staff Religious Diet Training Acknowledgement form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Food service personnel shall prepare Kosher Diet food in the area specifically designated for that purpose.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an incarcerated individual worker is assigned to prepare Kosher Diet meals, the facility’s correctional dietary manager, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide the incarcerated individual worker with Kosher Diet training that is required under §A of this regulation and approved by the Director of Food Services, or a designee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon completion of the training, ensure that the incarcerated individual worker signs and dates the Food Service incarcerated Individual Worker Religious Diet Training Acknowledgement form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure that each incarcerated individual worker meets:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Annual COMAR requirements for medical screening, as related to food handling and preparation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Requirements established in the Food Service Manual, such as training in sanitation and inspections, Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points, health and safety codes, personal hygiene, foodborne illness, care and use of equipment, and food temperatures; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Other applicable statutory, regulatory, policy, and procedural requirements; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Supervise the incarcerated individual worker assigned to prepare Kosher Diet meals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A food item used for the RDP Kosher Diet platform, except fresh fruits and vegetables, shall be certified by a recognized orthodox standard accepted by the Department’s Religious Services Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Kosher Diet Hot Entree — Availability and Preparation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A hot RDP Kosher Diet platform entree shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be available and served at a minimum six times during a week (Sunday—Friday); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include Kosher certified, purchased precooked, or dehydrated food items whenever possible.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Only Kosher Diet approved equipment that is clearly marked “RDP” may be used to rehydrate and heat items for the Kosher Diet.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A food service employee or incarcerated individual worker may not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Cook or reheat a non-Kosher Diet platform food item in the Kosher Diet preparation area; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Use a pot, utensil, electric burner, or microwave oven that has been designated and marked “RDP” for the Kosher Diet platform for any other purpose.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Kosher Beverages. Beverages available for the general population, such as soda from the dispenser, pure juice with the exception of grape, nonflavored coffee or tea, water, and milk are currently Kosher-certified and may be used as part of the RDP Kosher Diet platform.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Kosher Food Storage.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon delivery of an RDP Kosher Diet platform food product, a food service employee or incarcerated individual worker having been trained in the Kosher Diet procedures shall place the Kosher Diet products in a designated location for staging or storage until the product is to be used.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An RDP Kosher Diet platform refrigerated food product shall be stored in a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Separate, clearly identified, and “RDP” marked refrigerated unit or freezer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Common refrigerator or freezer that has space designated and marked for Kosher Diet platform food products.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An RDP Kosher Diet dry storage food product shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Stored in a dry storage location separate from food that is not part of the RDP Kosher Platform and clearly identified as “RDP”; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Placed in a designated and marked “RDP” area of a common dry food storage location, and clearly identified as “RDP”.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Serving Trays and Utensils.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>RDP identified reusable serving trays, covers, and cups shall be used for the RDP Kosher Diet platform as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Items are to be stored separately from non-Kosher Diet platform items; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In the absence of reusable items, Styrofoam disposable items are acceptable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Kosher Diet serving trays, covers, and cups shall be washed and sanitized before non-Kosher Diet platform equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Dish water shall be drained from sinks and clean water shall be used to wash an RDP Kosher Diet platform item.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Kosher Diet Platform Food and Utensil Handling.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A food service utensil used to prepare, serve, or transport RDP Kosher Diet platform food items shall be stored, handled, used, and cleaned separately from non-Kosher Diet platform food utensils.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A utensil used for the RDP Kosher Diet platform shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Marked with “RDP”;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Washed and sanitized in the pot and pan area before non-Kosher Diet platform utensils have been cleaned; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Stored in a separate:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Area in the tool room identified as the Kosher Diet area; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Tool box clearly marked as “RDP” within a common tool room.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A three-compartment sink shall be washed, rinsed, sanitized, and refilled with clean water before an RDP Kosher Diet platform utensil is cleaned in the sink.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A food service employee or incarcerated individual worker may not handle non-Kosher Diet food items while preparing or cooking RDP Kosher Diet platform food items.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A food service employee or incarcerated individual worker handling non-Kosher Diet food items before entering the Kosher Diet food preparation area to prepare kosher food shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Wash hands thoroughly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Change into a clean apron; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Put on clean gloves.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Serving RDP Kosher Diet Platform Food Items.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An RDP Kosher Diet platform food item shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prepared in advance of the meal period and, except for the RDP Kosher Diet platform hot entree, placed under refrigeration in RDP designated refrigeration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Prior to being served, placed on serving trays designated for the RDP Kosher Diet platform.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for beverages currently certified as Kosher, incarcerated individuals participating in the RDP Kosher Diet platform may not select or be served non-RDP Kosher Diet platform food or beverages.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Kosher Specific Requirements for the Passover Observance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Religious diet accommodations provided for Passover meals shall meet or exceed basic nutritional requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>During the Passover observance, RDP Kosher Diet platform meals shall consist of Kosher-for-Passover approved food items, as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Breakfast shall consist of Kosher-for-Passover:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Cereal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Coffee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Sugar;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Jelly or honey;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Matzo;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Fresh milk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Hard boiled eggs (processed or cooked prior to the start of the Passover period); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Fresh fruit;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On Sunday through Friday of the Passover observance, lunch and dinner trays shall consist of a Kosher-for-Passover entree and Kosher-for-Passover vegetables (with the exception of legumes and foods containing soy, corn, or a derivative of either food);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>When the Passover Seder falls on a Friday or Saturday evening, the Seder meal shall include the hot entree that is not prepared until after the Kosher preparation area has been made Kosher-for-Passover acceptable in accordance with the RDP Kosher Diet training handouts that detail:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Kosher-for-Passover preparation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Pre-Passover notification reminders from the Director of Food Services regarding Passover preparation; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>When the Passover Seder does not fall on a Friday or Saturday, on Saturdays (Sabbath) during the Passover observance the lunch and dinner meals shall consist of an entree of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Kosher-for-Passover American cheese, cottage cheese, tuna, sardines and condiments; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Boiled eggs with assorted fresh vegetables and fruit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Seder Service and Seder Plate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The facility chaplain or a designee shall determine if each participating congregative faith group will observe the Seder in full.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>During the first 2 nights of Passover when the Seder service is held, in addition to the special Passover meals, a Seder plate shall be provided to each participating congregative faith group, as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>For congregational Seder services, each table shall be provided one Seder plate, generally four incarcerated individuals per table whether the Seder service is held in the dining area, chapel, or another meeting room; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In special confinement housing units, each incarcerated individual shall be provided a Seder plate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>No later than January 10 of each year, the Chief of Religious Services shall forward in writing or by email the dates that Passover is observed to the managing official, or a designee, Director of Food Services, and facility chaplain, or a designee, of each correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>The Director of Food Services shall notify correctional dietary managers of the dates Passover is observed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Nine weeks before the beginning of the Passover observance, the facility chaplain, or a designee, shall meet with the incarcerated individuals of the groups that observe Passover to provide the official dates that Passover is observed that year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Eight weeks before the date of the start of Passover, incarcerated individuals who want to observe Passover shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Make the request using a form approved by the Chief of Religious Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the completed form to the facility chaplain, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>The commissary manager shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that Kosher-For-Passover items are available for purchase by an incarcerated individual at a minimum of 60 days before the Passover observance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Advise the facility chaplain, or a designee, of the dates the Kosher-For-Passover items are available for purchase and the cost.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Kosher-for-Passover Facility Preparation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Seven weeks before the beginning of the Passover observance, a facility chaplain or a designee shall notify the correctional dietary manager of the expected number of incarcerated individuals participating in the Passover observance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The correctional dietary manager shall ensure sufficient Kosher-for Passover related food items are ordered from vendors supplying items for the Passover observance, and restocking when necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The correctional dietary manager shall, to the extent possible, ensure that the order of Passover food items includes extra portions to accommodate last minute changes to the number of participating incarcerated individuals based on new intakes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Eight days before Passover, each kitchen and related areas used to prepare and serve meals during Passover shall be made Kosher and only Kosher for Passover food may be prepared and served from the Kosher kitchens and related areas.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>A managing official, or a designee, may not change the dates or menu of the planned Passover observance, except during an emergency and after consulting with the Director of Food Services and the Office of Religious Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="R."> <text>An incarcerated individual observing Passover shall only be provided RDP Kosher-For-Passover approved food items and beverages.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="S."> <text>If changes occur during Passover, the Office of Religious Services shall provide the correctional dietary manager with changes to the list of incarcerated individuals who are participating in the special Passover ceremonial meals.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c), 3-205, 4-208, and 5-201, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 12, 2018 (45:5 Md. R. 286)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.11 repealed and Regulations .01—.11 adopted effective February 16, 2026 (53:3 Md. R. 122)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Incarcerated Individual Mail"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Contraband” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §9-410, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Correctional facility” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>General Mail.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“General mail” means correspondence, written materials, and publications, including but not limited to letters, cards, newspapers, magazines, newsletters, flyers, and advertisements:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Addressed to or from an incarcerated individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Leaving or entering the correctional facility by the United States Postal Service or by a recognized courier system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“General mail” does not mean:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Legal mail as defined in this section;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A written communication among incarcerated individuals within the correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A package; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>An initial package as defined in this section.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Hostile work environment” means a workplace where discriminatory intimidation, ridicule, or insult are so severe or pervasive that the conditions of an individual’s employment are altered to the point of creating an abusive working environment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Indigent Incarcerated Individual.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Indigent incarcerated individual” means an incarcerated individual who, within the previous payroll period:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Has not received pay for an assignment in work or school and has less than $6 in the incarcerated individual’s spending account; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Has been admitted to a correctional facility and does not have at least $6 in the incarcerated individual’s spending account on admission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Indigent incarcerated individual” does not mean an incarcerated individual who, in order to be eligible for the benefits described in Regulation .03 of this chapter, manipulates the incarcerated individual’s account balance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Initial package” means a package of purchased retail items or goods delivered to an incarcerated individual within 90 days of an incarcerated individual’s admission to the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Legal mail” means mail that is either addressed by an incarcerated individual to, or received on official stationery from, any of the following individuals or agencies:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A clerk of court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The American Civil Liberties Union;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The Legal Aid Bureau;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The contractual service provider for incarcerated individual legal services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The Commissioner of Correction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>The Commissioner of Pretrial Detention and Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>The Director of Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>The Director of the Division of Parole and Probation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>The Director of Criminal Justice Information System–Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Elected or appointed public officials.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Mail” means general and legal mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Managing official” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Package.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Package” means any container or wrapping of a purchased retail item or good that is used to deliver the retail item or good to an incarcerated individual from outside the secure perimeter of the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Package” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An initial package;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An incarcerated individual’s catalog or commercial retail order, including but not limited to a food item, portable music player, television, gaming system, video game, book, and item of clothing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A delivery from one correctional facility to another.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Property officer” means a Department employee responsible for receiving and controlling an incarcerated individual’s belongings in accordance with established incarcerated individual personal property procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Retail” means the sale of an item or good to an individual in a small quantity that the individual uses for personal consumption and not for resale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Sexually explicit” means a pictorial, written, or verbal depiction of actual or simulated sexual behavior, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Bestiality;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A minor or minors depicted in the nude or partially nude;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Masturbation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sadistic or masochistic abuse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A sexual act as defined in Criminal Law Article, §3-301, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Sexual contact as defined in Criminal Law Article, §3-301, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Vaginal intercourse as defined in Criminal Law Article, §3-301, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Policy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An incarcerated individual is allowed to send or receive mail consistent with the United States Constitution, federal law and regulations, and Maryland law and regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Mail may not be handled by any incarcerated individual other than the incarcerated individual to whom the mail is addressed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The volume of mail an incarcerated individual sends or receives may not be limited unless there is justification in accordance with procedures established in Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A restriction may not be placed on an incarcerated individual’s mail for disciplinary reasons unless an incarcerated individual specifically abuses this privilege.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A restriction may not be placed on an incarcerated individual’s mail because of the incarcerated individual’s use of an officially adopted religious or gender-affirming name.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Mail Inspection and Delivery Time Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon delivery to the mailroom, incoming mail shall be date stamped with the date it was received at the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Legal mail may not be held for more than 48 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except when it contains contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Legal mail shall be inspected and delivered as set forth in Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Incoming general mail that is conducive to photocopying may not be held for more than 72 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except when it contains contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>To facilitate effective search procedures and to reduce the amount of controlled dangerous substances and other contraband containing injurious materials, general mail coming into a correctional facility that is not conducive to photocopying or scanning, such as a magazine or newspaper, may not be held for more than 80 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, except when it contains contraband.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Contraband may not be mailed or otherwise conveyed into a correctional facility. Contraband includes, but is not limited to, material that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Describes escape plans, devices, or paraphernalia;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Describes the construction or use of weapons, ammunition, bombs, incendiary devices, or other means of inflicting bodily harm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Describes procedures for brewing alcoholic beverages or the manufacture of drugs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is written in code;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is sexually explicit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Depicts a nude person under the age of 18;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If not withheld, may create a hostile work environment for employees who are required to inspect, view, read, or overhear the reading of mail during the normal course of their duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Describes theory, design, or manufacture of prison security systems or equipment, including prison communication systems or equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Instructs an incarcerated individual in the commission of violations of Department regulations that may produce a breach of security or order in the correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Advocates or instructs in the formation of incarcerated individual unions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>May be contaminated with controlled dangerous substances, or substances such as paint, crayon, marker, ink, glitter, cloth, string, tape, glue, epoxy, metal, plastic, wood, stickers, scents, or stain that may obscure detection of CDS; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Poses a direct and immediate danger of violence or physical harm to a person or persons, based upon the current circumstances within the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Except for an indigent incarcerated individual’s mail, an incarcerated individual shall affix proper postage to all outgoing mail.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Mailroom Pilot Programs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Department may conduct pilot projects to demonstrate and evaluate new approaches to managing incoming incarcerated individual mail, as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Mail to or from an Incarcerated Individual’s Attorney. The Department may establish a pilot program to verify that mail marked by the sender as legal mail sent by, or on behalf of, an attorney to an incarcerated individual meets the definition of legal mail as stated in Regulation .01 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>General Mail.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Department may establish a pilot program for incoming general mail consistent with this chapter that centralizes the collection, photocopying or scanning, and electronic distribution of incoming general mail at a specified Division of Correction correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To reduce the amount of controlled dangerous substances and other contraband entering the correctional facility, the Division shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Except for bound publications or other unsuitable items, photocopy or scan all incoming general mail; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provide an incarcerated individual with clear unobstructed photocopies or electronic copies of an incarcerated individual’s incoming general mail, unless the mail is withheld in accordance with the procedures established in Regulation .10 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Department shall store, in accordance with §A(2)(d) of this regulation, the original incoming general mail for the later of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The time frame established for an incarcerated individual to file a complaint through the informal and formal Administrative Remedy Procedure (ARP) established in COMAR 12.02.28; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Until a decision has been issued by the Commissioner in response to an incarcerated individual ARP complaint.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Department shall establish and maintain appropriate safeguards, such as access restrictions, records controls, and lockable cabinets and rooms to ensure the security of incoming general mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Except under §A(2)(f) and (g) of this regulation, the Department shall securely dispose of the original general mail after the photocopied or scanned mail has been delivered and either the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Time frame for filing an ARP complaint has expired; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Incarcerated individual’s ARP complaint has been resolved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The Department may not as part of this subsection photocopy, scan, or dispose of legal mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The Department may not destroy mail subject to a legal hold notice directing that an incarcerated individual’s general mail be retained.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A document destruction services contractor shall collect and destroy the stored original general mail at the expiration of the period specified in §A(2)(b) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Department shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Develop pilot projects in cooperation with representatives of recognized advocacy organizations dedicated to ensuring the wellbeing and fair treatment of incarcerated individuals; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide adequate notice of a pilot program through the Maryland Register and the Department’s public website so that an interested individual has a reasonable opportunity to be informed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Indigent Incarcerated Individual’s Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon the request of an indigent incarcerated individual, staff shall provide an incarcerated individual with pen, paper, envelopes, and first-class postage for seven letters per week.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an incarcerated individual requires additional materials or postage for legal correspondence, an incarcerated individual may request these through the mailroom supervisor or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The mailroom supervisor shall grant the request for additional materials or postage for legal correspondence, unless it is determined that the postage provision is being abused, in which case the mailroom supervisor shall refer the request and findings to the managing official, or designee, for disposition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The mailroom supervisor shall encourage the indigent incarcerated individual to set mail priorities within the seven-letter allowance.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Outgoing General Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall ensure that staff assigned to forward general mail to the United States Postal Service or other recognized courier date-stamp the outgoing general mail on the date it is received from the incarcerated individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, outgoing general mail may not be held for more than 24 hours excluding weekends and holidays.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An incarcerated individual shall include an incarcerated individual’s own name, identification number, and the return address of the correctional facility on outgoing mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If an incarcerated individual wants to mail money from the incarcerated individual’s account with a letter, an incarcerated individual shall forward the letter and an unsealed envelope, together with the proper withdrawal voucher, to the person or unit designated by internal correctional facility directives.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The managing official or designee may not open outgoing general mail unless clear evidence exists to warrant inspection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The managing official or designee who opens and inspects outgoing general mail shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure that the reasons for the inspection and results of the inspection are documented; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Withhold outgoing general mail only when it is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Found to contain contraband;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Evidence for a rule violation under COMAR 12.03.01; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A basis for requesting an investigation by the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division or other law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Incoming General Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person sending general mail to an incarcerated individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Include an incarcerated individual’s name and identification number on the outside of the envelope; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure that the general mail envelope:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is not larger than 12 inches wide or 15 inches long;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Does not exceed 3.5 ounces; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Does not contain more than 12 photographs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When a single piece of incoming general mail sent to an incarcerated individual exceeds the allowable size, weight, or content specified in §A(2) of this regulation, correctional staff shall issue a notification to the incarcerated individual indicating that a piece of oversized mail was received and returned to the sender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When the overall volume of an incarcerated individual’s general mail exceeds a limitation imposed by a managing official, correctional staff shall follow the procedures established in Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Inspection and Delivery of Incoming Mail.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Correctional staff shall open incoming general mail before delivery to an incarcerated individual, and inspect it only for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Money orders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cash;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Stamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Checks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Contraband.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Correctional staff shall follow established procedures for handling money orders, cash, stamps, checks, and contraband received in the mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inspected incoming general mail shall be delivered as set forth in Regulation .02F of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Document Reproduction and Delivery.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Following inspection, incoming general mail at a pilot site shall be reproduced by photocopy or electronic scan, to include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Every side of each page or item contained in or on the envelope;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The outer envelope, including the incarcerated individual’s mailing address and the sender’s return address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>All enclosed contents, including a letter, postcard, or other form of correspondence, photographs, drawings, printed material, and publication clippings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Disposition and destruction of original general mail after photocopying or electronic scanning shall be handled as set forth in Regulation .03A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Packages."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with COMAR 12.02.17, all packages received by mailroom staff, regardless of external packaging and point of origin, shall be inspected and delivered to a correctional facility’s incarcerated individual property room to be inventoried and inspected to ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The package does not contain contraband;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ownership of the purchased or received property, good, or retail item is properly established and documented; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The incoming property does not exceed the established limits of an incarcerated individual’s personal property allowance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a package, mailroom staff or the property officer shall notify an incarcerated individual within 48 hours that an incarcerated individual’s package has been delivered to the incarcerated individual property room for inspection and inventory.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The incoming property delivered to a correctional facility as a package for an incarcerated individual may not be held for inspection and inventory for more than 7 business days, except when it contains contraband or exceeds the allowable property amount as set forth in COMAR 12.02.17.02.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Legal Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Incoming or outgoing mail that is marked as, or purports to constitute, legal mail but does not meet the definition of legal mail shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Refused and returned to sender; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If reasonable cause exists to believe that the mail has been sent for a fraudulent or criminal purpose, forwarded to the Department’s Intelligence and Investigative Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When legal mail is delivered to an incarcerated individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It shall be delivered to the incarcerated individual to whom it is addressed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Mailroom staff; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Non-mail-room staff authorized to deliver mail to an incarcerated individual;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Mailroom staff shall log receipt and disposition of the legal mail in accordance with facility procedures for logging incarcerated individual legal mail which, at a minimum, records:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The date received by the mailroom;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The incarcerated individual’s name, identification number, and housing assignment verified by the facility’s traffic and housing assignment report;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The sender’s name and address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The number of legal mail items being delivered to an incarcerated individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The incarcerated individual’s acceptance or refusal of the legal mail; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If appropriate, the disposition of legal mail refused by an incarcerated individual;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Mailroom staff shall make a photocopy of the envelope containing the legal mail; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Mailroom and correctional staff delivering the legal mail to an incarcerated individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Properly identify an incarcerated individual by inspecting an incarcerated individual’s facility identification card and the information from the traffic and housing assignment reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Open the envelope in the presence of the incarcerated individual to whom it is addressed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Without specifically reading the contents, inspect the enclosed contents for contraband only;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Deliver the contents and the photocopy of the envelope used to send the legal mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Have an incarcerated individual sign a receipt for the delivery of legal mail or, if appropriate, a refusal to accept the legal mail; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Return the original envelope and the receipt or refusal for legal mail to the mailroom for disposition according to facility procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Limiting Mail Volume."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>As stated in Regulation .02 of this chapter, the volume of general mail an incarcerated individual sends or receives may not be limited unless there is substantial justification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official, or designee, shall make the decision to limit the volume of an incarcerated individual’s general mail on a case-by-case basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Just cause for limiting the volume of mail an incarcerated individual sends or receives includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An increased and substantiated risk for the introduction of contraband to the correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Placement of an undue burden upon mailroom staff to inspect and process an incarcerated individual’s mail within the allotted time frames; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If delivered, the volume of received mail would cause an incarcerated individual to exceed the limits of an incarcerated individual’s personal property allowance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Notification of General Mail Volume Being Limited.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff shall provide an incarcerated individual and, if applicable, the sender with two copies of a written notification that describes the limitations to be placed on the volume of an incarcerated individual’s general mail, and set forth the reasons for the limitations in detail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The notification constitutes a written report signed by the managing official of the decision to limit the volume of an incarcerated individual’s general mail and shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A summary of the evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The reason for the decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The facts upon which the decision is based.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Staff shall provide the written notification to an incarcerated individual and the sender, if applicable, within 48 hours of the managing official placing the limitation on an incarcerated individual’s general mail volume.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Staff shall advise an incarcerated individual and, if applicable, the sender that a written appeal may be filed within 10 business days from the date an incarcerated individual is notified of the managing official’s decision to limit the incarcerated individual’s volume of mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The notification provides a section for the incarcerated individual or sender to appeal the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>General Mail Exceeding the Permissible Volume.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an incarcerated individual for whom a volume limit has been set is sent an amount of general mail that exceeds the permissible volume and the excess portion can be reasonably severed then staff shall give the incarcerated individual to whom the item is addressed the choice of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Returning the mail as a whole; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Receiving the acceptable portion and disposing of the excess portion by selecting one of the methods listed under §E(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An incarcerated individual may choose to dispose of the excess portion of general mail by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Destroying it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Returning it to the sender or sending it to an address specified by an incarcerated individual at an incarcerated individual’s expense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Donating it to a charity; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Arranging for it to be picked up by a visitor in accordance with established procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the sender has not previously been notified of the managing official’s decision to limit the volume of the incarcerated individual’s mail, the incarcerated individual or the sender, or both, may appeal to the managing official as set forth in §F of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Appeal Process for Limitations on Volume of Received General Mail.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an incarcerated individual or sender objects to the limitation, the incarcerated individual or sender, or both, may, not more than 10 business days after receipt of managing official’s written decision under §D(5) of this regulation, file an appeal with the managing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pending the outcome of the appeal process through the incarcerated individual grievance process, correctional staff shall securely store the excess volume of mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The managing official shall respond to an incarcerated individual and sender’s appeal within 5 business days of receipt of the appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a managing official fails to respond to an appeal within 5 business days, the incarcerated individual or the sender, or both, may appeal to the Commissioner or Director, as applicable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Staff shall send a written notification to the incarcerated individual and, if applicable, the sender that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The managing official’s decision regarding the appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Information on how to appeal the managing official’s decision to the Commissioner or Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Not more than 5 business days after receiving the managing official’s response to the appeal or the failure of the managing official to respond to an appeal, the incarcerated individual or sender, or both, may send a written appeal of the managing official’s decision, or failure to respond, to the Commissioner or Director, as applicable, and state the reasons for the appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Within 5 business days of receiving the incarcerated individual or sender’s written appeal, the Commissioner or Director, as applicable, shall affirm, reverse, or modify the managing official’s decision to limit the volume of an incarcerated individual’s mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An incarcerated individual may appeal the Commissioner’s or Director’s response to the Incarcerated Individual Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Withholding Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official, or designee, shall make the decision to withhold mail on an item-by-item basis, and an item excluded on one occasion may not be routinely excluded on another occasion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official, or designee, may not withhold an incarcerated individual’s mail for religious, philosophical, political, social, or sexual content, unless it meets the definition of sexually explicit mail as set forth in Regulation .01 of this chapter, or because the content of the incarcerated individual’s mail is unpopular or repugnant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Incoming mail as set forth in Regulation .05 of this chapter may be withheld:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As a whole if the mail in its entirety is subject to rejection; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In part if only a portion or a particular section or item within the mail is subject to rejection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Notification of Mail Being Withheld.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Staff shall provide an incarcerated individual and the sender with two copies of a written notification that describes the contraband information or materials that are being withheld, and set forth the reason for withholding the mail in detail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The notification constitutes a written report of the managing official’s decision to withhold the contraband information or materials in a piece of mail, and the notification shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A summary of the evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The reason for the decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The facts upon which the decision is based.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Staff shall provide the written notification to an incarcerated individual within 48 hours after the managing official’s decision to withhold contraband information or materials from an incarcerated individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The written notification provides a section for the sender or incarcerated individual to appeal the managing official’s decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the rejected portion can be reasonably severed, and before removal of any portion of the piece of mail, staff shall give an incarcerated individual to whom the mail is addressed the choice of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Returning the mail as a whole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Receiving the acceptable portion and disposing of the rejected portion by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Destroying it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sending it to an address specified by an incarcerated individual at an incarcerated individual’s expense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Donating it to a charity; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Arranging for it to be picked up by a visitor in accordance with established procedures;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Disposing of the mail as a whole by selecting one of the methods listed under §E(2)of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Appealing to the managing official.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Appeal Process for Withheld Mail.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the rejected portion of the mail cannot be severed, can be severed, or if the mail is being withheld in its entirety, and the incarcerated individual to whom the mail is addressed chooses to appeal, staff shall advise an incarcerated individual and, if applicable, the sender that a written appeal may be filed within 10 business days from the date an incarcerated individual is notified of the managing official’s decision to limit the incarcerated individual’s volume of mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pending the outcome of the appeal process, correctional staff shall securely store the withheld mail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The managing official shall respond within 5 business days to an incarcerated individual or sender’s appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a managing official fails to respond to an appeal within 5 business days of receipt, the incarcerated individual or the sender, or both, may send a written appeal of the withholding decision to the Commissioner or Director, as applicable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Staff shall send a written notification to the incarcerated individual and, if applicable, the sender that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The managing official’s decision regarding the appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Information on how to appeal the managing official’s decision to the Commissioner or Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Commissioner or Director, as applicable, shall affirm, reverse, or modify the managing official’s decision within 5 business days of receiving the incarcerated individual or sender’s written appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An incarcerated individual may appeal the Commissioner’s or Director’s response to the Incarcerated Individual Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>If the decision of the managing official, Commissioner, or Director, in cases when an appeal is taken, is that mail as a whole shall be withheld from an incarcerated individual, staff shall dispose of the mail by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sending the mail at an incarcerated individual’s expense to the sender or to any addressee an incarcerated individual chooses; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Disposing of the mail in a manner specified by an incarcerated individual and approved by the managing official.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>If only a portion of the mail is withheld, the rejected portion shall be removed and the remainder delivered to the incarcerated individual within 5 business days after the final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The withheld and removed portion of the mail shall be handled as set forth in §I of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Undeliverable Mail."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If mail is received for an incarcerated individual for whom no forwarding address is available, or if an incarcerated individual has escaped or died, staff shall return the first-class and legal mail to the sender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unless the postal endorsement requires forwarding or return to sender, staff shall discard undeliverable second-class and third-class mail addressed to an incarcerated individual not assigned to the correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Additional Requirements of the Managing Official."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A managing official shall ensure that employees who handle incarcerated individual mail are familiar with the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A managing official shall develop a correctional facility mail security plan that, at minimum, addresses:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Risk assessment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A plan to protect staff and other individuals from hazards that may be delivered in the mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Standard operating procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Security screening procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Training of mailroom staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Testing and preparedness responses to emergency situations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Threat management; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Annual reviews of a correctional facility’s mail security plan.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109(c), 3-205, and 4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 19, 2024 (51:3 Md. R. 154)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Fees for Fire Prevention Services" reason="Transferred to COMAR 29.06.04" /> </subtitle> <subtitle num="04" heading="Police Training and Standards Commission"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Academy” means a college, school, training unit, or training facility approved or certified by the Commission under this chapter to conduct police officer entrance-level training programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Application for certification (AFC)” means a form approved by the Commission that is an official record verifying that an applicant has met the applicable Commission selection standards for a position as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Agency Head.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Agency head” means:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A police chief, sheriff, administrator, department head, an individual in an equivalent position, or designee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An individual appointed, employed, or elected to manage, administer, or supervise a law enforcement agency, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Agency head” includes a director of an academy, personnel unit, or training unit, or designee authorized to act in employment or training matters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Cannabimimetic agent” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Certification” means the legal authority under Public Safety Article, §3-209, Annotated Code of Maryland, conferred by the Commission, authorizing an individual to exercise law enforcement powers and enforce the criminal laws of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Commission.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training and Standards Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Commission” includes all references to Police Training Commission, now known as the Police Training and Standards Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Controlled Dangerous Substance.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance”, unless specified otherwise, has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance”, unless specified otherwise, includes substances identified under Criminal Law Article, §5-708, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance” does not include medication supported by prescription if used, received, or distributed without criminal intent and for legitimate medical purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“First-line administrator” means a police officer promoted to a position that is designated by the law enforcement agency as exercising first-line administrative powers as defined under Public Safety Article, §3-215, Annotated Code of Maryland, for police administrator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“First-line supervisor” means a police officer promoted to a position that is designated by the law enforcement agency as exercising first-line supervisory powers as defined under Public Safety Article, §3-215, Annotated Code of Maryland, for police supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Law Enforcement Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated under Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” includes a training or personnel unit authorized to act in training or employment matters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Marijuana.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Marijuana” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Marijuana” does not include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Synthetic cannabinoids; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Cannabimimetic agents.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Mental Health Professional.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Mental health professional” means an individual who is certified by the appropriate health occupations board, as provided by the Health Occupations Article, §1-102, Annotated Code of Maryland, and licensed to practice:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Medicine;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Psychology;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Clinical social work; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Clinical professional counseling.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Mental health professional”, unless specifically stated otherwise in this chapter, includes an individual referred to as a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Psychiatrist licensed to practice medicine as defined in Health Occupations Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Psychologist licensed to practice psychology as defined in Health Occupations Article, §18-101, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Licensed certified social worker-clinical authorized to practice clinical social work as defined in Health Occupations Article, §19-101, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Certified professional counselor licensed to practice clinical professional counseling as defined in Health Occupations Article, §17-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Motorcycle” has the meaning stated in Transportation Article, §11-136, Annotated Code of Maryland, and is designated as an emergency vehicle in accordance with Transportation Article, §11-118(1), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Narcotic drug” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Nonofficer Status.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Nonofficer status” means a situation in which a police officer, who continues to be employed by a law enforcement agency, is temporarily relieved of law enforcement powers by the law enforcement agency:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>For medical or administrative reasons that prevent the officer from completing Commission-required training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>For the purpose of suspending Commission-required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Nonofficer status” does not affect the officer's certification or eligibility for certification or recertification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>Probationary Period.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Probationary period” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-215, Annotated Code of Maryland, for probationary appointment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>"Probationary period' does not relate to or restrict a probationary period that may be imposed by the hiring agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Provisional certification” means the probationary appointment of an individual as a police officer under Public Safety Article, §3-215, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Psychological evaluation” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The administration of an assessment instrument with documented reliability, validity, and other empirical evidence intended to measure, at a minimum, an individual’s integrity, ethics, and interpersonal communication skills; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An in-person interview performed by a mental health professional as defined in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Supplemental information” means information in the possession of a law enforcement agency, or that becomes known to the Commission, concerning an individual who is a police officer or an applicant for certification as a police officer that indicates the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May not have the ability to perform the duties of a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not meet a qualification for the police officer selection standards under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has exhibited behavior reflecting a lack of honesty or integrity; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Has separated from employment:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Involuntarily; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Prior to issues being resolved that are related to the individual’s eligibility to continue the employment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Synthetic cannabinoid” means a human-made psychoactive substance or cannabimimetic agent that is a liquid that can be vaporized or inhaled, applied to a dry material such as shredded plant material or paper so that it can be smoked, or consumed with or without food or drink.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Temporary certification” means a time-limited provisional certification authorized by the Commission for a previously certified applicant for recertification when that applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is employed by another law enforcement agency within 90 days of separation in good standing from the previous law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Meets applicable Commission standards.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Truth verification device” means electronic equipment or technology designed and validated to test the veracity of an individual's statements or answers to questions by analyzing the physical reaction of the individual providing the statement or answering questions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Requirements and Processing and Recording Employment Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Completion of Application for Certification (AFC).</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall complete an AFC for a police officer hired by a law enforcement agency in the State when applying for provisional certification or certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accurately completing the AFC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Submitting the AFC to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign the AFC, certifying that the Commission's selection standards have been met; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Date the applicant completed the certification requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency head's telephone number.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>False or misrepresented information on the AFC is a basis for rejection or revocation of certification by the Commission and may be the basis for separate administrative or legal action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Filing the AFC.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall submit the AFC to the Commission if the agency head has, within 1 year before submitting the AFC:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Completed or verified for the applicant each of the selection standards as required under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Determined that the applicant meets each of the selection standards under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall issue a provisional certification or certify the applicant as a police officer after receipt of the properly completed AFC indicating the completion of applicable Commission selection standards under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An applicant for certification as a police officer may not legally exercise the authority of a police officer until the applicant is issued a provisional certification or certification by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Notification of Change of Employment or Certification Status.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall notify the Commission in writing whenever a police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is separated from employment as a police officer, by death, retirement, dismissal, reclassification to a civilian position, or resignation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Becomes ineligible under federal or Maryland law to possess or use a handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Changes the police officer's legal name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Is promoted to first-line supervisor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Is promoted to first-line administrator; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Is placed on nonofficer status for more than 30 days when that status prevents the officer from meeting the Commission's training standards.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall report changes in a police officer's status under this section within 30 days of the change in a format or on a form approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall include in the notification under §C(2) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The certified police officer's name and Commission-assigned identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date of the action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A statement indicating the change in status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>In the case of separation as a police officer, information indicating whether, at the time of the separation or placement on nonofficer status, the police officer was under:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Criminal or administrative investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Indictment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Formal charges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Suspension; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Other similar action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Criminal Charges.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall notify the Commission when a police officer is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Convicted of a felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Convicted of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for 1 year or more; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Separated from employment while criminal charges filed against the police officer were pending and any pending charge was a felony, or misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for 1 year or more.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head shall include in the notification under §C(4)(a) of this regulation information concerning the conviction or allegations being reported.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An agency head shall submit the notification under §C(4)(a) of this regulation to the Commission, on a form or in a format approved by the Commission, within 10 days of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The date the conviction for the criminal charges became known to the agency head; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Separation from employment as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An agency head shall make the notification under §C(4)(a) of this regulation regardless of the outcome of administrative plea negotiation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Audit and Records.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission has the legal authority to audit records of selection standards and training provided according to this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A law enforcement agency or academy shall retain records of an individual's training for a minimum of 3 years from the date the individual completed the training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Provisional Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may grant an applicant a provisional certification after the applicant meets applicable selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant for certification as a police officer may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Exercise the authority of a police officer to enforce the criminal laws of Maryland unless the Commission has issued the individual a provisional certification or certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Carry or use a firearm unless the individual has successfully completed firearms training and qualification requirements under Regulation .09H of this chapter and COMAR 12.04.02.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual who is granted a provisional certification may not exercise the authority of a police officer beyond the period that the provisional certification is valid, unless the individual is granted certification as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Provisional certification is valid until:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>365 cumulative days have elapsed from the initial date of provisional certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>It is determined that applicable selection standards have not been met;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The officer is certified as a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The police officer's employment is terminated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission recalls the provisional certification under Public Safety Article, §3-213, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A provisional certification under this regulation may be issued to an individual who was formerly certified as a police officer who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has not been employed as a police officer with a law enforcement agency for over 3 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meets the applicable selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Probationary Period.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>After an individual has met selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter and received a provisional certification, the Commission shall grant a probationary period of up to 365 days to the police officer to perform law enforcement duties while awaiting the opportunity to obtain the required training under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The probationary period begins on the day that a police officer receives provisional certification from the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The 365-day period is cumulative and may not be increased by multiple employments at different law enforcement agencies or periodic employment with the same law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a police officer transfers as a new employee from one law enforcement agency to another before successfully completing the required entrance-level training, the probationary period continues from the date of the first provisional appointment, minus any time not employed as a police officer for a law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Selection Standards for Provisional Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Age. An applicant for the position of police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be 21 years old or older to be eligible for provisional certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May attend an academy while younger than 21 years old but may not perform law enforcement duties until the applicant is 21 years old and provisionally certified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Citizenship. An applicant for the position of police officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be either:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A United States citizen; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A permanent legal resident of the United States who:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Is an honorably discharged veteran of the United States Armed Forces; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Has submitted an application for United States citizenship that is pending approval; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit documents to the hiring law enforcement agency that support a claim of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Citizenship; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Permanent legal residency and proof of a pending application for United States citizenship.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Education.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant for the position of police officer shall possess a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>High school diploma issued by a high school or recognized by the State Board of Education; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>General Education Development (GED) certificate or diploma:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Issued by Maryland or another state, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Recognized by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The law enforcement agency may accept a college degree in place of the requirements under §C(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>In the absence of a copy of a diploma, an agency head may accept a certified transcript indicating that an applicant successfully completed the requirements for graduation from a high school or college.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An agency head shall maintain a copy of the appropriate diploma or other acceptable documentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a GED test was taken outside Maryland or while in the military service, and no certificate or diploma has been issued by a state:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An applicant shall submit a copy of the GED test scores to the agency head; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The test results may be accepted by the Commission if they are consistent with the requirements established by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The agency head hiring the applicant shall indicate the appropriate information documenting the applicant's completion of the education requirements on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual may not be a police officer applicant, or maintain police officer certification, unless the individual is eligible under federal and Maryland law to possess and use a handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Background Investigations and Criminal History.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall perform a background investigation and criminal history investigation, including a fingerprint check, according to the requirements under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>As part of the background investigation, an agency head shall investigate an applicant's prior use of controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana as specified under Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Physical and Mental Health Examinations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before an applicant may be selected for a position as a police officer, the applicant shall be examined by and receive a recommendation from a licensed, trained, and qualified medical doctor indicating that the applicant is physically able to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Perform the duties of a police officer as determined by the employing law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Participate in the entrance-level training program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before an applicant may be selected for a position as a police officer, a mental health professional shall conduct a psychological evaluation of the applicant and offer a positive recommendation indicating that the applicant is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Emotionally and mentally fit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Able to perform the duties of a police officer as these duties are determined by the law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Certification of Results.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall include, on the AFC, the following information concerning the licensed, trained, and qualified medical doctor and mental health care professional examining the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Date of the examination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The agency head hiring the applicant shall maintain documentation concerning the examinations required under this section supporting that the applicant is physically and mentally and emotionally fit for the duties of a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Oral Interview.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Require an oral interview to assess the applicant's ability to communicate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record the date of the interview and the name of the interviewer on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall maintain a record of the interview.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Drug Screening.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant shall receive a drug screening to test for controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana as specified in Regulation .15 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hiring agency head shall maintain a record of the drug screening results and record the results on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the test results exceed the levels under Regulation .15 of this chapter, the Commission may not certify the applicant unless the positive screen for a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drugs, or marijuana was determined to be the result of a legitimate ingestion or exposure as established under Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Driver's License and Driving Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant shall possess a valid driver's license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head hiring the applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Perform a check of the applicant's driving record and maintain a copy of the results; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record on the AFC the applicant's driver's license number, the state of issue, and an indication that the driving record has been reviewed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>This regulation does not prohibit an agency head from establishing more restrictive standards than those of the Commission for selection of an applicant for the position of police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>An agency head may submit a request for a waiver of standards under this regulation according to the requirements under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Background Investigation and Criminal History."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Background Investigation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or authorized agency under §A(7) of this regulation shall perform a comprehensive background investigation to determine if an applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is of good moral character and reputation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is emotionally stable; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Displays the behavior necessary to perform the duties of a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall ensure that a background investigation includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A check of military records, when applicable, including obtaining a complete copy of the discharge document;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A report from a credit agency regarding the applicant's current and past credit history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An examination of school records or interviews with school officials if the applicant attended school within the last 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Interviews of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Personal references furnished by the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Neighbors of the applicant within the past 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Current and past employers within the last 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Coworkers within the last 5 years; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>An investigation of the prior use of controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana by the applicant as specified under Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall use the background investigation to determine whether information concerning the applicant's citizenship, mental and emotional fitness, and other information is valid and the applicant is otherwise capable of performing law enforcement duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Interviews may be conducted:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>By telephone;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>By using an agency form and questionnaire that the interviewer or individual interviewed is required to complete; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>By using other lawful methods designed to elicit useful information from an individual concerning the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Personal Interview.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A personal interview conducted as part of a background investigation is considered appropriate when an interviewee is available within 50 miles of the law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Personal references and others residing outside the State may be contacted by correspondence or telephone.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Out-of-State Applicants.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>When the applicant has resided or been employed out-of-State, the background investigation may be performed by an appropriate law enforcement agency or a legitimate private background investigation agency in that area where the applicant lived or worked outside the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an applicant has been employed as a police officer for the federal government or in another state, the agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Report the law enforcement agency's name and jurisdiction on the AFC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Forward with the AFC any supplemental information obtained from the previous out-of-State law enforcement agency or any other source.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Investigations by Other Agencies.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The hiring law enforcement agency may conduct the background investigation or may authorize another individual, office, or agency to conduct the background investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Maryland State Police or a local law enforcement agency may assist the hiring law enforcement agency in the background investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If an applicant has received a special police commission, background information used during the investigation for the special police commission may be applied when the information meets the requirements of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An agency head hiring an applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Maintain a record of the background investigation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record the results on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Supplemental Information.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If Supplemental information is developed, the agency head shall submit details with the AFC to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may refuse to certify the applicant based upon written verified supplemental information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Criminal Record Checks and Fingerprints.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head submitting an AFC for an applicant to be certified as a police officer shall require that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be fingerprinted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Apply to the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services for a State and national criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An applicant applying for a criminal history records check under this section shall request that the results of the criminal history records check be provided to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Agency submitting the AFC for the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Record of Criminal Conviction. If the results of the criminal history records check reveal that an applicant has been convicted or otherwise found guilty of a felony, or a misdemeanor for which a sentence of imprisonment for 1 year or more could have been imposed, the Commission shall include available information concerning the conviction with Commission records related to the applicant’s AFC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission shall notify the applicant that the applicant may contest the contents of the criminal history records check in accordance with Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission may refuse to certify an applicant based on supplemental information resulting from the criminal history records check or other verified reliable source.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Police Officer Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Certification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall certify an individual as a police officer who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets all selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Completes the applicable training under Regulation .09 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Completes a field training program under Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recertification. The Commission shall recertify an individual formerly certified as a police officer in Maryland who meets:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Applicable training standards under Regulation .07 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A certified police officer who fails to obtain United States citizenship as set forth in Regulation .04 of this chapter within 3 years shall be reviewed by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification Period. The Commission shall certify an individual who meets the Commission's selection and training standards as a police officer for an initial period based on a schedule determined by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Renewal of Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall automatically renew a police officer's certification, without application, on or before the expiration of the certification, if the police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Remains employed with the same law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Continues to meet the Commission's selection and training standards for a police officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has not had the certification suspended, revoked, or recalled by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Once the initial period of certification is established, subsequent renewal of a police officer's certification shall be based on a schedule determined by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a police officer's certification is to expire because the police officer did not meet Commission training standards, at least 30 days before the certification expires, the Commission shall notify the police officer's agency head of the pending expiration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An agency head receiving notification under §C(3) of this regulation is responsible for notifying the police officer within a reasonable amount of time of the pending expiration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a police officer's certification expires, is revoked, or is terminated, the police officer's agency head shall ensure that the individual does not perform the law enforcement duties of a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Certification Card.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall issue a certification card:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To a police officer who has met all Commission certification requirements under this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That contains information in a form determined by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Issuing a certification card to a police officer indicates the police officer's authority to enforce the criminal laws of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Replacement of and costs for replacing a previously issued, current certification card is the responsibility of the law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Unless determined to be inappropriate by the agency head due to operational assignment, such as covert operations, a police officer shall carry the certification card at all times while the police officer is on duty status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A certification card issued by the Commission expires at midnight on the date printed on the card or upon termination of employment as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Request for Training Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before a police officer's certification expires, the Commission shall require the police officer's agency head to verify the police officer's training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall provide the Commission with the training records requested under §E(1) of this regulation before the Commission issues a new certification card for the police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Return of Certification Card.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall return a certification card issued under this chapter to the Commission within 30 working days of the date when a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Police officer separates from employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Police officer's certification is suspended, revoked, or recalled by the Commission under this chapter or Public Safety Article, §§3-212—3-213, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall retain the certification card of a police officer on nonofficer status until the police officer returns to active duty or is separated from employment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Multiple Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual may be employed as a police officer by more than one law enforcement agency at the same time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For each law enforcement agency at which an individual is employed as a police officer, the individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet applicable Commission-required selection and training standards for certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be certified at each law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Be issued a certification card by the Commission for each law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head hiring a currently certified police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May use some of the results of the background investigation performed by the initial employing law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shall perform new local, State, and national fingerprint checks and a new drug screening.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A police officer working as a police officer at multiple law enforcement agencies:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall meet applicable Commission training standards as if employed at one law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May meet Commission training requirements through training provided by one or more employing law enforcement agencies.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The police officer shall meet the Commission's firearms qualification and training requirements for the firearm authorized by each law enforcement agency employing the police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Commission shall notify each agency head employing the same police officer when the Commission issues multiple certifications for a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Waivers. An individual may be eligible for a waiver of certain entrance-level training requirements under Regulation .14E of this chapter if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Was employed within the last 5 years as a police officer in another state or for the federal government and completed a basic police officer entrance-level training program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Completed a basic police officer entrance-level training program within the last 2 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Temporary Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall issue a temporary certification to an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Previously certified as a police officer in Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hired as a police officer by another law enforcement agency within 90 days of separation from employment with a law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Separated from employment with the previous law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Who meets applicable:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter, except for completion of a national or State fingerprint check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Training standards under Regulation .07B(3) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A temporary certification shall expire upon:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certification as a police officer by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Separation of employment as a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Discovery of a criminal conviction through the local, national, or State fingerprint check that disqualifies the police officer from certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Passage of 90 days after the appointment date of the individual as a police officer at the law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Commission determines that the local, national, or State fingerprint check results have not been received by the law enforcement agency through no fault of the law enforcement agency, the Commission may issue a second temporary certification for an additional 90 days at the same law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Police Officer Recertification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant for recertification as a police officer if the applicant was previously certified as a police officer when:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Hired by a second or successive law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission receives a completed AFC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The applicant meets applicable Commission-required:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Training standards under §§B, C, D, or E of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Field training standards under Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Police Officer Recertification — 3 Years or Less Since the Applicant Was Last Certified as a Police Officer.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant previously certified as a police officer in Maryland if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It has been 3 years or less since the applicant was certified as a police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>By the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>With a law enforcement agency in another state or the federal government; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The applicant meets the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In-service training requirements under §B(3) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>If the applicant was last certified as a police officer with a law enforcement agency in another state or the federal government, training requirements under Regulation .14E(7) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Temporary Certification. The Commission may grant temporary certification to an individual previously certified as a police officer if the individual meets all the requirements under Regulation .06I of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>In-service Training Requirements Before Police Officer Recertification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If an applicant under this section has met in-service training requirements for the previous or current calendar year, additional in-service training is not required for recertification under this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an applicant under this section has not met in-service training requirements for the previous or current calendar year, the applicant shall successfully complete in-service training required under Regulation .12 of this chapter before recertification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Firearms Training—Requirements Before Police Officer Recertification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An applicant for recertification under this section who has qualified with an authorized firearm at the hiring law enforcement agency in the last 3 calendar years shall complete Commission-approved annual firearms training and qualification before recertification as a police officer at the hiring law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an applicant for recertification under this section has not qualified with an authorized firearm for 3 or more consecutive calendar years immediately preceding application for recertification at the hiring law enforcement agency, before being authorized to carry or use a firearm the applicant shall complete Commission-approved:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms training and firearms qualification under COMAR 12.04.02.06; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Firearms refresher training and firearms qualification under §B(4)(c) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms Refresher Training. Firearms refresher training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Be specific to the firearms the applicant is required to use or carry;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Be a minimum of 16 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Provide a minimum of 2 hours of classroom review of the topics required under COMAR 12.04.02.06 or .09 that may be counted toward the current year's annual in-service requirement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Require the applicant to obtain a minimum score of 70 percent on a written examination of the material covered in the firearms refresher training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Require the applicant to meet firearm qualification standards on the appropriate day-fire and reduced light firearms qualification courses for each type of firearm established under COMAR 12.04.02.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Police Officer Recertification — After More Than 3 Years and Not More Than 5 Years Since the Applicant Was Last Certified as a Police Officer.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant previously certified as a police officer in Maryland if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It has been more than 3 years and not more than 5 years, since the applicant was certified as a police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>By the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>With a law enforcement agency in another state or the federal government; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The applicant meets:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Applicable selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Training required under Regulation .14E(7) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Annual in-service training under Regulation .12 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may grant provisional certification under Regulation .03 of this chapter after the applicant has met selection standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Police Officer Recertification — After More Than 5 Years Since the Applicant Was Last Certified as a Police Officer.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant previously certified as a police officer in Maryland if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It has been more than 5 years since the applicant was certified as a police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>By the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>With a law enforcement agency in another state or the federal government; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Meets selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Successfully completes entrance-level training requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may grant provisional certification under Regulation .03 of this chapter to an individual after meeting selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An applicant granted provisional certification may not perform as a police officer beyond the 365-day probationary period until completion of the entrance-level training under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An applicant shall complete the entrance-level firearms training and qualification under Regulation .09 of this chapter and COMAR 12.04.02 before being authorized to carry or being issued a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a recertified police officer is appointed to a first-line supervisory or administrative level position and has not completed the respective approved first-line supervisor or administrator training program under Regulation .13 of this chapter, the police officer shall complete an approved first-line supervisor or administrator training program within 1 year of the date of appointment to the supervisory or administrative level.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Selection Standards for Recertification as a Police Officer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A police officer who has previously received a provisional certification or certification as a police officer may be recertified by the Commission after meeting applicable standards specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Requirements for Recertification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Information to be Obtained for a Recertification Applicant. An agency head, or a designee, shall obtain information for an applicant for recertification by performing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A fingerprint check at the local level or a check of the NCIC files;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>State and national fingerprint checks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A drug screening under Regulation .15 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A check of the applicant's driving record, including verification that the applicant possesses a valid driving license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A check with the applicant's previous law enforcement agency to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Determine the reason for separation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Assess past work performance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Ensure that the applicant's separation was in good standing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The physical and mental health examinations required under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>An investigation:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>For prior use and other activities related to controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana by the applicant as specified under Regulation .16 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>To determine that an applicant is eligible under federal and Maryland law to possess and use a handgun under Regulation .04D of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Required Additional Information for Certain Applicants for Recertification. If an applicant for recertification has not been employed as a police officer by a law enforcement agency within the last 90 days or more before applying for recertification, in addition to the information required under §B(1) of this regulation, the hiring agency head, or a designee, shall perform the following to obtain information related to the applicant for the period since the applicant was last employed as a police officer by a law enforcement agency:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A check with each of the applicant's employers during the period of absence from law enforcement duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A check with coworkers during the period of absence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Interviews of personal references and neighbors.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hiring agency head shall maintain records as required under Regulation .02 of this chapter to verify that Commission-required selection standards have been met.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The hiring agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete the AFC to verify that applicable Commission-required selection standards for reappointment have been met; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward the AFC to the Commission with copies of any supplemental information discovered during the investigation or from any other source.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Review of Previous Background Investigations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a hiring agency head does not conduct a full background investigation, the agency head shall review the records of the background investigation of an applicant conducted by the previous law enforcement agency to ensure that a complete and accurate investigation was performed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hiring agency head is responsible for correcting omissions and discrepancies by the previous law enforcement agency in a prior investigation that was conducted in conjunction with an AFC submitted to the Commission by a law enforcement agency less than 5 years previously.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If records of a previous background investigation are not available, the hiring agency head shall conduct a full background investigation as required under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Minimum Standards for Entrance-Level Training for Police Officers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant for certification as a police officer shall successfully complete an entrance-level training program approved by the Commission before the Commission may certify the applicant as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A Commission-approved entrance-level training program is a minimum of 850 hours.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission may permit hours used to meet entrance-level firearms training and qualification requirements under COMAR 12.04.02 to be used as part of the 850-hour minimum under §A(2) of this regulation, regardless of whether the activity is conducted contemporaneously with or separate from the entrance-level training program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission may not permit field training requirements under Regulation .17 of this chapter to be used as part of the 850-hour minimum under §A(2) of this regulation, regardless of whether the activity is conducted contemporaneously with or separate from the entrance-level training program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The entrance-level program shall be approved by the Commission and include the subject areas and minimum hours specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Commission-Required Subject Areas.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For the Commission to approve an entrance-level training program for police officers, the entrance-level training program shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Organizational principles and law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Patrol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Traffic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criminal investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Emergency medical care, which shall also provide training in lifesaving techniques, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Communications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Report writing and composition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Crime prevention;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Crisis intervention;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Protective strategies and tactics, including training in the proper level and use of force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Emergency vehicle operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Prisoner processing and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Courtroom preparation and testimony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Health and wellness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Terrorism and weapons of mass destruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>Sensitivity to cultural and gender diversity; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(q)"> <text>Individuals with physical, intellectual, developmental, and psychiatric disabilities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Police officer firearms training and qualification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May be included in police officer entrance-level training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If police officer firearms training and qualification is included in police officer entrance-level training, shall be separately approved by the Commission according to the requirements under COMAR 12.04.02.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Commission-Required Performance Objectives.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Minimum Performance Objectives. For the Commission to approve an entrance-level training program for police officers, the entrance-level training program shall include activities to ensure that the applicant for police officer certification has met performance objectives that are:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Composed and sanctioned by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Based on a Statewide job task analysis and that address those tasks considered essential for law enforcement officers in Maryland, regardless of law enforcement agency or assignment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall furnish a copy of the performance objectives upon request by a law enforcement agency, academy, or school.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The training director of a law enforcement agency, an academy, or a school responsible for police officer entrance-level training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Cover the Commission performance objectives during entrance-level training exactly as written by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Determine the sequence, content, and duration of training required to cover the Commission's performance objectives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Successful Completion of Commission-Approved Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The training director of an academy shall conduct testing to verify that an applicant for certification as a police officer has learned or can perform each of the Commission's performance objectives.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>One or more objectives may be addressed by relevant single or multiple demonstrations or questions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An applicant for certification as a police officer shall achieve a minimum overall score of 70 percent in each subject area in §C of this regulation. The training director, or a designee, shall maintain accurate records of tests and testing procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>At the conclusion of entrance-level training, the training director shall verify in writing to the Commission that an applicant has met the requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Transfer of Academy Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Credit for training received may be transferred from one academy to another at the discretion of the academy receiving the credit for training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The training director of the academy submitting notification in writing to the Commission that the applicant has met the requirements under this regulation is responsible for verifying completion of all Commission training objectives for that applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An applicant absent for more than 5 percent of entrance-level training is not considered to have successfully completed the entrance-level training unless the training director and the Deputy Director determine that sufficient work has been completed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An applicant shall meet the minimum qualification standard for certification in an emergency medical care program that has been approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A training director for an academy may require an applicant to meet entrance-level training requirements, standards, and objectives that exceed Commission minimum requirements, standards, and objectives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Failure to Complete Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The training director shall notify the applicant's law enforcement agency if the applicant does not complete the entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an applicant does not meet the requirements for Commission-approved entrance-level training, the Commission may not certify the applicant as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Waiver of Commission Entrance-Level Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency that serves a unique function in law enforcement may be granted an exemption from a portion of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall submit a request for an exemption and the appropriate documentation according to the requirements under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An applicant for certification by the Commission as a police officer who has completed entrance-level training in another state or for the federal government may be eligible to receive a waiver from a portion of the Commission-required entrance-level training upon:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meeting the requirements under Regulation .14E(8) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Meeting other requirements approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Entrance-Level Firearms Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A police officer who is required to use or carry a firearm shall successfully meet Commission-required performance objectives and standards of the entrance-level firearms training and qualification under COMAR 12.04.02 before using or carrying a firearm as part of the police officer's duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The entrance-level firearms training and qualification may be completed concurrently with or as a separate activity from an entrance-level training program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Standards for an Applicant's Admission to an Academy Providing Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In addition to Commission requirements, an applicant attending entrance-level training shall meet the qualification standards set by the law enforcement academy conducting the entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For an individual to attend a law enforcement academy, the law enforcement agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Obtain a physical examination by a licensed medical doctor to determine whether the applicant is physically fit to participate in the academy training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Perform a check of the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) files before the applicant is admitted to the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hiring agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide an applicant with a copy of the selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Require the applicant to acknowledge in writing that completion of the entrance-level training is not a guarantee of certification as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Commission Requirements for an Academy or School Providing Commission-Required Police Officer Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Training Environment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An academy offering police officer training required by the Commission for police officer certification shall be approved by the Commission before providing the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In order for the Commission to approve an academy offering police officer training required by the Commission for police officer certification, the academy shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide an atmosphere that supports learning;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have proper lighting, ventilation, and acoustics; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Meet applicable local, State, and federal health and safety requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If practical, the academy shall provide:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least 25 square feet of classroom space for each candidate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Locker space for each individual attending;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Appropriate desk space, work tables, and seating to support classroom and other related learning activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Storage for learning and training material; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Instructional and training equipment and material to support the training provided.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unless an individual is exempt from Commission certification under COMAR 12.04.06 or 12.10.06, only an individual certified as an instructor by the Commission or the Correctional Training Commission may provide police officer training required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Entrance-Level Training Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant attending police officer entrance-level training required for certification as a police officer shall be excused from routine duties at the hiring law enforcement agency and receive regular salary while attending police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Personal Conduct While Attending Police Officer Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The training director of the academy providing the approved police officer entrance-level training is responsible for the personal conduct of each applicant attending that academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The training director, or a designee, shall function as the commanding officer for the class.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The training director shall provide each applicant attending the police officer entrance-level training with a copy of the rules or regulations governing the applicant's daily activities and behavior while attending the academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The disciplinary regulations of the host academy apply to each applicant attending the academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The training director shall notify the applicant's agency head if there has been an incident that requires disciplinary action taken against the agency head's applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If an applicant's progress in academic or skill areas indicates the applicant will fail the entrance-level training, the training director shall notify the applicant's agency head to permit the applicant to be withdrawn from the training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The training director of the academy and the agency head sending an applicant to the academy or school may negotiate arrangements related to reimbursement for costs associated with the applicant attending the academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Authority of Academy Regulations.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission recognizes the necessity and authority of an academy to establish rules and regulations of conduct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The training director of a Commission-approved academy may establish rules and regulations that exceed Commission requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written academy rule or regulation or lawful verbal direction or order issued by an authorized representative of the academy has the same authority as a Commission requirement or standard.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Academy Certification Classifications.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may certify an academy meeting the applicable Commission standards as a class I or class II academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An academy certified by the Commission as a class I academy may provide Commission-approved police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An academy certified by the Commission as a class II academy may provide only specified portions of Commission-approved police officer entrance-level training required under Regulation .14E(8) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A class I or class II academy may also offer any other Commission-approved police officer training authorized under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Upon request, the Commission shall furnish a list of approved academies and the respective classifications.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The academy may include a firearms program which meets the minimum standards under COMAR 12.04.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Academy Certification—Lapse or Revocation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission certification of an academy shall lapse if the academy does not conduct Commission-approved entrance-level training for a period of 2 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may revoke the certification of an approved academy if the academy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discontinues presenting Commission-approved entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Offers Commission-required training without Commission-approved instructors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Training director does not successfully complete the training director orientation program under §H of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Violates a provision of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Academy Audit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An approved entrance-level training program is subject to review and audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall audit each Commission-approved academy at least every 2 years to ensure compliance with Commission requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Training Director Orientation. An individual appointed as a training director of a Commission-approved academy, within 3 months of appointment, shall successfully complete a training director orientation program designed and approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Voluntary Attendance at an Entrance-Level Training Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual who is not employed as a police officer by a law enforcement agency may attend Commission-approved entrance-level training on a voluntary basis if the individual requesting to attend:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Receives approval by the training director of the Commission-approved academy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meets the selection standards under §B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Selection Standards — Voluntary Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual approved by the training director to attend police officer entrance-level training on a voluntary basis shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet entrance standards for the academy providing the training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide documentation from a licensed medical professional that the individual has received a medical examination and is physically fit to participate in the academy police officer entrance-level training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide documentation supporting that the individual is currently 21 or will be 21 years old at the completion of the police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The training director accepting an individual volunteering to attend police officer entrance-level training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Ensure a criminal record check is performed on the individual through, at a minimum, the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) to determine if there is supplemental information that conflicts with the requirements of the academy or Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the individual with a copy of the selection standards specified in Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Have the individual acknowledge in writing that completion of the police officer entrance-level training is not a guarantee of certification by the Commission as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If an individual under the provisions of this regulation successfully completes Commission-approved police officer entrance-level training provided by a Commission-approved academy and is subsequently hired by a law enforcement agency to fill a position as a police officer within 2 years of the completion of the training, the agency head may request a waiver of training under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Mandated Personnel.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Under Public Safety Article, §3-215(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, an individual employed as a police officer by a law enforcement agency is entitled to a leave of absence with pay to attend entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employee of a law enforcement agency who is required to meet the requirements of this chapter may not voluntarily enroll in an academy to attend Commission-approved police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An individual, training director, or law enforcement agency head seeking a waiver of this regulation may apply to the Commission for that waiver according to provisions under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Police Officer Annual In-Service Training and Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Police Officer Annual In-Service Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall ensure that a certified police officer at or below the rank of first-line supervisor completes a minimum of 18 hours of Commission-approved in-service training each calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall only accept successful completion of Commission-approved training toward a police officer's annual in-service training requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For annual in-service training, the Commission may approve independent electronic instruction through which information on an identified topic is provided to a police officer through the officer’s interaction with an electronic medium, and without the immediate supervision or assistance of an individual identified as the training instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Commission-approved police officer in-service training may be conducted according to Commission requirements by the police officer's law enforcement agency, another law enforcement agency, school, academy, or organization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission does not require a Commission-certified police officer to meet the in-service training requirement under this regulation during the same calendar year the police officer successfully completes Commission-approved police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Commission may apply training received by a police officer successfully completing Commission-approved supervisor, administrator, or instructor training toward the police officer's annual in-service requirement in the same calendar year that the police officer successfully completed the Commission-approved supervisor, administrator, or instructor training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Beginning in the year 2004 and every third year thereafter, police officer annual in-service training curriculum and minimum courses of study shall include special training in, attention to, and study of the application and enforcement of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The criminal laws concerning rape, sexual offenses, the sexual abuse and exploitation of children, and related evidentiary procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The contact with and treatment of victims of crimes and delinquent acts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The notices, services, support, and rights available to victims and victim’s representatives under Maryland law; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The notification of victims of identity fraud and related crimes of their rights under federal law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>No later than December 31, 2013, a police officer required to complete annual in-service training under this regulation shall successfully complete Commission-approved autism awareness training if the police officer has not previously successfully completed autism awareness training as part of a Commission-approved entrance-level training program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>No later than December 31, 2016, and within every 2 years after that date, a police officer required to complete annual in-service training under this regulation shall successfully complete a Commission-approved training program on lifesaving techniques, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Annual Police Officer Firearms Training and Qualification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each Commission-certified police officer shall qualify annually with each firearm the law enforcement agency authorizes the police officer to use or carry on-duty or off-duty on each of a Commission-approved:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Day-fire course of fire; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reduced light course of fire.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annual firearms training and qualification shall be conducted according to provisions under COMAR 12.04.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Annual firearms training and qualification is not required in the same year that a Commission-certified police officer successfully completes Commission-approved police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms training and qualification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conversion training under COMAR 12.04.02;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Refresher firearms training under Regulation .07B(4)(c) of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms instructor training under COMAR 12.04.06.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Before being authorized to carry or use a firearm, a police officer who has not qualified with an authorized firearm for 3 or more consecutive calendar years shall complete a Commission-approved:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms training program and firearms qualification under COMAR 12.04.02; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms refresher training course and firearms qualification under Regulation .07B(4) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Police Officer Annual In-Service Program and Firearms Training and Qualification Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine the format for submitting training programs for approval; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Assign a program number to approved programs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for the Commission to approve training shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The topics to be studied;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The time allocated to each topic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A brief explanation of why the topic is included, in terms of current job needs; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Identification of each instructor teaching a topic and the number of hours that the instructor is scheduled to teach.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except as provided under §C(4) of this regulation, the Commission may approve a police officer annual in-service program or annual firearms training and qualification program for a period of 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The training director of a law enforcement agency, academy, or school shall resubmit a training program under this regulation to the Commission for subsequent approval when:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A significant change is made in the format or content of the approved program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>3 years have elapsed since the initial program approval, regardless of whether any changes have been made to the original approved program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Curriculum, Attendance, and Testing for Police Officer Annual In-Service Training and Firearms Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The agency head shall report a police officer's successful completion of Commission-approved in-service training or firearms training and qualification to the Commission on or before January 31 of the year immediately following the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head shall report the information in a format determined by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Testing.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A training director of a Commission-approved academy or school shall ensure that each police officer attending Commission-approved training is tested to determine successful completion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An alternate method of recording successful completion of the training may be used if approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A police officer shall obtain a minimum score of 70 percent on a test for the respective training before the Commission may apply the training toward the police officer's training requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission requires that Commission-approved in-service training and firearms training and qualification have a method of evaluation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a police officer is absent for more than 10 percent of the time required for a Commission-approved annual in-service training program, including electronic control device and firearms training and qualification, the police officer may not receive credit toward the annual in-service training requirements of this chapter for any portion of the program, unless the Deputy Director approves the police officer to receive full or partial credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Attendance at Training Hosted by Other Agencies.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head may send a police officer to Commission-approved in-service training or firearms training and qualification hosted by another agency without prior Commission approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head sending the police officer to training hosted by another agency shall ensure that the training has an approval number assigned by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The agency head sending the police officer to training hosted by another agency is responsible for submission of training scores to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Failure to Complete Required Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for §F(2) of this regulation, if a police officer does not receive the entire 18 hours of in-service training by December 31 in a calendar year, the agency head shall add the number of hours missed in that calendar year to the 18 hours required in the following calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an officer is scheduled for certification renewal on July 1 of any year but did not receive the entire 18 hours of annual in-service training by December 31 of the previous calendar year, the agency head shall provide the officer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Before the July 1 date on which the officer is scheduled for certification renewal, the hours of annual in-service training missed for the calendar year immediately before July 1 date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Before December 31 of the year during which the officer’s certification renewal is scheduled, the 18 hours of annual in-service training required to be completed by the officer for that year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a police officer does not successfully complete annual firearms training and qualification with an authorized firearm before December 31 of a calendar year, the agency head may not permit the police officer to use or carry the firearm until the police officer successfully meets Commission requirements for firearms training and qualification with that firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a police officer is scheduled for certification renewal, the police officer shall successfully complete Commission requirements for firearms training and qualification for the firearm before July 1 in the following year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Nonofficer Status.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In-service Training. If a police officer fails to complete annual in-service training because the officer was on official nonofficer status, the officer shall complete the required annual in-service training in the year in which the officer returns to active duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms Training.</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If a police officer fails to complete annual firearms qualification because the officer was on approved nonofficer status, but has completed annual firearms qualification within 3 years of returning to active duty from nonofficer status, before the officer may use or carry an authorized firearm, the officer shall qualify with the authorized firearm when the officer returns to active duty. Additionally if the officer's certification has lapsed, the officer shall meet the requirements of this chapter be recertified by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If a police officer returning to active duty as a police officer has not qualified with an authorized firearm within 3 consecutive calendar years immediately preceding return, before the officer may use or carry an authorized firearm the officer shall successfully complete a Commission-approved entrance-level firearms training program and qualification for the firearm under COMAR 12.04.02, or a firearms refresher training course and firearms qualification for the authorized firearm under COMAR 12.04.02 or a firearms refresher training program and qualification under Regulation .07B(4)(c) of this chapter. Additionally, if certification has lapsed, the officer shall meet the requirements of this chapter to be recertified by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Except for a police officer reported on nonofficer status, if an agency head does not provide required training in 2 consecutive years or displays a pattern of not providing the required training over several years, the Executive Director, or a designee, shall report the matter to the Commission for action the Commission deems appropriate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If an agency head does not provide documentation of missed training in a timely manner, certification renewal may be delayed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Waivers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may grant a waiver of annual in-service training or firearms training and qualification requested by an agency head, if the agency head submits proof that the police officer successfully completed comparable training in the same year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a waiver of training requirements under this regulation shall be submitted, in accordance with Regulation .14 of this chapter by the agency head.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Audit Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved annual in-service training and firearms training and qualification is subject to review and audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each law enforcement agency, academy, and school providing Commission-approved annual in-service training or firearms training and qualification shall maintain documentation, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Curriculum;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Listing of instructors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Attendance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Test and examination scores; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other information required by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall maintain records of training provided to a police officer at other agencies, schools, or academies until audited by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>To verify compliance with Commission requirements, the Commission shall annually audit a portion of the the following Commission-approved annual in-service programs:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Law enforcement training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Electronic control device training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Minimum Standards — Police Officer First-Line Supervisor and Administrator Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A police officer promoted to a first-line, or higher, supervisor position, shall successfully complete Commission-approved supervisor training within 1 year of the promotion, unless the police officer successfully completed Commission-approved supervisor training within the 2 years preceding the promotion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A police officer promoted to a first-line, or higher, administrator position is required to successfully complete Commission-approved administrator training within 1 year of the promotion, unless the police officer successfully completed Commission-approved administrator training within the 2 years preceding the promotion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Once a police officer successfully completes Commission-approved supervisor training, the Commission does not require the police officer to complete additional supervisor training for subsequent promotions to another supervisor position that does not include duties of an administrative position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A police officer promoted directly to a first-line administrator position from a rank below the first-line supervisor position shall complete both Commission-approved supervisor and administrator training within 1 year of the promotion, unless the police officer has successfully completed Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training, or both, within the 2 years preceding the promotion.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Police Officer Supervisor and Administrator Training Minimum Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission requires that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Only Commission-approved or certified instructors provide the police officer supervisor or administrator training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A police officer shall obtain a 70 percent overall test score to successfully complete the training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The training shall be a minimum of 35 hours in duration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Unless determined otherwise by the agency head and the Commission, a police officer required to attend Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training may not miss more than 10 percent of the total training time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The Commission's training objectives for police officer supervisor or administrator are to be covered in the training as written by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The agency head submit the proposed police officer supervisor or administrator training to the Commission for approval at least 20 working days before the start of the proposed training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head shall submit rosters, required reports, and grades to the Commission upon completion of the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Upon request, the Commission shall furnish the Commission's minimum course outline and training objectives for police officer supervisor or administrator training to the agency head.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an agency head changes previously approved training, the training director shall submit the new training in writing to the Commission for approval at least 20 working days before the start of the new training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Waivers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may waive requirements for successful completion of the Commission-required supervisor or administrator training under this regulation if an agency head provides the Commission with documentation that establishes that the police officer successfully completed parallel Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission has determined that the following programs are generally acceptable substitutes for the Commission-required supervisor or administrator training if the police officer successfully completed the training within 2 years preceding or 1 year following the promotion:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Northwestern University School of Police Staff and Command program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Southern Police Institute Administrative Officer Course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The FBI National Academy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other equivalent training approved by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The agency head shall submit a request for a waiver of Commission police officer supervisor or administrator training requirements to the Deputy Director for approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Failure to Complete Commission-Required Supervisor or Administrator Training. If a police officer does not successfully complete either Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training by the first anniversary date of a promotion to either a first-line supervisor or first-line administrator position, the police officer's agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Relieve the police officer of the respective first-line supervisory or first-line administrative duties related to the position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inform the Commission in writing within 30 days of the action that the law enforcement agency has taken to relieve the police officer of supervisory or administrative duties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Waiver of a Selection or Training Standard."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements for Waivers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for the requirements under §E of this regulation, an agency head requesting a waiver of a Commission selection or training standard based on an individual's unique circumstances shall petition the Commission for a waiver of the standard.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head petitioning the Commission for a waiver of a selection or training standard shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Submit the petition in writing in a format determined by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Direct the petition to the Executive Director so it is received at least 30 days before the Commission's next scheduled meeting during which the Commission considers the petition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall include, at a minimum, the information required under §B, C, or D of this regulation according to the type of standard for which the agency head is petitioning the Commission for a waiver.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Processing a Petition for a Waiver.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Upon receipt of a petition for a waiver under §B, C, or D of this regulation, the Executive Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Review the petition to ensure that it contains all information required under this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Ensure that the petition is received 30 days before the next scheduled Commission meeting during which the Commission considers the petition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the petition does not meet the requirements under this regulation, the Executive Director shall return the petition to the submitting agency head indicating the deficiencies of the petition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the petition meets the requirements under this regulation, the Executive Director shall present the petition to the Commission at the next scheduled meeting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Waiver of a Selection Standard. An agency head petitioning the Commission on behalf of an individual for a waiver of a police officer selection standard under this chapter shall, at a minimum, include the following as part of the petition under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A completed application for certification (AFC) for the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The COMAR citation for the standard for which the waiver is requested on behalf of the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Detailed information concerning the individual's ability to perform the duties of a police officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Other information at the direction of the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Waiver of an In-service Training Standard.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head petitioning the Commission on behalf of an individual for a waiver of an annual in-service training standard shall provide the following information that the agency head believes is justification for the Commission to waive the training standard:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The COMAR citation for the standard for which the waiver is requested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A copy of the lesson plan or course outline that the individual successfully completed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written description of the course that the individual successfully completed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The number of hours of the course the individual completed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other information supporting the petition or that is requested by the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head may petition the Commission for a waiver of an in-service training requirement because an individual successfully completed any of the following during the calendar year for which in-service training is required:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Federal Bureau of Investigation National Academy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>3-month Southern Police Institute Program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>9-month Northwestern University Traffic Institute Program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other equivalent training program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Waiver of Firearms Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head may petition the Commission on behalf of an individual for a waiver of firearms training and qualification requirements if the individual completed firearms training and qualification that meets or exceeds requirements of COMAR 12.04.02 during the calendar year in which firearms training and qualification are required to be completed by the individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall include in the petition for a waiver of firearms training and qualification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Information required under §C(2) of this regulation as it relates to the firearms training and qualification completed by the individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date or dates the individual completed the firearms training and qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Waiver of an Entrance-Level Training Standard.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual who completed entrance-level training in another state or through the federal government may be granted a waiver from completing portions of the entrance-level training standards under Regulation .09 of this chapter if the entrance-level training completed in another state or through the federal government was comparable to the standards under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head petitioning the Deputy Director on behalf of an individual for a waiver of an entrance-level training standard required under Regulation .09 of this chapter shall provide the Deputy Director with the following information that the agency head believes is the basis for requesting the waiver:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A copy of the lesson plan or course outline for the course that the individual successfully completed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A written description of the course that the individual successfully completed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The number of hours of the course the individual successfully completed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information supporting the petition or that is requested by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Deputy Director may grant a waiver of an entrance-level training standard if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Both:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Worked for a law enforcement agency within the last 5 years before applying; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Successfully completed police officer entrance-level training that meets or exceeds the requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Did not work for a law enforcement agency before applying, but within 2 years before applying completed police officer entrance-level training that meets or exceeds the requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Deputy Director shall review the information contained in the request under §E of this regulation to determine if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Individual meets the eligibility requirements under §E of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Police officer entrance-level training that the individual completed meets or exceeds requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>When reviewing the minimum academy hourly requirement, the following information may be considered:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The review will compare the applicant’s approved academy hours with the amount of Maryland academy hours required by regulation at the time of academy attendance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Topics taught during the applicant’s in-service training may be considered toward the minimum academy hourly requirement. An annual repetitive topical area may only be considered once.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specialized training received during the applicant’s career that is relevant to the topical areas may be considered toward the minimum academy hourly requirement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Deputy Director shall notify the agency head of the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the Deputy Director grants the waiver, the Deputy Director shall notify the agency head that the individual shall meet the following requirements before certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The training requirements under §E(8) of this regulation</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the Deputy Director grants a waiver of full entrance-level training, the individual shall successfully complete the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Portions of entrance-level training at a class I or II Commission-certified police academy relating to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maryland Criminal Code,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Maryland Motor Vehicle Code, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Maryland Juvenile Law and Procedures;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Emergency medical care under Regulation .09 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A Driving Under the Influence Detection and Standardized Field Sobriety Test course approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the law enforcement agency authorizes the individual to carry or use a firearm:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms training and qualification for the firearm under COMAR 12.04.02; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If the Deputy Director determines that the individual previously completed training that is equivalent to the entrance-level firearms training required under COMAR 12.04.02 for the agency-approved firearm, the individual shall be required to complete annual firearms classroom instruction and training and qualification required by COMAR 12.04.02 for the agency-approved firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An agency head may petition the Commission to review a decision by the Deputy Director to deny a waiver of an entrance-level training requirement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A petition for a waiver on behalf of an individual may not again be submitted under this regulation within two years after the date on which the Commission has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Denied the petition for the waiver on behalf of the individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upheld the decision of the Deputy Director to deny the petition for a waiver.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Drug Screening Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Urine Sample Collection.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency conducting drug screening shall ensure that the process used by the law enforcement agency includes the minimum requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency conducting drug screening shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verify the identity of the individual providing the sample by examining a driver's license or other acceptable means of photographic identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain the urine sample in a manner that reasonably prevents substitution, alteration, or tampering;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Ensure that a minimum of 50 milliliters of urine is collected from the individual providing the sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A urine sample is collected using a proper container that has been sealed by the manufacturer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Once the seal is broken by the individual supplying the urine sample and the urine sample is deposited in the container, the container is sealed by the individual supplying the urine sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The container is sealed using tamper-proof tape that extends over and around the container cover;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Once the container is sealed and accepted from the individual supplying the sample, ensure the sample is labeled with the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Name of the individual supplying the sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Date the sample was given; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Name of the individual who received the sample;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Ensure that before the individual provides a urine sample, the individual provides written consent for the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Collection of the sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Analysis of the sample; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Disclosure of the analysis results to the employing law enforcement agency and the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Secure, maintain, and transport the sample in a manner that preserves the chain of custody.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Positive Urine Sample Results.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A urine sample screened positive under §C(2) of this regulation is considered evidence of recent use of a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A positive screen for a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana conclusively establishes that the individual providing the sample is not of good moral character established under Regulation .04 or .07 of this chapter and may not be employed or certified by the Commission as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The agency head shall ensure that a positive screen for controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, or marijuana was not a result of legal use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Urine Sample Analysis.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To ensure the reliability and integrity of the testing process, the employing law enforcement agency conducting drug screening shall ensure that the process used by the law enforcement agency to analyze the sample includes the minimum requirements under this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency conducting drug screening and analyzing a urine sample shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conduct urine sample analysis according to provisions under Health-General Article, §17-214, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that the urine sample is screened by an enzyme immunoassay, radioimmunoassay testing method, or another equally scientifically rigorous screening method; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>At a minimum, ensure that the screening method includes testing for the presence of the controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, or marijuana, or classes of controlled dangerous substances, or their metabolites listed in §C(3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A positive screen is indicated if the test result meets or exceeds an amount at the following levels measured in nanograms per milliliter specified for each controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana, or classes of controlled dangerous substances, or their metabolites as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Amphetamines — 1,000;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Barbiturates — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Cannabis or cannabinoids — 50;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Opiates — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Cocaine or cocaine metabolite — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Phencyclidine — 25; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Benzodiazepines — 300.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Confirmation of a Positive Screen Required.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A positive screen of a urine sample for each substance identified under §C(3) of this regulation shall be confirmed using gas chromatography, mass spectrometry, or other equally scientifically rigorous testing method.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A urine sample resulting in a positive screen using the method under §C(2)(b) of this regulation alone is inconclusive, unless the positive screen result is confirmed according to §C(4)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Prior Substance Abuse by Applicants for Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Scope. This regulation applies to an individual on whose behalf an employing agency is applying to the Commission for certification or recertification of the individual as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual involved in prior or current illegal use, sale, manufacture, or distribution of a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana as the terms are defined under Regulation .01 of this chapter and as specified in this regulation has demonstrated character traits, judgment, behavior, or activity which adversely predict or affect the ability of the individual to perform the duties of a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency may set more restrictive standards than those specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For the purpose of this regulation, marijuana is considered to be separate from a controlled dangerous substance or human-made synthetic cannabinoid or cannabimimetic agent as defined under Regulation .01B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Prohibitions — Initial Certification. An individual is ineligible for initial certification as a police officer in Maryland if the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Been convicted or otherwise found guilty of selling, manufacturing, or distributing a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ever illegally sold, produced, cultivated, distributed, or transported a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Illegally used a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug for any purpose within the 36 months before application for certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Illegally engaged in the use of marijuana for any purpose within the 12 months preceding the date of application for certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ever illegally used a controlled dangerous substance, or narcotic drug for other than experimentation as specified under §D of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ever illegally used a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana while employed to enforce federal, State, or local law by any government entity.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Presumption of Experimentation. The illegal use of a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug is not experimentation if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ever used:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Heroin;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Phencyclodine (PCP); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD); or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Used a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug, or any combination of controlled dangerous substances or narcotic drugs:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A total of five or more times; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One time since becoming 21 years old.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Prohibitions — Recertification. If an individual is currently certified, or was previously certified, as a police officer in Maryland the individual is ineligible for recertification if the individual illegally used, ingested, possessed, sold, produced, cultivated, distributed, or transported a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana on or after the date of the individual's initial certification as a police officer in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Indication of Use of a Controlled Dangerous Substance, Narcotic Drug, or Marijuana.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If any part of the background investigation indicates an applicant currently or previously used a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana, the law enforcement agency shall investigate to determine if the use falls under the prohibitions specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The law enforcement agency shall verify the veracity of the applicant's statements, responses to questions, and any other information provided by the applicant related to the use of a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana using a truth verification device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the law enforcement agency determines the use is prohibited by this regulation, the applicant is ineligible for certification by the Commission as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the law enforcement agency determines the individual is currently using a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana in violation of State or federal law, the individual is ineligible for certification by the Commission as a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If an individual becomes certified by the Commission as a police officer, the law enforcement agency employing the individual shall document and maintain information used to establish the individual's substance abuse history required by this regulation. These records are subject to audit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may certify an applicant if the applicant’s last use of marijuana preceded the applicant’s date of application for certification by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Three or more years; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Less than three years, but not less than 12 months, on the condition that the applicant agrees to complete an annual substance abuse test during the two years following the applicant’s date of initial certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If certification is granted to an applicant who only qualifies under § G(1)(b) of this regulation, the employing agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the applicant of the additional mandatory substance abuse testing requirement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Schedule the conditionally certified officer for an annual substance abuse test at the discretion of the employing agency in accordance with the regulations established in 17.04.09.04.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Petition for Special Consideration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head submitting an application for certification for an individual with a history of illegal use of a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug may petition the Commission based on articulated unique circumstances of the individual’s use of a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug for a final determination as to the use being experimentation as specified under §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head, or a designee, submitting a petition under §H(1) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specify the illegal controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Indicate the number of times the illegal controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug was used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide the individual's age at the time of each use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Indicate how the information concerning the use of the illegal controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug came to be known by the agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Provide information concerning the agency's attempt to verify the information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Identify the specific factors that the agency head believes the Commission should consider when making a determination as to experimentation that, at a minimum, include information concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Length of time used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The motivation for the use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The time that has passed since the last use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>How the illegal controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug was obtained;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>How the illegal controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug was ingested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Why the individual stopped the use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>The individual's ability to perform as a police officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Any other information that supports the unique circumstances that the agency head wants the Commission to consider; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Submit the petition to the Executive Director of the Police Training and Standards Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Executive Director shall submit a petition received under §H(2) of this regulation to the Police Training and Standards Commission at the next scheduled meeting following receipt if the petition:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provides the information required by this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is received at least 30 days before the next scheduled Commission meeting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Hearing Not Required.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual applying for certification has no right to appear before the Police Training and Standards Commission for the purpose of challenging a law enforcement agency’s determination that the individual used a controlled dangerous substance or narcotic drug contrary to the standards established by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Police Training and Standards Commission’s consideration of a petition under §H of this regulation is not a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Field Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Field Training Required; Exceptions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as provided by §A(3) of this regulation, an individual shall successfully complete Commission-approved field training as required under this regulation before receiving police officer certification or recertification under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>As provided by this regulation, field training shall be successfully completed by an individual for each law enforcement agency employing the individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an individual holds a position listed under Public Safety Article, §3-201(f)(3)(i) or (ii), Annotated Code of Maryland, the individual may be certified or recertified as a police officer under this chapter for the law enforcement agency with which the individual holds the position without meeting the requirements of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An individual may receive provisional or temporary certification as a police officer under this chapter without meeting the requirements of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When Field Training Is to Be Completed and Minimum Hours for Field Training. The following table provides the minimum hours of field training to be successfully completed and when the field training is permitted to be undertaken by an individual for whom certification as a police officer is requested:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Field Training Monitoring and Coordination.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency’s field training shall be coordinated and monitored by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The law enforcement agency head; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An employee of the law enforcement agency designated by the law enforcement agency head.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an employee of the law enforcement agency designated by the law enforcement agency head is responsible for coordinating and monitoring the agency’s field training, the employee is required to have successfully completed:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A Commission-approved supervisor training course under Regulation .13 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A Commission-approved field training officer course as provided by §E of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Field Training Officer Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A field training officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet the requirements established under this regulation and by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be a police officer for at least 2 years immediately prior to being approved by the Commission to be a field training officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Be approved by the Commission as a field training officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Except under provisions of §D(4) of this regulation, successfully complete a Commission-approved field training officer course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Within every 4 years following initial completion of a field training officer course, successfully complete a minimum of 7 hours of cumulative instruction that have been approved by the Commission to be provided to an individual who has been approved as a field training officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To successfully complete an initial field training officer course, an individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Attend a minimum of 90 percent of the total hours of instruction established for the field training officer course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Achieve at least a score of 70 percent on each test given as part of the field training officer course.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The law enforcement agency or academy conducting a field training officer course shall report to the Commission the name of each individual who successfully completes the field training officer course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Deputy Director may excuse an individual from completing all or a portion of the minimum requirements for a Commission-approved field training officer course required by this regulation if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual submits to the Deputy Director documentation that the individual has successfully completed training that is the equivalent to all or the portion of the minimum requirements for a Commission-approved field training officer course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Deputy Director finds the documentation provided verifies that the completed training is equivalent to all or the portion of the minimum requirements for a Commission-approved field training officer course.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Field Training Officer Course — Application, Requirements, and Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A field training officer course shall be approved by the Commission, and provided by the law enforcement agency or academy that has received the course approval under this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An application for a field training officer course approval shall be submitted to the Commission by a law enforcement agency or academy that requests approval of the course:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least 20 days before the field training officer course begins; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In the format required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The application for approval for a field training officer course shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Number of hours of instruction to be provided by the course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Names and qualifications of the instructors for the course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Testing and evaluation methods for an individual enrolled in the field training officer course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the Commission approves the field training officer course:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission shall assign the approved field training officer course an identification number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Commission approval of the field training officer course is valid for 3 years following the approval date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Proposed Change to Commission-Approved Field Training Officer Course.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a law enforcement agency or academy that has received Commission approval for a field training officer course proposes to change the format, an instructor, the content, or the testing or evaluation methods of the course as most recently approved by the Commission, an application for approval of the change shall be submitted to the Commission by the law enforcement agency or academy at least 20 days before the change to the field training officer course is proposed to be implemented.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The proposed change becomes effective when approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An approved field training officer course shall provide instruction:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conducted only by individuals who are certified by the Commission under COMAR 12.04.06.08 or who possess an exemption under COMAR 12.04.06.04;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a minimum of 21 hours; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>On the training objectives required by the Commission for the Commission-approved field training officer course.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>For a minimum of 3 years, a law enforcement agency or academy conducting a Commission-approved field training officer course shall maintain the following documentation related to the course:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Rosters of individuals participating in the field training officer course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The tests, test scores, and evaluations of individuals participating in the field training officer course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Description of the evaluation process for individuals participating in the field training officer course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Field training officer course lesson plans; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other documentation required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Agency Field Training Policy Required.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency shall adopt a written policy on the agency’s field training based on a model policy approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The policy, at a minimum, shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Length of the agency’s field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An outline of the training subjects, orientation, and other activities to be provided as part of field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Responsibilities of the individual supervising field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Selection process for field training officers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Training of field training officers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Guidelines for a field training officer’s evaluation of the performance of an individual participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Reporting responsibilities of field training officers; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Guidelines for evaluation of field training officers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Supervising an Individual During Commission-Approved Field Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for provisions under §G(2)and (3) of this regulation, during Commission-approved field training, an individual shall be under direct supervision of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A field training officer from the law enforcement agency employing the individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If a field training officer is not available, a police officer of supervisory rank from the law enforcement agency employing the individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Exception to Supervision During Field Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For a period that does not exceed 10 percent of the total time of an individual’s field training, the individual may be under the direct supervision of a police officer of the law enforcement agency who is not a field training officer or police officer of supervisory rank.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Under extenuating circumstances when a field training officer or officer of supervisory rank is not available for at least 89 percent of the total time of an individual’s field training, the agency head may request the Deputy Director to approve alternative supervision during the individual’s field training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Deputy Director may approve an alternative to the supervision required by this section during Commission-approved field training:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>For a limited period of time, as determined by the Deputy Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Under conditions and circumstances specified by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>During field training, an individual who is engaged in specialized training or orientation duties that do not entail enforcement functions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May engage in that training or those duties for up to 5 percent of the total time of the individual’s field training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>While engaged in that training or those duties is not required to be under the direct supervision of a field training officer or police officer of supervisory rank.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an individual successfully completes the law enforcement agency’s field training, the law enforcement agency head, or the individual designated to supervise field training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete and submit a written statement to the Commission indicating that the individual has successfully completed the required Commission-approved field training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sign and date the statement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Documentation to Be Maintained Related to a Law Enforcement Agency’s Field Training. For a minimum of 3 years, a law enforcement agency shall maintain the following documentation related to the law enforcement agency’s field training:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The agency’s written policy for field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Rosters of individuals participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The tests, test scores, and evaluations of individuals participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Description of the evaluation process for individuals participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Field training lesson plans and guides;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An outline of the training for individuals participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>At least once every 2 weeks during the individual’s field training, summaries of the performance the individual participating in field training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The field training officer’s final competence report on each individual participating in field training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Other documentation required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Audit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Commission-approved field training officer course and Commission-approved field training are subject to review and audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may suspend or revoke approval of a field training officer course or law enforcement agency’s field training if the Commission determines that the field training officer course or agency field training fails to meet the Commission requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Minimum Standards — Police Officer Motorcycle Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A police officer who is authorized by the police officer’s employing law enforcement agency to operate a law enforcement agency motorcycle on January 1, 2014, is not required to complete motorcycle training established under this regulation for as long as the authorization in effect on January 1, 2014, continuously remains in effect.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except under §A of this regulation, before a police officer is authorized to operate a law enforcement agency motorcycle, the police officer shall successfully complete police officer motorcycle training approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>For police officer motorcycle training to be approved by the Commission, the police officer motorcycle training shall, at a minimum, include the following subjects:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Capabilities of a motorcycle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Factors contributing to motorcycle accidents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Accident avoidance maneuvers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Fundamentals of handling and riding a motorcycle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Emergency and nonemergency motorcycle operation and handling techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Motorcycle braking techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Impact of adverse weather conditions on operation and handling of a motorcycle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Daylight and reduced-lighting motorcycle operation and handling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Operating and handling a motorcycle in confined areas; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Officer survival related to motorcycle traffic stops and violator contact.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Police officer motorcycle training shall include activities to ensure that the police officer meets performance objectives, approved by the Commission, that are based on:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Evaluations of investigations of law enforcement agency motorcycle accidents that occurred within the previous 5 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recommendations developed by a Statewide panel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Statewide panel under §D of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be composed of one supervisory law enforcement agency motorcycle operator from each Maryland law enforcement agency that uses a motorcycle for law enforcement purposes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annually designate a chairman from panel membership; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make recommendations to the Commission concerning police officer motorcycle operator training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§3-207, 3-208 and 3-209; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 759)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 14, 1976 (3:8 Md. R. 427)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective March 2, 1977 (4:5 Md. R. 376)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective April 7, 1978 (5:7 Md. R. 523)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .09, .11, and .12 amended effective July 14, 1978 (5:14 Md. R. 1137)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 6, 1979 (6:7 Md. R. 578)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective June 27, 1980 (7:13 Md. R. 1279)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective November 22, 1982 (9:23 Md. R. 2260); December 31, 1984 (11:26 Md. R. 2279)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01A amended effective October 12, 1981 (8:20 Md. R. 1636); March 14, 1983 (10:5 Md. R. 465); October 10, 1983 (10:20 Md. R. 1788); August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1392); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397); June 7, 1993 (20:11 Md. R. 915)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective October 10, 1983 (10:20 Md. R. 1788); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1030); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657); January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397); June 7, 1993 (20:11 Md. R. 915)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01-1 adopted effective June 7, 1993 (20:11 Md. R. 917)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01-1A amended effective December 6, 1993 (20:24 Md. R. 1865); January 2, 1995 (21:26 Md. R. 2191)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01-1C amended effective January 2, 1995 (21:26 Md. R. 2191)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective January 1, 1982 (8:25 Md. R. 1996); December 31, 1984 (11:26 Md. R. 2279)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective November 22, 1982 (9:23 Md. R. 2260); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B, C amended effective February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 342)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02D amended effective November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective November 22, 1982 (9:23 Md. R. 2260); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective October 10, 1983 (10:20 Md. R. 1788); December 31, 1984 (11:26 Md. R. 2279); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657); May 8, 1995 (22:9 Md. R. 647)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A, B amended effective March 14, 1983 (10:5 Md. R. 465)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B, D amended effective January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04C amended effective February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 342); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective January 1, 1981 (7:22 Md. R. 2079); March 14, 1983 (10:5 Md. R. 465); December 31, 1984 (11:26 Md. R. 2279); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); October 2, 1989 (16:19 Md. R. 2105); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657); January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective March 1, 1993 (20:4 Md. R. 372)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); September 7, 1987 (14:18 Md. R. 1967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08A amended effective November 22, 1982 (9:23 Md. R. 2260)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08G amended effective August 22, 1988 (15:17 Md. R. 2049); June 11, 1990 (17:11 Md. R. 1344); February 4, 1991 (18:2 Md. R. 151)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08H adopted effective November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1392); December 31, 1984 (11:26 Md. R. 2279); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); October 2, 1989 (16:19 Md. R. 2105); January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A amended effective October 2, 1989 (16:19 Md. R. 2105); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09E amended effective November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10A, B amended effective November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10C amended effective November 22, 1982 (9:23 Md. R. 2260); May 5, 1986 (13:9 Md. R. 1031); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 adopted effective January 1, 1982 (8:25 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 amended effective December 31, 1985 (12:16 Md. R. 1608); November 12, 1990 (17:22 Md. R. 2657)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11D amended effective November 17, 1986 (13:23 Md. R. 2481); April 12, 1993 (20:7 Md. R. 642)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11E amended effective November 17, 1986 (13:23 Md. R. 2481)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 adopted effective February 20, 1989 (16:3 Md. R. 345)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 repealed and new Regulation .12 adopted effective January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13 adopted effective January 1, 1992 (18:22 Md. R. 2397)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.13 repealed and new Regulations .01—.18 adopted effective August 25, 1997 (24:17 Md. R. 1215)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.07, .09, .12, and .18 amended as an emergency provision effective August 25, 1997 (24:19 Md. R. 1336); amended permanently effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 146)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective September 12, 2005 (32:18 Md. R. 1520)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04D amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04E amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06H amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966); February 4, 2002 (29:2 Md. R. 95)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective March 15, 2004 (31:5 Md. R. 450)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07C amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966); February 4, 2002 (29:2 Md. R. 95); August 30, 2004 (31:17 Md. R. 1312)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A amended effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09J amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10 amended effective August 30, 2004 (31:17 Md. R. 1313)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11B amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 966)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective March 15, 2004 (31:5 Md. R. 450); August 30, 2004 (31:17 Md. R. 1312)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12C amended effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15C amended effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16 amended effective May 9, 2005 (32:9 Md. R. 849)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17 amended effective October 16, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1841); January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 adopted effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 amended effective November 24, 2003 (30:23 Md. R. 1653); September 12, 2005 (32:18 Md. R. 1520)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20 adopted effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .21 adopted effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2008 (34:15 Md. R. 1349)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective September 5, 2011 (38:18 Md. R. 1077)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A amended effective August 24, 2009 (36:17 Md. R. 1313)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09G amended effective November 12, 2012 (39:22 Md. R. 1429)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11A amended effective August 6, 2012 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12A amended effective March 7, 2011 (38:5 Md. R. 318); November 12, 2012 (39:22 Md. R. 1429)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15A, B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2013 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective January 1, 2014 (40:23 Md. R. 1935); February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128); June 5, 2017 (44:11 Md. R. 525); October1, 2019 (46:18 Md. R. 774); April 18, 2022 (49:8 Md. R. 500)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B amended effective February 22, 2021 (48:4 Md. R. 177)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04F amended effective October 1, 2019 (46:18 Md. R. 774)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .05 amended effective February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935); August 29, 2016 (43:17 Md. R. 956)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A, C amended effective February 22, 2021 (48:4 Md. R. 177)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective May 12, 2014 (41:9 Md. R. 522); November 24, 2014 (41:23 Md. R. 1375)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A amended effective July 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1434)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .08D amended effective February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08E amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A amended effective August 7, 2023 (50:15 Md. R. 682)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09C amended effective August 31, 2015 (42:17 Md. R. 1111); February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09G amended effective September 2, 2013 (40:17 Md. R. 1420); August 7, 2023 (50:15 Md. R. 682)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09I amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10D amended effective October 27, 2025 (52:21 Md. R. 1024)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935); February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12A amended effective August 31, 2015 (42:17 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13B, C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14E amended effective September 2, 2013 (40:17 Md. R. 1420); August 17, 2015 (42:16 Md. R. 1055); August 29, 2016 (43:17 Md. R. 956); August 7, 2023 (50:15 Md. R. 682)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14F adopted effective August 17, 2015 (42:16 Md. R. 1055)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .15C amended effective February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .16 amended effective June 5, 2017 (44:11 Md. R. 525); April 18, 2022 (49:8 Md. R. 500)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .16F amended effective February 1, 2016 (43:2 Md. R. 128)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17 amended effective July 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1434)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17D amended effective October 9, 2017 (44:20 Md. R. 945)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .18 adopted effective January 1, 2014 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: COMAR 12.04.01 cited in Attorney General Opinion No. 86-032 (May 16, 1986)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Firearms Training"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes Commission requirements for an individual regulated by the Commission for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms classroom instruction and training and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Authorization to use or carry a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Commission requirements are minimum requirements. Therefore, a law enforcement agency may adopt more stringent requirements for firearms classroom instruction and training and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This chapter does not apply to a firearm authorized by a law enforcement agency for use by a police officer which discharges a projectile that is not intended to cause death.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Academy” means a college, school, training unit, or training facility certified or approved by the Commission to conduct entrance-level and other training programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Agency Head.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Agency head” means:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A police chief, sheriff, administrator, department head, an individual in an equivalent position, or a designee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An individual appointed, employed, or elected to manage, administer, or supervise a law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Agency head” includes a director of an academy or a training unit, or a designee, authorized to act in employment or training matters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Barricade” means an object, fixed position or portable, that in whole or in part provides cover or concealment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Certification” means that an individual meets the requirements for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under COMAR 12.04.06 for a provisional, line, and firearms instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Classroom instruction” means training conducted in a traditional educational setting; for example, in a room with desks, chairs, books, paper, and other educational tools or equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Classroom instruction” does not include training conducted on a firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training and Standards Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Course of fire” means a sequence of activities related to the actual discharge of a firearm on a firing line for training or qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Course of fire” does not include classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Day-Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Day-fire” means firearms training or qualification, or both, conducted during normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dawn and dusk.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Day-fire” includes the indoor equivalent or other lighting conditions that simulate normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dawn and dusk.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Entrance-level” means initial classroom instruction, training, or qualification with a firearm regardless of experience or training with a different type of firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Firearm” means a pistol, revolver, or long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Firearms instructor” means an individual certified by the Commission according to the requirements established under COMAR 12.04.06 to perform firearms classroom instruction and conduct firearms training and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Firing line” means those areas and positions from which an individual actually discharges a firearm with live ammunition for training or qualification, or both, as part of a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Firing Line Controller.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firing line controller” means the line instructor or firearms instructor responsible for issuing commands on a firing line during firearms training and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firing line controller” includes a line instructor actually on the firing line or in a structure overseeing the firearms training and qualification conducted on the firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Handgun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Revolver.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Iron Sight.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Iron sight” means a system of shaped alignment markers, typically metal or plastic that are used as a sighting device to assist an individual in aiming a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Iron sight” does not mean an optical, computing, red dot, or reflex style sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Judgmental or decision training” means instruction and skills development conducted in the classroom, using firearms simulation, or on a firing line, to enable an individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Differentiate between threat levels; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Respond appropriately to an identified threat.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Law Enforcement Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” includes an academy, personnel unit, or training unit authorized by the Commission to act in training matters or provide law enforcement training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>Line Instructor.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Line instructor” means an individual certified by the Commission according to the requirements established under 12.04.06 to conduct law enforcement firearms training and qualification on a firing line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Line instructor” may not perform classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Long gun” means a firearm designed to be fired from the shoulder.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Long gun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Type 1 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Type 2 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Type 3 long gun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Type 4 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>Optical Sighting Device.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” means an optic mechanism that assists an individual in sighting a firearm by enhancing or magnifying the image of the target and superimposing a reticle, or an aligned aiming point, over the image.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” does not include an iron sight or a red dot sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Pistol” means a handgun that operates semi-automatically:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discharging a single round of ammunition with a pull of the trigger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Clearing the chamber of the spent casing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loading the next round of ammunition in the chamber.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Power” means a measurement used to describe levels of visual magnification, with a number representing the level of magnification above the normal visual range.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Primary handgun” means the handgun authorized or issued by a law enforcement agency and designated by that agency for a police officer to use or carry as the officer's principal handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Qualification” means proficiency testing by discharging a firearm on a Commission-approved course of fire to receive a score that the Commission measures against established requirements to determine if the individual is authorized to use or carry a specific firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>Red Dot Sight.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Red dot sight” means a generic term to describe a visual, computing, or reflex sighting device that reflects a reticle, or an aligned aiming point that can be any shape or color, onto a combining glass for superimposition on a target.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Red dot sight” does not include an optical sighting device or an iron sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>Reduced Light.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Reduced light” means the normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dusk and dawn.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Reduced light” includes simulated natural outdoor lighting conditions such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Artificial light; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Goggles, headgear, or an apparatus worn to cover the eyes designed to reduce the availability of light to simulate natural reduced lighting conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Revolver” means a handgun that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fires a single round of ammunition with each pull of the trigger; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has a cylinder containing additional rounds of ammunition that rotates to position the next round of ammunition for firing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Secondary handgun” means a handgun, other than a primary handgun, that a police officer is authorized by the officer's law enforcement agency to use or carry on-duty or off-duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Strong hand” means the hand:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>On the same side of the body where an individual would normally carry a handgun in a holster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That the individual would primarily use to discharge a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Training” means a demonstration or an exercise, in addition to classroom instruction, provided by an individual certified under COMAR 12.04.06, to enhance understanding, proficiency, marksmanship, and other skills related to proper firearm use and tactics such as movement, multiple targets, judgmental or decision training, and use of cover and concealment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Training” may include drills that involve discharging rounds.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Type 1 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Type 2 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use other than as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Type 3 long gun” means a long gun without an optical sighting device, or with an optical sighting device of 4 power or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(36)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” means a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun that is designed to discharge a single projectile or multiple projectiles from a single round of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” includes a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun regardless of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Use of an optical sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(37)"> <text>“Weak hand” means the hand that is not considered the strong hand.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="General Requirements — Authorized Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification, and Firing Line Supervision."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Handgun and Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements — General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A police officer may not use or carry a firearm unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The firearm and any attached devices or equipment are approved by the police officer's law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The law enforcement agency authorizes the police officer to use or carry the firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The police officer successfully completes the applicable firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for the firearm established under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a firearm becomes defective or unavailable to a police officer during firearms training or qualification, a substitute firearm may be used for the firearms training or qualification if the substitute firearm is the same type, model, manufacture, caliber, and barrel length as the defective or unavailable firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All handguns must be equipped with usable iron sights whether used as the primary sighting device or as a back-up, secondary sighting device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For an individual to be initially authorized to use or carry a firearm, except a secondary handgun or a firearm for which authorization is provided through conversion under Regulation .09 of this chapter, the individual shall successfully complete entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification required for the firearm established under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification may be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Included in entrance-level law enforcement classroom instruction, training, and qualification under COMAR 12.04.01; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Independent of entrance-level law enforcement classroom instruction, training, and qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Commission firearms training objectives required for the entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification are available from the Commission upon written request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Secondary Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Before a police officer may use or carry a secondary handgun, the police officer shall successfully complete entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a primary handgun established under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>After completing entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification with a primary handgun, a police officer shall successfully complete the following requirements for the secondary handgun:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Annual handgun classroom instruction, training, and qualification course of fire requirements if the secondary handgun is the same type as the officer's primary handgun and the officer's agency does not require handgun conversion for the secondary handgun under Regulation .09 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Handgun conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter for the secondary handgun if the secondary handgun is a different type than the officer's primary handgun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Firing Line Supervision Requirements — General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At least one provisional instructor, line instructor, or firearms instructor shall be present for every five or fewer individuals on the firing line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If more than one provisional instructor, line instructor, or firearms instructor is required to be present, the individual responsible for the firearms training and qualification shall designate a firearms instructor or line instructor to supervise the firing line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If more than 15 individuals are on the firing line:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual responsible for the firearms training and qualification shall assign a firing line controller; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The firing line controller may not be counted as part of the one-to-five ratio required under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Approval and Minimum Hours.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Written approval by the Commission is required for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A law enforcement agency requesting approval shall submit the request to the Commission 20 days before the agency plans to start the classroom instruction, training, or qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The minimum hours required for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Only include the actual hours of firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Do not include meals and breaks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification — Primary Handgun."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall successfully complete the minimum requirements for entrance-level handgun classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this regulation before using or carrying a primary handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as required in §C of this regulation, the minimum entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a primary handgun includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>35 hours of classroom instruction, training, and qualification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under Entrance-Level Handgun Training in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The following activities conducted over a minimum of three calendar days:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firearms training exercises; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A course of fire for qualification for scoring that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Three consecutive day-fire courses of fire; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>One reduced light course of fire;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Use of ammunition authorized by the individual's law enforcement agency, or the ballistic equivalent when firing for qualification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Discharging a minimum of 1,000 rounds of ammunition for firearms training and qualification collectively; and if the primary sighting device is a red dot sight then a minimum of 20 percent of the rounds must be fired using the firearm's iron sight; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The course of fire requirements outlined in the table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following requirements shall be imposed if the handgun is equipped with a red dot sight:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least one of the three consecutive day-fire courses must be fired with the iron sight; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One reduced light course will be fired with each of the handgun's sighting devices.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Course of Fire Requirements for Handgun Qualification."> <text>The following table establishes the minimum entrance-level, annual, and conversion courses of fire requirements for primary handgun qualification:</text> <text>Type of Requirement Handgun Day-Fire Required Course of Fire for Qualification HandgunReduced Light Required Course ofFire for Qualification (1) Rounds to be discharged with one finger on the trigger Minimum of 30 rounds on each course of fire Minimum of 30 rounds on the course of fire (2) Minimum passing score 70 percent on each of the three successive courses of fire 70 percent (3) Target description Depiction of human torso or silhouette marked to indicate scoring values in a maximum scoring area of 725 square inches Depiction of human torso or silhouette marked to indicate scoring values in a maximum scoring area of 725 square inches. (4) Required percentages of rounds to be fired, and required firing distances A minimum of 10 percent, but not more than 40 percent, of the course of fire rounds shall be discharged at each of the following four range of distances: (a) Less than 5 yards; (b) 5 yards to less than 10 yards; (c) 10 to less than 25 yards; and (d) 25 yards or farther. A minimum of 10 percent, but no more than 40 percent, of the course of fire rounds shall be discharged at each of the following three range of distances: (a) Less than 5 yards; (b) 5 yards to less than 15 yards; and (c) 15 yards or farther (5) Maximum time permitted per round of ammunition fired at specified distances (a) 2 seconds per round when firing at less than 5 yards; (b) 3 seconds per round when firing at 5 yards to less than 10 yards; (c) 4 seconds per round when firing at 10 yards to less than 25 yards; (d) 5 seconds per round when firing at 25 yards, or farther (a) 2 seconds per round when firing at less than 5 yards; (b) 3 seconds per round when firing at 5 yards to less than 15 yards; (c) 4 seconds per round when firing at 15 yards, or farther (6) Maximum time permitted to move from one specified firing position to the next 5 seconds 5 seconds (7) Maximum time permitted for each instance of reloading the handgun during the course of fire Revolver—17 seconds Pistol—8 seconds Revolver—17 seconds Pistol—8 seconds (8) Minimum requirements for holding the handgun while discharging rounds during the course of fire (a) Strong hand supported by weak hand; (b) Strong hand with no support; (c) Weak hand supported by strong hand; and (d) Weak hand with no support (a) Strong hand supported by weak hand; (b) Strong hand with no support; (c) Weak hand supported by strong hand; and (d) Weak hand with no support (9) Minimum body positions from which rounds are to be fired during the course of fire (a) Standing; (b) Kneeling; and (c) Two different positions from barricade (a) Standing; and (b) Kneeling (10) Supplemental lighting conditions suggested during course of fire Not Applicable At least one of the following: (a) Flares; (b) Street lights; (c) Vehicle lights; (d) Flashlights; (e) Vehicle emergency lights; or (f) Alternate lighting source</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification — Long Guns."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall successfully complete the minimum requirements for entrance-level long gun classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this regulation before using or carrying a long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The minimum requirements for entrance-level long gun classroom instruction, training, and qualification include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under the column for Entrance-Level Long Gun Training on the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The following total hours of classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, 35 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, 35 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, 14 hours; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 long gun, 7 hours;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Discharging the following number of rounds of ammunition at a target for training and qualification for a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, 150 rounds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, 350 rounds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, 350 rounds; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 long gun, 50 rounds; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Successfully completing qualification requirements on a day-fire course of fire for the specific type of long gun established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A Type 1 and Type 2 long gun qualification may only be conducted using agency approved ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Type 3 and Type 4 long gun qualification may be conducted using agency approved ammunition or the ballistic equivalent as defined and authorized by the individual’s agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following table establishes the minimum requirements for entrance-level, annual, and conversion courses of fire for type 1 through type 4 long gun qualification:</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Annual Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements — All Firearms.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>During each calendar year, a police officer shall successfully complete the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction for each firearm type the police officer is authorized to use or carry;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Training for each firearm the police officer is authorized to use or carry; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Qualification for each firearm the police officer is authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annual Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A police officer shall complete a minimum of 2 hours of classroom instruction as part of the requirements established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classroom instruction shall include the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under Annual Firearms Training in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Commission may accept up to 2 hours of a police officer's annual firearms classroom instruction as part of a police officer's annual in-service training required under COMAR 12.04.01.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Annual Handgun Requirements — Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Required Firearms Training — Primary Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A police officer shall annually discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition approved by the police officer's law enforcement agency, or the ballistic equivalent, for training with the police officer's primary handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Training drills to improve the police officer's skills may be incorporated into a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Training may not include practicing the actual course of fire used for qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire for Qualification — Primary and Secondary Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For each handgun a police officer is authorized to use or carry, with one finger on the trigger the police officer shall discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition using ammunition authorized by the police officer's agency, or the ballistic equivalent, on each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>One day-fire course of fire;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>One reduced light course of fire; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>If the handgun is equipped with a red dot sight, a one-day course of fire and a one-day reduced light course shall be fired with both the iron sights as well as the red dot sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Police officer annual course of fire for qualification consists of requirements 3 through 10 in the Course of Fire Requirements for Handgun table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A minimum score of 70 percent is required on both a day-fire and a reduced light course of fire for qualification for each handgun for which annual certification to be a police officer is required by COMAR 12.04.01.12.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Annual Long Gun Requirements — Firearms Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms training for each long gun a police officer is authorized to use or carry consists of demonstrations to familiarize a police officer with the nomenclature, operation, safety, care, and cleaning of the specific long gun type.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire for Annual Long Gun Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During each calendar year, a police officer authorized to use or carry a specific type of long gun shall successfully complete the course of fire requirements for qualification for the specific long gun, as described in this subsection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 1 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a police officer to successfully complete four courses of fire for qualification, one during each quarter of a calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the police officer is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification table under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 2 and Type 3 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a police officer to successfully complete two courses of fire for qualification, one during each half of the calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the police officer is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification table under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a police officer to successfully complete one course of fire for qualification, each calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the police officer is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Reporting Firearm Qualification Scores to the Commission. By January 31 of the calendar year immediately following firearms qualification, an agency head shall submit to the Commission a police officer's required firearms qualification score for each firearm the police officer is authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Failure to Meet Commission Annual Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a police officer fails to successfully complete Commission annual firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements for an authorized firearm within a calendar year, the agency head:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall remove the firearm, or authorization to use or carry the firearm if personally owned, from the police officer by January 1 of the next calendar year; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not return or authorize the police officer to use or carry the firearm until the police officer successfully completes the appropriate firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failure to Qualify with a Firearm.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A police officer who fails an annual firearms qualification required under Regulation .08 of this chapter shall successfully complete qualification within:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>30 consecutive calendar days of the initial attempt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The same calendar year as the initial attempt.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If a police officer does not successfully meet qualification requirements within the period established under §E(2)(a) of this regulation, the police officer's agency head shall immediately:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Report to the Commission the police officer's failure to qualify;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Require the police officer to surrender the firearm to the agency, if it was issued by the agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Withdraw the police officer's authority to use or carry the firearm, if personally owned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A police officer may not use or carry a firearm that has been surrendered or for which authority to carry or use has been withdrawn, except during supervised training to meet the police officer's annual firearms training and qualification for the firearm required under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Firearms Conversion — Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A police officer who has successfully completed entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a specific type of firearm, who is also required or requesting to use or carry a firearm with a red dot sight or of a different type for which the police officer has qualified, shall successfully complete:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements established under this regulation for the different firearm type; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this chapter for the different firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A police officer shall successfully complete firearms conversion requirements under this regulation before being authorized to use or carry a different type of firearm if the police officer is currently authorized to use or carry a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Primary handgun type and is seeking authorization to use or carry a handgun of a different type as a primary handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Primary handgun type and is required or requesting to add a red dot sight;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, and is seeking authorization to use or carry a type 2 or 3 long gun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, and is seeking authorization to use or carry a type 3 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Conversion Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification for Primary Handgun and Long Gun within the Same Type.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C(2) of this regulation, a police officer is not required to complete firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification under this regulation before the police officer is authorized to use or carry a primary handgun or a long gun that is the same type that the police officer is currently authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A police officer is required to complete firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification under this regulation before the police officer is authorized to use or carry a primary handgun or a long gun that is the same type that the police officer is currently authorized to use or carry if the police officer's agency determines:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>There is a difference in operation between the firearms; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification are warranted to ensure safe and effective use of the firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Primary Handgun Conversion — Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a police officer is required to complete conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification according to §B or C(2) of this regulation, the police officer shall successfully complete:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For a different type primary handgun, the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” for Handgun Conversion Training — Different Type Handgun in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a handgun within the same type, the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” for Handgun Conversion Training — Within a Handgun Type in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For adding a red dot sight, the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” for Handgun Conversion Training — Red Dot Sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a police officer is required to complete conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification according to §B or C(2) of this regulation, with one finger on the trigger the police officer shall discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition for each course of fire required for conversion qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ammunition used for a required course of fire for conversion qualification shall be ammunition that is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Authorized by the police officer's law enforcement agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The ballistic equivalent of the ammunition authorized by the police officer's law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The required course of fire for conversion qualification shall be completed according to requirements 3 through 10 of the table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The following table specifies the minimum requirements for classroom instruction, training, and qualification for primary handgun conversion:</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Long Gun Authorization for which Conversion Training is Permitted.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before a police officer may participate in conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a long gun, the police officer shall currently be authorized to use or carry a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, if conversion is for another type 1 long gun, a type 2 long gun, or a type 3 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, if conversion is for another type 2 long gun or a type 3 long gun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, if conversion is for another type 3 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A police officer converting from one type of long gun to another type of long gun not listed under §E(1) of this regulation shall successfully complete entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for the long gun to which the police officer is converting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Long Gun Conversion — Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Long gun conversion classroom instruction shall, at a minimum, include the Classroom Instruction Topics marked with an “X” under Firearms Conversion Training—Long Gun in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Long gun conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification shall, at a minimum, meet the applicable criteria in the following table:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The course of fire for long gun conversion qualification shall meet the requirements specified for the type of long gun established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Crediting Conversion Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Toward Annual Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency may use the following conversion training toward a police officer's annual firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements for the specific firearm used in the conversion training conducted in the same calendar year:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One day-fire conversion qualification score; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One reduced light conversion qualification score.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If firearms conversion classroom instruction is less than 14 hours, a law enforcement agency may use a maximum of 2 hours of the firearms conversion classroom instruction toward meeting a police officer's annual firearms classroom instruction requirements in the same calendar year the conversion training was conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If firearms conversion classroom instruction is 14 hours or more, a law enforcement agency may use a maximum of 6 hours of the firearms conversion classroom instruction toward meeting a police officer's annual firearms classroom instruction requirements for the same calendar year the conversion training was conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Classroom Instruction Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The table in §B of this regulation establishes minimum required classroom instruction topics for firearms classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An “X” in the following table indicates that the corresponding classroom instruction topic is required for the specified type of training:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Legal aspects in the use of firearms, at a minimum, shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Rules for the use of deadly force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Alternatives to the use of deadly force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Emotional, mental, and psychological preparation needed for the possibility of a deadly force shooting situation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training on the use of deadly force; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Criminal, civil, and administrative liability for misuse of deadly force.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Safe handling and safe storage of firearms, at a minimum, shall address safe handling and safe storage in the following settings:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At home;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In a law enforcement facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>On the firing line; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>On patrol.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§3-208 and 3-209; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 342)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01, .02, .04, .06—.16 amended effective March 14, 1983 (10:5 Md. R. 465)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02G and I amended, and J adopted effective July 4, 1983 (10:13 Md. R. 1180)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter, Public Information Requests, repealed effective September 24, 1984 (11:19 Md. R. 1667)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.21, Firearms Training and Instructor Certification Regulations, adopted effective January 1, 1992 (18:20 Md. R. 2199)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10C amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11E amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13 amended effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 146)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14B, C amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14C, D amended effective January 20, 2003 (30:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19B, C amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20A, B amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.21 repealed and new Regulations .01—.13 adopted effective January 1, 2009 (35:24 Md. R. 2078)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2013 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935); April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective September 2, 2013 (40:17 Md. R. 1420)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04C adopted effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08B amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10B amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="General Hearing Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>These regulations apply to administrative hearings before the Police Training Commission (Commission), where issues concerning the legal rights, duties, statutory entitlements, or privileges of specific parties are decided as required by law or constitutional right.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations do not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee grievance hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An informal investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A Commission action on an application for certification or recertification as a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A decision made by the Executive or Deputy Director pursuant to authority delegated by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A decision to conduct or not to conduct a hearing; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A proceeding where a hearing is not required by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Provisions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A hearing conducted by the Commission is subject to the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission may conduct a hearing only if a majority of the Commission's authorized membership is present.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Parties—Representation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A party to a hearing includes an individual or agency that the Commission names or designates or who is entitled to be a party to a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may be represented by counsel at a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notice of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission shall provide all parties with written notice of a hearing at least 10 business days before the scheduled hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written notice shall comply with State Government Article, §§10-207 and 10-208 and include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The date, time, and place of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A brief explanation of the allegations and issues;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Citations of relevant law or regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of COMAR 12.04.03.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Postponements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer may postpone a hearing upon a written request of any party, if the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Presiding officer receives the request at least 3 business days before the scheduled hearing date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Request establishes good cause for the postponement as determined by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Absent a postponement request, the presiding officer may postpone the hearing for good cause.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Presiding Officer—Duties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission chairman, or a designee, shall be the presiding officer who shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be in charge of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Permit the examination of witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Rule on the admissibility of evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Decide the order in which parties may testify, present evidence, or present argument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Adjourn or recess the hearing from time to time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Decide if a party is required to submit a written brief or motion supporting the party's position and establish deadlines for submissions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing if a majority of the Commission is not present; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Maintain a record of the hearing as required under State Government Article, §10-218, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall determine that a party:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has been informed of the nature of the proceedings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Understands the language and intent of these regulations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is cognizant of the rights under applicable statutes upon which the subject of the hearing is conducted as well as rights under these regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the presiding officer is not satisfied that a party is fully informed as to these matters, the presiding officer shall note this on the record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer when deciding the case or issuing an order pursuant to the provisions of these regulations and of law shall inform the party of the right to appeal a decision or order and the methods and procedures for making that appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The presiding officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Examine witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Call witnesses; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request the Office of the Attorney General to provide counsel to the Commission and to Commission staff who may be presenting evidence at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Attendance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a party fails to appear for the hearing and the presiding officer has reason to believe the party received notice of the hearing, the presiding officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Proceed with the hearing based on the information available; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may waive the right to appear for the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Hearing Procedures—Testimony and Evidence."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The introduction of evidence at a hearing shall comport with procedures under State Government Article, §10-213, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When a party is represented by counsel, only counsel may submit evidence, question witnesses and file objections, exceptions, and motions on behalf of the party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A party testifying shall be under oath administered by an individual authorized by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer shall require the following oath be used, “Do you solemnly swear or affirm under the penalties of perjury that the responses given and statements made will be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth?”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The burden of proof is on the party bringing the issue before the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The standard of proof is a preponderance of evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A party may submit a brief, or the presiding officer may order that a brief be submitted, concerning the issues of fact and law involved in the hearing. The presiding officer shall determine:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The form for the brief; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submission deadlines.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Decisions and Orders."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A decision by the Commission shall be made by a majority of the members present at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall prepare the Commission's final decision and order in writing that includes findings of fact and conclusions of law that are based exclusively on testimony, evidence, and other matters that are a part of the hearing record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commission shall deliver or mail a copy of the decision and order and accompanying findings and conclusions to each party or the party's counsel of record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Unless specified otherwise, orders of the presiding officer or the Commission shall be immediately implemented.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Request for Reconsideration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A party may request reconsideration of a final decision by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for reconsideration shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be received by the presiding officer issuing the decision not later than 10 days after receipt of the final decision or order by the party or the party's counsel of record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>State in detail the grounds for the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within a reasonable period following receipt of the request for reconsideration, the presiding officer, with input from the Commission members hearing the case, shall either grant or deny the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer shall mail the decision on the request for reconsideration under §C(4) of this regulation to the individual making the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>At the discretion of the Commission, a request for reconsideration may stay enforcement of the order until disposition of the request or subsequent action based on that request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Submitting a request for reconsideration does not stay the time requirements for filing an appeal.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Transcripts of Hearing Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission is not required to provide a transcript of the hearing record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may obtain a complete or partial transcript if the party:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Makes a written request for a transcript to the presiding officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Agrees to pay the costs of and make arrangements for a transcript.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Judicial Appeal."> <text>A party aggrieved by the Commission's final decision, or by an interlocutory order, is entitled to judicial review as provided in State Government Article, §10-222, Annotated Code of Maryland, or any other applicable provision of law.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 02, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 343)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 8, 2004 (31:22 Md. R. 1595)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Minimum Standards for Certified Firearms Safety Training"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <text>This chapter applies to:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual who is required by law to attend a certified firearms safety training course in order to purchase, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person seeking certification from the Commission to offer certified firearms safety training under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A firearms safety training course approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A firearms safety instructor certified by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Certified firearms safety instructor” means an individual certified under this chapter to conduct a certified firearms safety training course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Certified firearms training course” means an instructional program approved by the Commission to teach the safe handling of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training Commission or an employee authorized to act in its behalf.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201(e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Regulated firearm” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Certified Firearms Safety Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A firearms safety instructor shall be certified in order to conduct a certified firearms safety training course under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Requirements for a Certified Firearms Safety Instructor. An individual is eligible to conduct a certified firearms safety training course if the individual is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A certified police officer who has completed:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Commission requirements for entrance-level firearms training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Probationary employment requirements as a police officer; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Certified to conduct a certified firearms safety training course by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department of Natural Resources;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Department of State Police; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A reputable organization having as one of its objectives the promotion of competency and safety in handling handguns.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Commission Certification Procedure. An individual seeking certification as a firearms safety instructor under §B(2)(a) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit a request for certification to the Deputy Director for approval; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include a resume or other documentation indicating the individual's qualification to conduct the certified firearms safety training course.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Certified Firearms Safety Training Course."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Commission approval is required for a certified firearms safety training course designed to meet the requirements specified under Public Safety Article, §3-208, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A certified firearms safety training course shall include the following elements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A handgun safety component;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Safe handling of a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Rendering a regulated firearm safe;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Safe carrying and transporting of a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Security and storage of a regulated firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Restricting access to a regulated firearm by an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Younger than 21 years old; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not legally permitted to possess a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A certified firearms safety training course shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Have a handgun safety component; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Be conducted by a certified firearms safety instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the certified firearms safety training course is offered by the Commission, it:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be presented by a certified firearms safety instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be open to all individuals required by law to complete a certified firearms safety training course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Be offered at least weekly in all geographic areas of Maryland after regular business hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Require attendance throughout the duration of the course for successful completion; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Be free of charge to all individuals seeking to take the course; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be more than 2 hours in length; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include a test, examination, or other measure of comprehension.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Commission Approval Procedure. A person seeking approval for a certified firearms safety training course under this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit a request for approval to the Deputy Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include a description of the course to be presented.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Documentation of Completion.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The certified firearms safety instructor shall provide to each individual attending the certified firearms safety training course a certificate of completion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The certificate of completion shall contain the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Full name of the individual attending the course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Address of the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Date and location of the training course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Name of the certified firearms safety instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The certified firearms safety instructor shall forward a list of all individuals attending the certified firearms safety training course to the Commission within 2 weeks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §3-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 3, 2001 (28:17 Md. R. 1558)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Electronic Control Device Training"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Annual in-service training curriculum” means a course of study approved by the Commission that meets the requirements established for electronic control device classroom instruction, written examination, and practical exercise and is conducted as part of police officer annual in-service training and qualification under COMAR 12.04.01.12.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Electronic control device” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-109, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Initial training course curriculum” means a course of study approved by the Commission that meets the requirements established for electronic control device classroom instruction, written examination, and practical exercise that an individual shall successfully complete before the individual may be authorized to carry or use an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-215, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Minimum Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes minimum police officer training requirements related to the use of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A law enforcement agency may adopt police officer training requirements related to use of an electronic control device in addition to Commission requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A police officer may not carry or use an electronic control device as part of the police officer's official law enforcement duties before the police officer's law enforcement agency has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approved each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device used as part of the police officer's duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Certified to the Commission, on forms or in a manner determined by the Commission, that the police officer has successfully completed Commission training requirements established under this chapter for each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device approved by the law enforcement agency, which, at a minimum, include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A written examination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Practical exercises demonstrating proficiency in the use of the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Determined that the police officer has received adequate training demonstrating the ability to safely and effectively use each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device the police officer is authorized to carry or use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Police Officer Electronic Control Device Initial Training Course Curriculum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A police officer is not required to complete an electronic control device initial training course curriculum under this regulation if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The police officer's authorization to use the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device is in effect on September 30, 2009 and the law enforcement agency has determined the police officer has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Received adequate training on the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Demonstrated the ability to safely and effectively use the specific electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The police officer has been authorized to carry or use a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device under §A(1) of this regulation and is seeking authorization to carry or use a different manufacturer's model of an electronic control device that the police officer's law enforcement agency has approved and determined:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>There are no significant operational differences between the current and new manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That the police officer has:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Received adequate training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Demonstrated the ability to safely and effectively use the new manufacturer's model of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except under §A of this regulation, a police officer shall successfully complete a Commission-approved initial training course curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device before the officer is authorized to carry or use the electronic control device as part of the police officer's official duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A police officer is required to complete an initial training course curriculum if after successfully completing an initial training course curriculum, the police officer has not been authorized to carry or use the approved electronic control device:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 2 years of completing an initial training course curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For 2 or more years and the police officer has not met the annual in-service training curriculum requirement for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Initial training course curriculum requirements may be completed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As part of police officer entrance-level training under COMAR 12.04.01.09; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Independent of police officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Electronic Control Device Annual In-Service Training Curriculum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A police officer authorized to use or carry a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device shall successfully complete annual in-service training curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A police officer who successfully completes an initial training course curriculum for a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device during a calendar year is not required to complete an annual in-service training curriculum for the same electronic control device until the next calendar year.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Electronic Control Device Training Content Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Minimum Commission-Approved Classroom Instruction Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Only a Commission-certified electronic control device instructor may conduct Commission-approved electronic control device classroom training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Initial training course curriculum and annual in-service curriculum electronic control device classroom instruction, at a minimum, shall include the following topics related to the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device for which the police officer is to be authorized to carry or use:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Electronic control device:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Nomenclature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Characteristics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Capabilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Limitations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Maintenance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Operational principles and technology; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Proper electronic control device use addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Law enforcement agency policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency and other protocols;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Judgment and decision making;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Legal considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Physiological and psychological effects;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Target zones;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Side effects and individuals with an elevated risk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>After-care measures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Defensive measures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Potential collateral occurrences; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Safety of transport, storage, and use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A police officer shall achieve a minimum passing score of 70 percent on a written examination that tests a police officer's comprehension of the topics required under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Minimum Commission-Approved Practical Exercise Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Only a Commission-certified electronic control device instructor may conduct Commission-approved electronic control device practical exercises.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Initial and annual in-service electronic control device practical exercise, at a minimum, requires that a police officer demonstrate skills related to the proper use of the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device the police officer carries or uses as part of official duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If applicable to the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, a police officer, at a minimum, shall demonstrate proficiency related to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Operational and functionality checks of the device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transition between a firearm and other tactical equipment and the electronic control device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Proper carrying and handling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Loading and reloading;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Restraint of an individual subjected to the device; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Discharge, if the device is capable of discharging a projectile.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Discharge Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>During an initial training course curriculum with the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, each police officer shall discharge the device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>During annual in-service training curriculum with the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, the discharge requirement may be met by the instructor discharging the device to demonstrate to two or more officers rather than each officer personally discharging the device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§3-207 and 3-208; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective February 16, 2015 (42:3 Md. R. 317)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 repealed effective January 1, 2013 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Instructor Training and Certification"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Police Training and Standards Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Course of fire” means a sequence of activities related to the actual discharge of a firearm on a firing line for training or qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Course of fire” does not include firearm classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Day fire” has the meaning stated under COMAR 12.04.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or the Deputy Director’s designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Firearm” means a pistol, revolver, or long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Firearm Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firearm classroom instruction” means training conducted in a traditional educational setting such as a room with desks, chairs, books, paper, and other educational tools or equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firearm classroom instruction” does not include training conducted on a firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Firing line” means an area and position from which an individual actually discharges a firearm with live ammunition for firearms training or qualification, or both, as part of a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Firearms Training,</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firearms training” means a demonstration or an exercise, in addition to firearm classroom instruction, that is provided:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>By an individual certified under Regulation .12 of this chapter or COMAR 12.10.06 to perform firearm classroom instruction, conduct firearms training or qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>To enhance understanding, proficiency, marksmanship, and other skills related to proper firearm use and tactics, such as movement, multiple targets, judgmental or decision training, and use of cover and concealment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firearms training” may include drills that involve discharging rounds of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Firearm type” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The following handguns:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Revolver; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The following long guns:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shotgun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Long gun other than a shotgun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Handgun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Revolver.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Inactive Status.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inactive status” means a situation in which an individual, who continues to be employed by or under the supervision of a law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10, is temporarily relieved of duties with the law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 for 30 consecutive days or more for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A medical or administrative reason that prevents the individual from completing Commission-required training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The purpose of suspending Commission-required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inactive status” does not affect an individual’s instructor certification or eligibility for provisional certification or certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Iron Sight.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Iron sight” means a system of shaped alignment markers, typically metal or plastic, that is used as a sighting device to assist an individual in aiming a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Iron sight” does not mean an optical, computing, red dot, or reflex style sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Judgmental or decision training” means instruction and skills development conducted in the classroom, using firearms simulation, or on a firing line, to enable an individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Differentiate between threat levels; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Respond appropriately to an identified threat.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Law Enforcement Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated under Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” includes a training or personnel unit authorized to act in training or employment matters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Motorcycle.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Motorcycle” has the meaning stated in Transportation Article, §11-136, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is designated as an emergency vehicle in accordance with Transportation Article, §11-118(1), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Optical Sighting Device.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” means an optic mechanism that assists an individual in sighting a firearm by enhancing or magnifying the image of the target and superimposing a reticle, or an aligned aiming point, over the image.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” does not include an iron sight or a red dot sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Pistol” means a handgun that operates semi-automatically:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discharging a single round of ammunition with a pull of the trigger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Clearing the chamber of the spent casing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loading the next round of ammunition in the chamber.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Power” means a measurement used to describe levels of visual magnification, with a number representing the level of magnification above the normal visual range.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Qualification” as used in Regulations .12, .16, and .17 of this chapter means proficiency testing by discharging a firearm on a Commission-approved course of fire to receive a score that the Commission measures against established requirements to determine if the individual meets provisions required under this chapter for certification as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>Red Dot Sight.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Red dot sight” means a generic term to describe a visual, computing, or reflex sighting device that reflects a reticle, or an aligned aiming point that can be any shape or color, onto a combining glass for superimposition on a target.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Red dot sight” does not include an optical sighting device or an iron sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>Reduced Light.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Reduced light” means the normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dusk and dawn.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Reduced light” includes simulated natural outdoor lighting conditions such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Artificial light; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Goggles, headgear, or an apparatus worn to cover the eyes designed to reduce the availability of light to simulate natural reduced lighting conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Revolver” means a handgun that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fires a single round of ammunition with each pull of the trigger; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has a cylinder containing additional rounds of ammunition that rotates to position the next round of ammunition for firing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Term of certification” means the dates during which an individual’s certification for an instructor classification is in effect.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Training authority” means an individual of a law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10, who is authorized by the law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 to submit under provisions of this chapter an application for any of the following for another individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal of instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Termination of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Exemption from instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Waiver of certain requirements for instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Training provider” means an entity that has Commission approval to conduct a training course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Type 1 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Type 2 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use other than as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Type 3 long gun” means a long gun without an optical sighting device, or with an optical device of 4 power or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” means a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun that is designed to discharge a single projectile or multiple projectiles from a single round of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” includes a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun regardless of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Use of an optical sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Instructor Certification Classifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission provides instructor certification in accordance with this chapter for the following instructor classifications:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Academic Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Academic Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Electronic Control Device Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Emergency Vehicle Course Safety Officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Line Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Firearms Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Motorcycle Operator Course Safety Officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Motorcycle Operator Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification Required.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Unless exempt under Regulation .04 of this chapter, an individual who provides instruction for a Commission-approved training course that is credited toward the Commission’s requirements for police officer certification under COMAR 12.04 shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certified by the Commission or the Correctional Training Commission as an instructor for the type of instruction the individual is providing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In compliance with applicable Commission regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual’s instructor certification for a specific instructor classification limits the individual to providing the type of instruction prescribed for the instructor classification established under Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Selection Standards and Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Selection Standards for Instructor Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an application is submitted to the Commission requesting certification of an individual for an instructor classification, at a minimum, the individual shall meet the following standards:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Possess a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>High school diploma issued by a high school or recognized by the State Board of Education; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>General Education Development (GED) certificate or diploma issued by Maryland or another state, or recognized by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be currently employed by or providing instruction under the supervision of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A law enforcement agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Satisfies requirements of this chapter for the instructor classification for which instructor certification is requested; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Be in compliance with applicable Commission regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Application for Instructor Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual applying for instructor certification shall complete and sign a Commission instructor certification application for the requested instructor classification and submit the completed application to the training authority for the law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Employs the individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Supervises where the individual provides instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not approve or sign the training authority’s own instructor certification application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a training authority approves an individual making application for instructor certification and determines that the individual requesting certification meets requirements under this chapter for instructor certification for the instructor classification requested, the training authority shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign the application and submit the application to the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide, with the application, documentation required by the Commission establishing that the individual requesting certification meets requirements under this chapter for the instructor classification for which certification is requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Instructor Previously Certified by the Correctional Training Commission. If an application for instructor certification is submitted to the Commission by a training authority for an individual who was previously certified as an instructor by the Correctional Training Commission not more than 3 years before the date of the application, the Commission may certify the individual as an instructor for the instructor classification formerly certified by the Correctional Training Commission, if the individual meets:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The selection standards under this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicable instructor renewal requirements under Regulation .15 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Additional criteria that the Commission may require.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Exemptions from Instructor Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual who provides 3 hours or less of instruction for a Commission-approved training course is exempt from the requirement to have instructor certification required under this chapter if the individual does not provide instruction that is a part of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Defensive tactics training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Electronic control device training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Emergency vehicle training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Firearms training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Motorcycle operator training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Deputy Director, upon a written request from a training authority or training provider, may exempt the following from the instructor certification requirements under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual currently licensed or certified by the State or a nationally recognized organization, for the purpose of providing instruction in the subject matter related to the discipline in which the individual is licensed or certified;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A faculty member employed by an accredited college or university, for the purpose of providing instruction in the subject matter area for which the faculty member is employed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A currently certified emergency medical care or advanced first aid instructor, for the purpose of providing instruction related to emergency medical care or first aid; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Other individual who the Deputy Director determines to possess specialized skills or expertise for the purpose of providing instruction related to those skills or expertise.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own request for an exemption from instructor certification required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An exemption granted to an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permits the individual receiving the exemption to provide instruction for Commission-approved training for the purpose under §B of this regulation for which the exemption was granted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Expires upon termination of the certification, license, or employment that is the basis for the exemption; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May be permanently revoked or temporarily suspended by the Deputy Director, as provided under Regulation .18 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Time Limits — Extension for Inactive Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following time limits may be extended by the amount of time that equals the length of time an individual is on inactive status:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The time for completion of an applicant’s evaluations prior to submitting an application for certification or renewal of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The time for completion of an applicant’s training program, instructor’s course or instruction prior to submitting an application for provisional certification, certification, or renewal of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The time of an individual’s term of certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The time for completing a required firearms qualification course of fire.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Reporting Inactive Status to the Commission.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the request of an instructor, the training authority shall report the individual’s inactive status to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority shall include in the report the date the individual is placed on inactive status and the date the inactive status ends.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Instructor Evaluation Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An evaluation of an individual required by this chapter for an instructor classification shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conducted on a separate occasion from other evaluations of the individual who is being evaluated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conducted by an individual who meets the requirements of this chapter or COMAR 12.10.06;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conducted while the individual being evaluated provides instruction for a course that is approved by the Commission or the Correctional Training Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Based on the personal observations, for a minimum of 1 hour, of the individual conducting the evaluation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Recorded, by the individual conducting the evaluation, on a form approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual may not conduct the individual’s own instructor classification evaluation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commission may consider an unsatisfactory evaluation or commentary by an evaluator as grounds to deny instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Academic Instructor — Training Program, Evaluation Requirements, and Waiver of Training Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A law enforcement agency, academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10, or training provider may conduct an Academic Instructor training program if the program is approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Not later than 20 working days before the proposed date for the start of an Academic Instructor training program, the law enforcement agency head, academy training director, or the training provider’s official supervising the Academic Instructor training program shall submit to the Commission the proposed Academic Instructor training program for approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following are minimum Academic Instructor training program requirements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual providing the Academic Instructor training shall be an Academic Instructor certified under this chapter or COMAR 12.10.06;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Academic Instructor training program shall include instruction on the following topics:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An introduction to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The basic concepts of learning and teaching;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The role of training in the criminal justice profession; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Classroom management techniques;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Effective speech techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Preparation and use of audiovisual training aids;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Development of training objectives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Development of testing strategies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Identification of the purpose of a lesson plan and its components; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Practical preparation of mock classroom lesson plans.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An evaluation required for an Academic Instructor training program shall be conducted by an:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Academic Instructor, if the individual’s application is for Academic Instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Instructor who meets the requirements of this chapter to perform evaluations for the instructor classification for which the individual is applying for certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Waiver for an individual to complete the Academic Instructor Training Program Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receiving a written application from a training authority, the Deputy Director may waive the requirement for an individual to complete the Academic Instructor training program if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is certified or licensed as an instructor by an agency of government or a non-governmental organization to provide instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is currently a Provisional Instructor for one of the instructor classifications under Regulation .02 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has received at least two acceptable Academic Instructor evaluations conducted in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter and §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own application for a waiver of the Academic Instructor training program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A training authority requesting a waiver of the Academic Instructor training program for an individual shall submit to the Deputy Director:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A completed Commission’s Application for Instructor Certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A written request that the requirement to complete the Academic Instructor training program be waived for the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Academic Instructor training program evaluations for the individual completed in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter and §D of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information the Deputy Director may request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Certification — Academic Provisional Instructor and Academic Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Academic Provisional Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Academic Provisional Instructor when the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has 1 year of employment experience in the public safety community; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meets the selection standards under Regulation .03A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Academic Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Academic Instructor when the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A minimum of 2 years employment experience in the public safety community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completed, within 2 years before the date of the application, an approved Academic Instructor training program meeting the requirements of Regulation .07 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Received a minimum of two favorable instructor evaluations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Completed by an individual specified by Regulation .07D of this chapter within 2 years of the date of the application for certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conducted in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Conducted while the individual was providing instruction as an Academic Provisional Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Certification and Training Program — Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor and Defensive Tactics Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor Certification. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor if the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Acquired a minimum of 2 cumulative years of criminal justice related defensive tactics skills experience during the 5-year period immediately before the date of the application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved Defensive Tactics Instructor training program not more than 2 years before the date of the application for Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor Certification. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Defensive Tactics Instructor when the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has successfully completed the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program that meets the requirements under Regulation .07 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except if granted a waiver under §C of this regulation, a Commission-approved Defensive Tactics Instructor training program before the date of the application for Defensive Tactics Instructor certification; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor provided a minimum total of 12 hours of defensive tactics classroom and skills instruction under the direction of a Defensive Tactics Instructor that included a minimum of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Four hours of classroom instruction in the concepts and principles of defensive tactics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Eight hours of defensive tactics practical skills instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One satisfactory evaluation for each of the following, in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter, performed by a Defensive Tactics Instructor certified under this chapter or COMAR 12.10.06, while the individual was providing defensive tactics:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Skills instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon application by a training authority, the Deputy Director may waive the requirement under §§A(2) and B(2)(b) of this regulation that an individual complete the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program of this regulation if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Successfully completed a program that was a minimum of 35 hours in length and the equivalent of a Defensive Tactics Instructor training program that meets the requirements of §F(1)(c) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provides supporting evidence, such as copies of certifications or course curriculums, to document the applicant’s extensive knowledge and abilities in the skill areas specified in §F(1)(c) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own application for a waiver of the requirement to complete the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program required under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Deputy Director may limit the subject matter taught in a Defensive Tactics Training program by an individual who receives certification as a Defensive Tactics Instructor based on a waiver under §C of this regulation of the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program requirement under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor Training Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Defensive Tactics Instructor training program, at a minimum, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be a minimum of 35 hours in length; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include the following topics:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Balance, awareness, and self-control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Impact weapons;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Weapon retention;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Disarming;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Vital points of the human anatomy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Control holds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Take-downs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Handcuffing and searching;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Escorting and Transporting an inmate or detainee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Use of force continuum;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Multiple adversaries; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>Ground-level defenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successful completion of a Defensive Tactics Instructor training program, at a minimum, requires:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A minimum score of 80 percent on all written examinations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Satisfactory demonstration of practical skill elements required in the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission may approve a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor training program that meets the requirements under this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A combination of defensive tactics training program courses that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>As determined by the Deputy Director, satisfactorily address the topics required under §F(1)(c) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is a minimum of 35 hours in length.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Certification — Electronic Control Device Instructor."> <text>A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Electronic Control Device Instructor if the individual seeking certification:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Is a Commission-certified police officer who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is authorized by the police officer’s employing agency to carry or use the specific manufacturer’s model of an electronic control device for which the individual, if granted certification, would provide instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has successfully completed a Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program that meets requirements under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Is not a Commission-certified police officer, but has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved training course for the specific manufacturer’s model of an electronic control device for which the individual, if authorized, would provide instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Been determined by the Deputy Director to be qualified to provide electronic control device instruction based on the individual’s knowledge, skills, and abilities with the specific manufacturer’s model of electronic control device for which the individual, if authorized, would provide instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Certification — Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor; Emergency Vehicle Course Safety Officer; and Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Occupational experience operating an emergency vehicle for at least 2 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completed, within 5 years before the date of the application for provisional instructor certification, Commission-approved Emergency Vehicle Operations instructor’s training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Emergency Vehicle Operations Course Safety Officer. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Emergency Vehicle Operations Course Safety Officer at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Occupational experience operating an emergency vehicle for at least 3 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Previously been certified as an Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successfully provided a minimum of 40 hours of emergency vehicle operations practical skills exercises training while an Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations, performed by an Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor in conformity with Regulation .06 of this chapter, while conducting emergency vehicle operations practical skills exercises training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Occupational experience operating an emergency vehicle for at least 3 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Previously been certified as an Emergency Vehicle Operations Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successfully completed an approved Academic Instructor training program that meets the requirements under Regulation .07C of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Successfully provided a minimum of 56 hours of emergency vehicle operations classroom and skills instruction that includes a minimum of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>16 hours of emergency vehicle operations classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>40 hours of instruction for emergency vehicle operations practical skills exercise training; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations for each of the following, performed by an Emergency Vehicle Operations Instructor in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter, while the individual was providing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Emergency vehicle operations practical skills exercise training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Certification — Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, and Firearms Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Certification Requirements — General. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor when the individual meets the certification requirements established under this regulation for the particular instructor classification and has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Two or more years employment as a law enforcement or correctional officer within the last 5 years, during which employment the individual was authorized to use or carry a firearm for a minimum of 2 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 60 days immediately before the date of the application for instructor certification, successfully completed the qualification course of fire required by §D(5) of this regulation for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification Requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor; Line Instructor; and Firearms Instructor.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Within 2 years before the date of the application for Firearms Provisional Instructor, successfully completed classroom instruction, training, and the qualification course of fire required under §D(2) and (3) of this regulation that was provided by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A Commission-approved program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The United States Government or Armed Forces;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>National Rifle Association; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A firearms instructor school approved by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Line Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Line Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully completed the requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor certification established under §B(1) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual while providing firearms firing line training and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Provided firearms firing line training and qualification instruction that is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A minimum of 8 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provided for Commission-approved courses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Supervised by a Line Instructor or Firearms Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Provided for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting Firearms Line Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Firearms Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Firearms Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual providing firearms classroom instruction during the Academic Instructor training program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Successfully provided at least four hours of firearms classroom instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual while providing firearms firing line training and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Is currently a Commission-certified Line Instructor, or a Commission-certified Firearms Provisional Instructor who has successfully provided firearms firing line training and qualification instruction that has been:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A minimum of 8 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provided for a Commission-approved course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Supervised by a Line Instructor or Firearms Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Provided for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting Firearms Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Experience Accepted by the Commission for Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may accept documented firearms-related experience toward meeting the minimum training requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Examples of documented firearms-related experience that the Commission may accept include military training or counter sniper training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Classroom Instruction, Firearms Training, and Firearms Qualification Course of Fire Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms classroom instruction and firearms training and qualification course of fire required by this regulation shall be approved by the Commission before being conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The following establishes minimum requirements for classroom instruction and firearms training and qualification course of fire for the certification of instructor classifications under this regulation:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor classroom instruction shall meet the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation, and at a minimum include instruction on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firearms safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms nomenclature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms fundamentals and marksmanship;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms cleaning and maintenance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The problem shooter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Target analysis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Ballistics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Legal issues concerning the use of force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Deadly force policy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Reduced light discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Emotional, mental, and psychological issues related to critical incidents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Commission policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Malfunctions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Exposure to or practical application of, or both:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Designing a course of fire;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Lesson plan development; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Classroom presentations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Firearms training shall meet the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation, and at a minimum, include exposure to and practical application of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firing line operations, that include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Instruction on the firing line; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Instruction from a location overseeing the firing line;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Malfunction drills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Stress training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Range preparation and cleanup;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Scoring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Target analysis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Safety; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Marksmanship fundamentals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Red Dot Sight classroom instruction and training required for an instructor level as established under §D(2) of this regulation includes, at a minimum, the following information and practical applications:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Introduction to red dot sights and differences;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Proper mounting and zeroing procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Maintenance of the device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Drawing and presentation — finding the dot (practical);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Common malfunctions and inclement weather issues;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Co-witnessing with iron sights (practical);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Target-focused shooting (practical);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Close quarters vs. distance techniques (practical);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Identifying and fixing common red dot sight shooter errors; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Obscured sight techniques (practical).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An individual seeking instructor certification under this regulation shall successfully complete one firearms qualification course of fire that meets the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation for each firearm type for which the individual is seeking instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An individual seeking instructor certification under this regulation shall successfully meet:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For a handgun, requirements 3 through 9 of the “Handgun Day-Fire Required Course of Fire for Qualification” in the table under COMAR 12.04.02.05;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a particular type long gun, requirements 3 through 7 of the table under COMAR 12.04.02.07.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Certification — Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor; Motorcycle Operator Course Safety Officer; Motorcycle Operator Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor. An application may be submitted to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Two or more years experience operating a law enforcement agency motorcycle while a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A valid driver’s license that authorizes the individual to operate a motorcycle; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successfully completed, within 2 years before the date of the application, Commission-approved Motorcycle Operator Instructor’s training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Motorcycle Operator Course Safety Officer. An application may be submitted to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Motorcycle Operator Course Safety Officer at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Three or more years experience operating a law enforcement agency motorcycle while a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Possesses a valid driver’s license that authorizes the individual to operate a motorcycle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Previously been certified as a Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor for a minimum of 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Successfully provided a minimum of 16 hours of motorcycle operations practical skills exercises training while a Motorcycle Provisional Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations, performed by a Motorcycle Operator Instructor in conformity with Regulation .06 of this chapter, while conducting motorcycle practical skills exercises training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Motorcycle Operator Instructor. An application may be submitted to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Motorcycle Operator Instructor at any time the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Three or more years experience operating a law enforcement agency motorcycle while a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Possesses a valid driver’s license that authorizes the individual to operate a motorcycle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Previously been certified as a Motorcycle Operator Provisional Instructor for a minimum of 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Successfully completed an approved Academic Instructor training program that meets the requirements under Regulation .07 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Successfully provided a minimum of 20 hours of motorcycle operations classroom and skills instruction that includes a minimum of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Four hours of motorcycle operations classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sixteen hours of motorcycle operations practical skills exercise training; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations for each of the following, in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter, performed by a Motorcycle Operator Instructor while the individual was providing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Motorcycle practical skills exercise training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Expiration of Instructor Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual’s instructor certification expires:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the conclusion of the individual’s term of certification established under Regulation .17B of this chapter for the individual’s instructor classification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the individual leaves employment with the law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10, on behalf of which the training authority submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the training authority for the law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 that submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification requests that the individual’s instructor certification be terminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual’s term of certification may not expire while the individual is on inactive status.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Renewal of Instructor Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewal of provisional instructor certification for an instructor classification may be granted by the Deputy Director as provided under Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except for a provisional instructor, renewal of instructor certification for an instructor classification may be granted by the Commission as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an individual’s instructor certification has been expired for more than 3 years, the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall successfully complete the instructor certification requirements of this chapter for the instructor classification applied for in order to receive certification for that instructor classification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon approval by the Commission, may receive certification renewal for the expired instructor classification if the individual successfully completes a program of selected aspects of the instructor classification’s certification requirements designated by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an individual’s instructor certification expires because the individual leaves employment or ceases to provide instruction under the supervision of a law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 that submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification and subsequently is employed by or provides instruction under the supervision of another law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 whose training authority submits an application for renewal of the individual’s instructor certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>More than 90 days before the date that the individual’s term of certification expires, the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual is not required to meet the requirements of Regulation .16 of this chapter to receive the certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Commission shall establish a new term of certification for the individual that does not exceed 12 months from the expiration date of the individual’s most recent term of certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>90 days or less before expiration of the term of certification or 3 years or less after the expiration of the term of certification, the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual shall meet requirements established under Regulation .16 of this chapter to receive renewal of certification for the instructor classification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Certification renewal, if granted, shall be for a new term of certification established under Regulation .17B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an instructor certification is due to expire or has expired at the conclusion of the term of certification, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Training authority shall submit an application for renewal of the instructor certification to the Commission not sooner than 90 days before the term of certification expires and, if certification has expired, not later than 3 years after the term of certification expired;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual is required to meet the instructor certification requirements under Regulation .16 of this chapter to renew instructor certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Individual’s instructor certification shall be renewed for a new term of certification established under Regulation .17B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Instructor Certification Renewal Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may renew an individual’s certification for an instructor classification if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Individual meets requirements under this chapter for instructor certification renewal and other applicable Commission regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual completes the Commission’s renewal application and submits the completed application to the training authority for the individual’s employer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Training authority for the individual’s employer has reviewed and approved the renewal application and submits the approved application to the Commission within the time established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not review, approve, or submit to the Commission the training authority’s own application for instructor certification renewal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Instructor Certification Renewal Requirements for Instructor Classifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a provisional instructor certification for an instructor classification expires, the individual is not required to meet the requirements of this section to renew the same provisional instructor certification classification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The training authority for a law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 submitting an application for instructor certification or renewal of instructor certification that the Commission last approved during the individual’s most recent term of instructor certification shall affirm that the individual meets the certification requirements specified for the instructor classification under §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Renewal for each instructor classification requires that the individual for which a training authority has submitted an application for instructor certification renewal is recommended for instructor certification renewal by the individual’s law enforcement agency or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following table provides the minimum requirements for an individual’s certification renewal of the instructor classifications indicated:</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Term of Instructor Certification and Limitations on Instruction"> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual may not conduct any part of the individual’s own training or instruction required by the Commission to meet instructor certification requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The following table establishes for each instructor classification:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Limitations on instruction that may be provided; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Term of instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Suspension and Revocation of Instructor Certification and Exemptions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Deputy Director, in accordance with this regulation may temporarily suspend or permanently revoke an individual’s instructor certification if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Does not comply with Commission regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Falsifies or fails to maintain reports, forms, rosters, and other records required by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Facilitates or condones cheating on an examination, skills exercise, or other aspect of a training provider’s course for which instruction is provided;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Compromises the integrity of a training provider’s training program or course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Misuses the authority granted by the instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fails to provide required instruction or provides instruction that is erroneous or inadequate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Fails to cooperate with Commission audits or inquiries;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Provides false or misleading information to the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Violates or fails to meet Commission requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the Commission has knowledge that an instructor has allegedly engaged in conduct specified under §A of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide written notice of the allegations to the instructor’s supervising authority at the law enforcement agency, correctional unit, Department of Juvenile Services, training provider, or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 or COMAR 12.10.01.14 that employs or supervises the instructor who is the subject of the allegation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure the allegation is thoroughly investigated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conduct a hearing to allow the allegation to be presented and the instructor to respond to the allegation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After reviewing the information resulting from the investigation and conducting a hearing under §B of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall decide if the allegation is supported by fact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the Deputy Director decides the allegation is supported by fact, the Deputy Director may order that the instructor’s certification be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permanently revoked; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Temporarily suspended.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Deputy Director shall submit a written report of findings to support a decision under §C of this regulation and order under §D of this regulation to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The instructor’s supervising authority at the law enforcement agency, correctional unit, Department of Juvenile Services, training provider, or academy certified under COMAR 12.04.01.10 or COMAR 12.10.01.14 that employs or supervises the instructor who is the subject of the allegation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Police Training Commission or Correctional Training Commission that granted the instructor’s certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The instructor who is the subject of the allegation may appeal the Deputy Director’s decision under §C of this regulation and order under §D of this regulation to the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Revoking or Suspending an Instructor Certification Exemption.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Deputy Director may permanently revoke or temporarily suspend an exemption from instructor certification granted under Regulation .04 of this chapter if the individual to whom the exemption was granted engages in conduct specified by §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Deputy Director considers revoking or temporarily suspending an exemption as provided by §G(1) of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Comply with the requirements of §B of this regulation, and may order that the exemption be revoked or temporarily suspended as provided by §D of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide a written report on the findings and order under §G(2)(a) of this regulation to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual to whom the exemption was granted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Training authority or training provider that requested the exemption.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An exemption from instructor certification granted under Regulation .04 of this chapter may be revoked or temporarily suspended by the Deputy Director if the Deputy Director determines the individual no longer possesses the specialized skills or expertise to warrant the exemption.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§3-208 and 3-209; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 1, 2013 (39:15 Md. R. 964)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended effective May 12, 2014 (41:9 Md. R. 522)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12D amended effective April 4, 2022 (49:7 Md. R. 468)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Police Auxiliary and Reserve Volunteer Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes minimum requirements and a process for Commission approval of a law enforcement agency’s police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program for the purposes of the police auxiliary or reserve volunteer subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter details uniform record-keeping and reporting requirements for a law enforcement agency with a Commission-approved police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program for the purpose of the police auxiliary or reserve volunteer subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This chapter establishes active status requirements for an individual participating in a law enforcement agency’s Commission-approved police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program for the purpose of the police auxiliary or reserve volunteer subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>This chapter permits the continued application of previous law enforcement agency police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program participation for which the individual received the subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, to meet cumulative participation requirements necessary to qualify as a police auxiliary or reserve volunteer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Active status” means an individual’s approved service that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is provided in support of a law enforcement agency’s Commission-approved police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Totals a minimum of 144 hours of service provided in support of a law enforcement agency’s Commission-approved police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program during a taxable year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Comptroller” has the meaning stated in Tax-General Article, §10-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” or “agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Police Auxiliary or Reserve Volunteer Program.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program” or “program” means an agency’s ongoing activity that uses individuals approved by the agency to assist the agency to perform administrative or technical tasks, or other services on behalf of the agency to support the agency’s duties or mission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program” or “program” may include an agency’s ongoing activity that otherwise meets requirements under §B(6)(a) of this regulation, but does not include the term auxiliary, reserve, or volunteer in the activity’s title.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Taxable year” has the meaning stated in Tax-General Article, §10-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Minimum Requirements for Commission Approval of a Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>For the purpose of permitting an individual who participates in an agency’s program to apply for the subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208, Annotated Code of Maryland, an agency’s program is required to be approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Commission approval of an agency’s program, at a minimum, requires:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The program to comply with the definition of a police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program in Regulation .02 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The program to be incorporated in the agency’s rules and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The program to be supervised by a permanent agency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An individual to successfully complete a related orientation or training program before the agency may approve the individual to participate in the program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The agency to maintain a list of individuals approved to participate in the program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>That an individual is not compensated, except reimbursement for nominal expenses and meals, for participation in the program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The agency to maintain information concerning program approval and an individual’s program participation necessary to support reporting requirements under Tax-General Article, §§10-208(l)(3) and (5), Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Application for Commission Approval and Renewal of Approval of an Agency Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agency applying for Commission approval of a program for the purpose of the subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Apply to the Commission using a form or in a format approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the application to the Deputy Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provide with the application:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A copy of the agency’s rules or regulations into which the program is incorporated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Other information that the Commission or the Deputy Director may require.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Approval — Application for Commission Approval of an Agency Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of an application under §A of this regulation, the Deputy Director, on behalf of the Commission, shall approve a program if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Application is completed according to Commission requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Application contains sufficient information supporting that the program meets Commission requirements under this chapter and requirements under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Program complies with other requirements of this chapter and State law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Following approval of an application, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establish a date when the program’s approval expires, which shall be a maximum of 4 years from the date the program was approved; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Within 10 days of approval, provide written notice of the date the program was approved and approval expiration date to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Agency that submitted the application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Comptroller.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Denial — Application for Commission Approval of an Agency Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of an application under §A of this regulation, the Deputy Director, on behalf of the Commission, shall deny approval of a program if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Application is incomplete or improperly completed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Program does not:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Meet the requirements of this chapter or requirements under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, for a police auxiliary or reserve volunteer program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Otherwise comply with the requirements of this chapter or State law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 10 days of denying approval of an application, the Deputy Director shall provide to the agency that submitted the application for approval a written notice stating the reason for denying approval of the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an application submitted by an agency for Commission approval of a program is denied, the agency may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Resubmit an application for Commission approval of the program if the agency corrects the deficiencies that the Deputy Director identified justifying denial of the application for Commission program approval; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Appeal the Deputy Director’s denial of the application for Commission approval of a program to the Commission as established under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Renewal of Commission Approval of an Agency Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Not less than 60 days before an agency’s program approval expires, the agency shall submit a Commission-approved renewal application form to the Deputy Director if the agency seeks to renew Commission approval of the program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of an application under §D(1) of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall review the agency’s application for renewal of Commission approval of a program for a maximum of 4 years from the date of renewal and shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>On behalf of the Commission, renew Commission approval of the program if the program meets requirements for original approval established under §B(1) of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Deny renewal of Commission approval of the program as established under §C(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within 10 days of approving or denying an application for renewal of a Commission-approved program, the Deputy Director shall provide to the agency that submitted the renewal application and the Comptroller a written notice stating that the renewal application was:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Approved and include the program renewal expiration date, which may not exceed 4 years from the date of Commission approval; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Denied and include the reason the application for program renewal was denied.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an agency’s application for renewal of Commission approval is denied by the Deputy Director, the agency may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Resubmit an application for renewal of Commission approval of the program if the agency corrects the deficiencies that the Deputy Director identified justifying denial of the application for renewal of Commission approval; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Appeal the Deputy Director’s denial of the application for renewal of Commission approval to the Commission as established under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Appeal to the Commission of Denial of Approval by the Deputy Director."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agency may appeal to the Commission a denial by the Deputy Director of an application for Commission approval or renewal of Commission approval of the agency’s program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agency appealing a denial by the Deputy Director of an application for Commission approval or renewal of Commission approval of the agency’s program shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the appeal in writing to the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions (Executive Director) in a format or on a form approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in the written appeal, the basis for the agency’s appeal of the denial by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of an appeal under §B of this regulation, the Executive Director shall schedule the appeal to be considered by the Commission at the next Commission meeting that is scheduled at least 30 days after the date that the appeal was received by the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>At the time the agency’s appeal is heard by the Commission, the Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall permit the Deputy Director to testify and present information related to the denial;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall permit a representative from the agency making the appeal to testify and present information related to the agency’s basis for the appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May permit other individuals to testify or present information that the Commission determines relevant to the appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Following testimony and presentation of information under §D of this regulation, the Commission, by a majority vote of the members present at the meeting, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sustain the denial by the Deputy Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grant the agency’s appeal unconditionally; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Grant the agency’s appeal with conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Appeal of Denial — Commission’s Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 10 days following the Commission’s decision under §E of this regulation, the Executive Director, or a designee, shall provide the agency filing the appeal and the Deputy Director written notice of the Commission’s decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Commission sustains the denial by the Deputy Director, the notice shall include the Commission’s reason for sustaining the denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Commission grants the appeal without conditions, the notice shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A statement of Commission approval of the program or renewal of Commission approval; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date of expiration of Commission approval or renewal of Commission approval, which may not exceed 4 years from the date of Commission approval of the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the Commission grants the appeal with conditions, the notice shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A statement of Commission approval of the program or renewal of Commission approval;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, an explanation of the conditions with which the agency shall comply to continue Commission approval of the program or renewal of Commission approval; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The date of expiration of Commission approval or renewal of Commission approval, which may not exceed 4 years from the date of Commission approval of the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Within 10 days of the date of receipt of a written notice under §F(1) of this regulation, the Deputy Director, or a designee, shall provide written notice including the information under §F(4) of this regulation to the Comptroller.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A decision on an agency’s appeal of a denial of Commission approval of an agency’s program or renewal of Commission approval of an agency program is final.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Reporting Changes to a Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agency with a Commission-approved program shall report to the Deputy Director changes to the information submitted as part of the original application for Commission approval or the most recent application for renewal of Commission approval of the program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The agency shall report changes under §A of this regulation within 30 days after the effective date of the changes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Deputy Director shall notify the Comptroller of changes reported under §B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Required Police Auxiliary or Reserve Volunteer Program Record Keeping and Reporting."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Minimum Record-Keeping Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency that has a Commission-approved program, shall maintain records for each calendar year that includes information on each individual participating in the agency’s Commission-approved program as required under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l)(3)(i), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Information required to be maintained under §A(1) of this regulation shall, at a minimum, include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual’s full name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The individual’s Social Security Number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The total hours of service worked by the individual for the agency’s Commission-approved program that itemizes service hours worked for each month; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information the Commission or the Comptroller may require.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Report to be Provided to Active Status Individuals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As required under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l)(3)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland, on or before February 15 of each year, an agency that has a Commission-approved program shall provide a written report to each individual who the agency determines meets active status requirements in the agency’s Commission-approved program between January 1 and December 31 of the preceding year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The report under §B(1) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be in a format approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Identify the individual to whom the report pertains by using the information maintained under §A(2) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include information for only the identified individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Include a certification signed by an authorized official of the agency stating that the identified individual is qualified to apply for the subtraction modification established under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, on the basis that the individual has, between January 1 and December 31 of the preceding year:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Participated in a Commission-approved program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Met requirements of Tax-General Article, §10-208(l)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, to be considered a qualifying police auxiliary or reserve volunteer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Met minimum requirements for active status as defined under Regulation .02 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Agency’s Annual Report to the Commission and Comptroller.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On or before October 1 each year, an agency maintaining information under §A(2) of this regulation shall submit a report to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Commission, on behalf of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Comptroller.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The report under §C(1) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be in a format approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include a statement signed by an authorized official of the agency certifying that the information provided is correct; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide the information that the agency maintains under §A(2) of this regulation for the period of January 1 through December 31 of the preceding year for each individual who the agency determined:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Qualified to apply for the subtraction modification established under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Met minimum requirements for active status as defined under Regulation .02 of this chapter, but was not qualified to apply for the subtraction modification under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Individual Eligibility to Apply for Income Tax Subtraction Modification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual is eligible to apply for the income tax subtraction modification established in Tax-General Article, §10-208(l)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland, if the individual meets requirements for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prior service established in Tax-General Article, §10-208(l)(2)(iv), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The taxable year for which the individual is applying for the subtraction modification, by meeting requirements:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Established in Tax–General Article §10-208(a) and (l)(2)(i)—(iii)1, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For active status as defined in Regulation .02 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual is presumed to meet requirements under §A(1) of this regulation if the individual has applied for and received the subtraction modification established under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, during any of the previous 10 calendar years by December 31 of the taxable year for which the individual is applying for the subtraction modification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual applying for the subtraction modification established under Tax-General Article §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland, shall comply with procedures established by Comptroller for claiming the subtraction modification.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Commission Audit Authority."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may audit records related to an agency’s Commission-approved program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The purpose of a Commission audit is to ensure agency compliance with Commission requirements established under this chapter and authorized under Tax-General Article, §10-208(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Revocation of Program Approval."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Deputy Director may revoke Commission approval of an agency’s program if the agency does not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit to the Commission information as required by Regulation .06 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain records or comply with reporting required by Regulation .07 this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Continue to meet minimum requirements for Commission approval; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Comply with other provisions of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Before revoking Commission approval of an agency’s program, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the agency of the specific requirement with which the agency’s program does not comply; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide the agency up to 30 days to bring the program into compliance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Deputy Director shall notify the Comptroller if the Deputy Director revokes Commission approval of an agency’s program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An agency may appeal a decision by the Deputy Director to revoke Commission approval of the agency’s program according to procedures established under Regulation .11 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Appeal of Revocation of Commission Approval."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the Deputy Director revokes Commission approval of an agency’s program under Regulation .10 of this chapter, the agency may appeal to the Commission for reinstatement of Commission approval of the agency’s program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agency appealing revocation by the Deputy Director of Commission approval of the agency’s program shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the appeal in writing to the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions (Executive Director) in a format or on a form approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in the written appeal, the basis for the agency’s appeal of the revocation by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of an appeal under §B of this regulation, the Executive Director shall schedule the appeal to be considered by the Commission at the next Commission meeting that is scheduled at least 30 days after the date that the appeal was received by the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>At the time the agency’s appeal is heard by the Commission, the Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall permit the Deputy Director to testify and present information related to the revocation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall permit a representative from the agency making the appeal to testify and present information related to the agency’s basis for the appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May permit other individuals to testify or present information that the Commission determines relevant to the appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Following testimony and presentation of information under §D of this regulation, the Commission, by a majority vote of the members present at the meeting, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sustain the revocation by the Deputy Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grant the agency’s appeal and reinstate Commission approval unconditionally; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Grant the agency’s appeal and reinstate Commission approval with conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Appeal of Revocation — Commission’s Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 10 days following the Commission’s decision under §E of this regulation, the Executive Director, or a designee, shall provide the agency filing the appeal and the Deputy Director written notice of the Commission’s decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Commission sustains the revocation by the Deputy Director, the notice shall include the Commission’s reason for sustaining the Deputy Director’s revocation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Commission reinstates Commission approval of the program without conditions, the notice shall include a statement as to the reinstatement of Commission approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the Commission reinstates Commission approval of the program with conditions, the notice shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A statement as to the reinstatement of Commission approval of the program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An explanation of the conditions with which the agency shall comply to continue Commission approval of the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Within 10 days of the date of receipt of a written notice under §F(1) of this regulation, the Deputy Director, or a designee, shall provide written notice including the information under §F(4) of this regulation to the Comptroller.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A decision on an agency’s appeal of a revocation of Commission approval of an agency’s program is final.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §3-208(a); Tax-General Article, §10-208; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: November 12, 2012 (39:22 Md. R. 1429)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="08" heading="Special Tactical Response"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish minimum procedural and training requirements for members of a special tactical response team and a no-knock warrant service operation.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Activate” means to put police officers who are members of a special tactical response team or who are participating in a no-knock warrant service operation on notice of potential deployment for an unusually dangerous or potentially violent situation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“After-action report” means a document to be completed following activation and deployment of a special tactical response team or a no-knock warrant service operation that includes, at minimum, the type of deployment, persons deployed, the location deployed to, information about suspects, witnesses, victims, or others, a synopsis of the event, and a conclusion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Commission.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Commission” means the Police Training and Standards Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Commission” includes all references to the Police Training Commission, now known as the Police Training and Standards Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Competencies” means the capabilities of the team members to conduct special tactical responses based on tactical abilities, training, and resources.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Deployment” means that a team has taken a tactical approach to resolving a law enforcement matter that exceeds the duties of traditional police officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Documented training” means a permanent record of training that includes the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Curriculum;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>List of instructors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Record of attendance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If administered, test and examination scores.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“No-knock warrant service” means a law enforcement warrant service operation in which a police officer does not announce the police officer’s presence prior to obtaining entrance to a premises.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Special tactical response” means a planned, strategic, tactical response to resolve critical incidents that may exceed the capabilities of traditional law enforcement officers and investigative unit personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Special Tactical Response Team.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Special tactical response team” means two or more police officers, who have been specially trained, and have the ability to execute strategic responses to resolve critical incidents that may exceed the capabilities of traditional law enforcement officers and investigative unit personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Special tactical response team” may include, but is not limited to, a Special Weapons and Tactics (SWAT) Team as defined under Public Safety Article, §3-201(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Special Tactical Response Team."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To increase the likelihood of safely resolving critical situations that may exceed the capabilities of traditional law enforcement officers and investigative units, a law enforcement agency seeking to establish a special tactical response team that may be activated and deployed shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Develop written policies and procedures for special tactical responses that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Are designed to meet the law enforcement agency’s operational needs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Are consistent with the requirements set forth in this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Address, at minimum the following policy topics:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Types of missions requiring special tactical response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Team organization and function;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Personnel selection and retention criteria;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Training requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Competencies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Procedures for activation and deployment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>If applicable, multi-agency cooperation and response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>If applicable, criteria for response to other jurisdictions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Specialized tactical functions, as applicable;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure team members successfully complete the individual and team training requirements established in Regulation .04A of this chapter prior to initial deployment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure special tactical response teams:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conduct an assessment of the tactical needs presented by the circumstances present in each unique situation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Adhere to the training and deployment requirements as set forth in this chapter and according to agency policy and procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A special tactical response team shall be composed of police officers with the advanced tactical training and expertise who are able to engage responsibly in the operational functions described in §C of this regulation and shall, at minimum, include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A tactical commander of supervisory rank who has overall responsibility for team personnel, training, operations, deployment, and after-action documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A team leader who is a team member of senior team status or rank, reports directly to the tactical commander, and develops and executes tactical response training and operations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Team members who provide specialized law enforcement capabilities to contain, prevent, or respond to critical and high-risk situations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A special tactical response team’s operational functions include, but are not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Tactical command and control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Perimeter control and containment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Entry and apprehension; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Hostage rescue.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A police officer’s assignment to a special tactical response team may be a full-time position or designated as a collateral-duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A special tactical response team may include police officers from a single law enforcement agency or police officers from multiple law enforcement agencies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Each regional or multi-agency special tactical response team shall develop the appropriate agreements, protocols, and procedures for interagency cooperation that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Delineate, establish, and specify a law enforcement chain of command, operational control, duties and responsibilities of supporting units, and joint training requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specify which agency is charged with jurisdiction in the event of a criminal investigation involving the actions of a team member, such as an officer-involved shooting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Minimum Training Requirements for a Special Tactical Response."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Initial Tactical Response Training Standards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prior to initial deployment, each new team leader or member shall attend and successfully complete a Commission-approved course of study that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Philosophy of special tactical response operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Tactical response theory and concepts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Overview of individual and team equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Operational planning;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Overview of specialized tactical response functions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Command post operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Individual and team movement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Basic entry and search techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Chemical agents and deployment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Less lethal munitions and deployment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Diversionary device usage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Crisis negotiation and de-escalation skills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Individual and team firearms training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Purpose and intent of warrant service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Problem solving situations in a scenario-based learning environment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>Legal requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A Commission-approved course of study for initial special tactical response shall include a minimum of 40 hours of classroom instruction, written examination, and practical exercise that meets the standards established in §A(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successful completion of a Commission-approved course of study for initial special tactical response requires a police officer to obtain a minimum passing score of 80 percent in all classes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Continuing Quarterly and Annual Special Tactical Response Training Standards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Quarterly, each team leader and member shall complete a minimum of 24 hours of documented training in one or more of the following special tactical core competencies:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Weapons, munitions, and equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual and team movement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Decision making; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specialized tactical functions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each special tactical response team shall successfully complete a minimum of 40 hours of documented, team-based training over a 12-month period, with the full team, consisting of lectures, drills, operational risk assessments, and scenario-based exercises.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Training hours obtained during a team-based training as specified in §B(2) of this regulation may be applied to an individual team member’s quarterly training requirement if the team-based training:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Covers one or more of the topics identified in §B(1) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Occurs during the quarter for which the team member is seeking credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a team member maintains one or more specialized team positions, such as deliberate hostage rescue, or integrated tactical response K-9, the team member shall participate in additional documented training that is mandated and specific to each specialized position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Special Tactical Response Training Requirements for a Tactical Commander.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A tactical commander shall attend and successfully complete a documented tactical commander course within 1 year of assignment to a special tactical response team.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Biennially, a tactical commander shall successfully complete a minimum of 16 hours of one or more of the following training topics:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review of criminal incidents and tactical response operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Legal issues;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Mutual aid procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Deployment and guidelines for deployment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Hostage rescue;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Tactical team operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Command and control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Command post operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Tactical operation procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Tactical components and capabilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Tactical considerations and mission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Training scenarios and problem-solving simulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="No-Knock Warrant Service."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To increase the likelihood of safely resolving a high-risk warrant service operation, a law enforcement agency shall ensure that a police officer conducting no-knock warrant service:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Successfully completes the minimum training requirements established in Regulation .06 of this chapter prior to service of a no-knock warrant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Adheres to the law enforcement agency’s internal policy and procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Regardless of whether a judicial officer has authorized a police officer to enter a premises without knocking and announcing the police officer’s presence prior to entry, a police officer shall, based upon exigent circumstances existing at the time of the entry determine whether such an announcement:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is reasonable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Increases the risk or danger to the police officer and others; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inhibits the effective investigation of a crime by enabling the destruction or tampering of evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Minimum Training Standards for Police Officers Involved in a No-Knock Warrant Service."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Prior to initial deployment in a no-knock warrant service operation a police officer shall successfully complete a Commission-approved no-knock warrant service course of study that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The purpose and intent of warrant service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Tactical response theory and concepts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Operational planning;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Basic entry and search techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Crisis negotiation and de-escalation skills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Legal requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Problem solving situations in a scenario-based learning environment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Multi-agency, mutual aid warrant services procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Commission-approved no-knock warrant service course shall include a minimum of 24 hours of instruction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Successful completion of a no-knock warrant service course requires a police officer to obtain a minimum passing score of 80 percent in all classes.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Deployment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Prior to each deployment a special tactical response team or police officer involved in no-knock warrant service shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure compliance with all applicable training standards within this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct a documented threat and risk assessment to determine the appropriate response and resources necessary for the mission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Develop a mission-specific operational plan and orders.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>After-Action Debriefing and Report.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A tactical commander, or senior member, shall conduct a debriefing of each incident in which a special tactical response or police officers involved in no-knock warrant operations were deployed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A tactical commander shall prepare, appropriately disseminate, and retain an after-action report in accordance with agency policy and Maryland law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§3-207 and 3-208; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 21, 2020 (47:19 Md. R. 849)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="09" heading="Police Accountability Boards and Administrative Charging Committees"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes a civilian process to receive and process allegations of police officer misconduct involving a member of the public, review administrative investigations, and make disciplinary recommendations involving misconduct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The agency head of each law enforcement agency shall develop the agency's own procedures to process complaints of misconduct that do not involve a member of the public..</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“ACC jurisdiction” means the governmental entities responsible under Public Safety Article, §3-104(a) and (b), Annotated Code of Maryland, for establishing a jurisdictional ACC and appointing the jurisdiction’s ACC members.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Administrative Charging Committee (ACC)” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-104, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Agency head” has the meaning stated in COMAR, 12.04.01.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Agency review” means a thorough evaluation of the entire completed investigative file by the agency head.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Conflict of interest” means real or seeming incompatibility between an individual’s private interests and the individual’s official responsibilities in a position of trust.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Final disposition” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The police officer accepts the ACC recommendation if the agency head does not increase the penalty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The police officer accepts the agency head’s increased penalty disposition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The police officer accepts the trial board’s finding; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The appeal process is exhausted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Local governing body” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For Baltimore City, the Mayor and City Council of Baltimore City;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a charter county:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>That does not have an elected chief executive officer, the county council; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>That has an elected chief executive officer, the county council or the county council and the county executive, as provided by the county charter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For a code county, the county commissioners; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>For a commission county, the county commissioners.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Police Accountability Board (PAB)” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article §3-102, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-105, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Police Accountability Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A PAB shall ensure public accountability and transparency over the powers exercised by law enforcement agencies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A local governing body shall establish a PAB consistent with the provisions established in Public Safety Article, §3-102, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A local governing body shall determine the number of individuals necessary to administer the PAB.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>PAB Membership Eligibility.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A local governing body may impose eligibility criteria on PAB membership such as requiring that an applicant be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least 21 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A legal resident or citizen of the United States of America; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A resident of the jurisdiction the PAB serves.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appointed member shall sign an agreement to maintain the confidentiality of PAB matters related to individual complaints until final disposition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="State Administrative Charging Committee and Local Administrative Charging Committees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Consistent with provisions established in Public Safety Article, §3-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, an ACC jurisdiction shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Have one ACC to serve law enforcement agencies within its ACC jurisdiction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Develop written procedures for processing police officer misconduct complaints involving members of the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A law enforcement agency shall establish written procedures for handling complaints of police officer misconduct that do not involve members of the public.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency shall use the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix, promulgated in COMAR, 12.04.10, for complaints that result in an administrative charge.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Administrative charges arising out of an investigation of alleged police officer misconduct, not involving a member of the public, must be filed within one year and one day, pursuant to Public Safety Article, §3-113(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Public Invitation to Apply for ACC.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At least 30 days prior to selecting a member, an ACC jurisdiction shall publicly invite individuals to apply for an appointment to a membership vacancy on the ACC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An ACC jurisdiction shall, at minimum, publicly announce on its website an ACC appointment prior to the member’s initial term, successive term, or expiration of term.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>ACC Membership Eligibility.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To the extent permitted by law, an ACC jurisdiction may limit its membership eligibility by requiring, for example, a member to be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least 21 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A legal resident or citizen of the United States of America;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A resident of the jurisdiction the ACC serves;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Of good moral character; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Free from bias that may negatively impact the integrity of the ACC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If permitted by law, an ACC jurisdiction may exclude an individual from appointment to its ACC for ethical and public trust-related reasons consistent with the ACC’s business needs. An ACC jurisdiction’s reasons for exclusion may include, but are not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An individual has a demonstrable conflict of interest, as determined by the ACC jurisdiction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An individual is under criminal investigation by a law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An individual is charged with a crime pending before a court; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An individual has been convicted of, or has received probation before judgement for, a felony or misdemeanor for which a sentence for 1 or more years could have been imposed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>ACC Membership Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To the extent consistent with Public Safety Article, §3-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, an ACC jurisdiction may require as a condition of its membership that an individual applying to be an ACC member:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Submit to a background investigation with the law enforcement agency or investigative firm chosen by the ACC jurisdiction to which the individual has applied;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully complete the Police Training and Standards Commission’s required training before serving as a member; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sign an agreement to maintain the confidentiality of matters and information considered by the ACC until final disposition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Background Investigation.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To the extent permitted by law, an ACC jurisdiction may authorize a background investigation to determine if an individual applying to be an ACC member is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Of good moral character; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Unencumbered by conflicts of interest.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An ACC jurisdiction shall ensure that a background investigation includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An examination of publicly available records; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A review of the individual’s presence on social media websites, applications, and platforms.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The law enforcement agency or firm conducting the background investigation shall report the results in writing to the ACC jurisdiction that made the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Grounds for Refusal of an Appointment to the ACC. If permitted by law, an ACC jurisdiction may refuse to appoint an individual to serve as a member, if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Does not meet the eligibility requirements imposed by the ACC jurisdiction under §D of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Does not agree to the membership requirements imposed by the ACC jurisdiction under §E(1) of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is determined to be unsuitable for membership by the ACC jurisdiction based on the results of the background investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Self-Reporting of Adverse Events.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A member has an ongoing and continuous obligation to report immediately to the chairman of the ACC any event that may harm the public trust of the ACC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Adverse events include, but are not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conflicts of interest;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Criminal charges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Criminal investigations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criminal convictions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Terms of Appointment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Subject to §H(2) of this regulation, and to the extent such limitations are permitted by law, the term for each appointed ACC member may be limited to a specified period of time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In order to maintain the continuity of ACC operations, an ACC jurisdiction may, during its establishment of an ACC, stagger its members’ initial terms of appointment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To the extent permitted by law, an ACC jurisdiction may impose term limits for appointment to an ACC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Removal or Resignation of an ACC Member.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If an ACC jurisdiction decides to remove a member from the ACC prior to the end of the member’s term, the ACC jurisdiction shall provide written notification of the decision to the member and the ACC’s chairman.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An ACC jurisdiction shall immediately remove a member who fails to maintain confidentiality as established under §E of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A member may resign from an ACC at any time by providing written notification to the ACC jurisdiction and the ACC chairman.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Election of an ACC Chairman.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The members shall choose a chairman from their membership.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A chairman shall follow Robert’s Rules of Order.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A chairman’s responsibilities include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establishing the meeting schedule, with a minimum of one meeting per month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Establishing a written agenda for each meeting for dissemination to the members in advance of each meeting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Calling a meeting to order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Coordinating a meeting in accordance with the agenda;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Inviting discussion among members before voting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Inviting motions, seconds, and votes from members;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Ensuring that a record of all business conducted by the ACC is kept; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Promptly reporting to the ACC jurisdiction any concerns or adverse events as established under §G(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="ACC Meetings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>As a public body, an ACC is subject to and shall act in accordance with the requirements established in the Maryland Open Meetings Act.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An ACC shall establish a schedule for making determinations or asking for further review in all pending matters within 30 days of the date a law enforcement agency within its jurisdiction completes its investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An ACC shall issue a determination for every initial filing of a complaint by a member of the public within 1 year and 1 day of the date the complaint was received by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A PAB, as established in Public Safety Article, §3-113(c), Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>In order to maintain confidentiality, an ACC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Adhere to the requirements for closed sessions as required in the Maryland Open Meetings Act; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Utilize secure methods to electronically transmit documents, files, notes, and any other materials pertaining to a complaint and subsequent investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Quorum and Attendance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Three members constitute a quorum and a quorum shall be in attendance prior to conducting any ACC business.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>ACC meetings may be conducted in person or remotely via secure video connection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Law Enforcement Agency Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Complaints Eligible for Mediation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complaints from the public that meet the eligibility requirements for the mediation process established by regulation pursuant to Public Safety Article, §3-207(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, may, subject to the agreement of the complainant, be handled outside of the formal PAB and ACC complaint process..</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complaints from the public handled through mediation shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Tracked with other citizen complaints; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reported to the PAB.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Complaints Not Eligible for Mediation. A law enforcement agency shall complete a thorough investigation upon receipt of a complaint of alleged police officer misconduct, which is not eligible for mediation, as prescribed pursuant to Public Safety Article, §§3-102 and 3-103, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon completion of an investigation involving a member of the public, the law enforcement agency shall forward to the ACC the investigative files for the matter and any agency head recommendations within 3 business days of the date the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Law enforcement agency completed its investigation and agency review; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Agency head of the law enforcement agency completes the agency review and issues a written recommendation regarding the imposition of discipline consideration by the ACC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Recommendation by Agency Head of the Law Enforcement Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head may include a written recommendation for the ACC to consider regarding the matter under investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The written recommendation may include an agency head’s:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Opinion regarding whether the police officer should be disciplined;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Explanation of aggravating or mitigating factors or circumstances; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Recommendation for a remedial measure, if the ACC determines not to impose administrative charges against the police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an agency head believes that discipline is warranted, based on the facts presented in the investigation, an agency head may make a specific recommendation for discipline in accordance with the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix, as approved by the Police Training and Standards Commission under Public Safety Article, §3-105, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as set forth in §F of this regulation, for any alleged police misconduct involving a member of the public and a police officer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The investigating unit shall complete its investigation and forward its findings to the administrative charging committee within 334 days after the filing of a complaint by a member of the public or initiation of a complaint by the law enforcement agency in the absence of a complaint by a member of the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The administrative charging committee shall review the administrative findings and make a determination or ask for further investigation within 30 days after receipt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The process of review and investigation by the investigating unit, through disposition by the administrative charging committee, shall be completed within 395 days after the filing of a complaint by a member of the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Where alleged police officer misconduct is the subject of a criminal investigation, an administrative charging committee or law enforcement agency shall file any administrative charges within 1 year and 1 day after the date of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The investigating law enforcement agency’s timely determination that the matter is not related to criminal activity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The disposition of all criminal charges filed against the police officer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The administrative charging committee’s or law enforcement agency’s receipt of timely notice that the appropriate prosecutorial authority declined to file criminal charges.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="ACC Deliberation and Determination."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Deliberation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When reviewing an investigative file responsive to a complaint of alleged police officer misconduct, an ACC shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conform to the procedures established in Public Safety Article, §3-104(e), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, read and consider an agency head’s written recommendation before making a determination, and note the ACC’s consideration in the ACC’s written recommendation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An ACC, in the performance of its duties under Public Safety Article, §3-104(f)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland, may request additional information from and investigation by the law enforcement agency that conducted the initial investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conflict of Interest.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An ACC member shall abstain from participation in the review, deliberation, voting, and determination of whether to impose administrative charges against a police officer if the ACC member has a specific conflict of interest related to either the police officer under investigation or the complainant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An ACC member with a potential conflict of interest shall announce the existence of the potential conflict of interest prior to any receipt of the materials contained in the investigative file or any deliberations of the complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If an ACC member becomes aware of a potential conflict of interest after receiving a copy of the investigative file or beginning deliberation, the ACC member shall immediately announce the existence of a potential conflict of interest to the other members of the ACC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>ACC members shall discuss the details of the potential conflict of interest, and, if the majority determines that the conflict is such that the affected member should not be involved, that member shall be excused from the meeting prior to any consideration of the matter and shall return only after voting on the matter has concluded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Determination.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Following deliberation of the investigative file, interviews, body camera footage, and other available materials, an ACC determination shall be made by a majority vote of the members in attendance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each ACC member shall cast one vote and may not abstain unless prohibited from participating in accordance with §A(3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an ACC makes a determination that administrative charges should be filed, the ACC shall make a recommendation in accordance with the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix established under Public Safety Article, §3-105, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An ACC may not administratively charge a police officer for conduct for which the police officer has previously been disciplined or sanctioned.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An ACC may not administratively charge a police officer who was not the subject of the investigating unit’s administrative findings and must request additional investigation into the actions of another police officer who was not subject to the investigation and administrative findings of the original complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Within 5 business days of the completed deliberations and vote, an ACC shall forward a written opinion and charging recommendation to the agency head, the police officer, and the complainant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Law Enforcement Agency — Receipt of Written Opinion.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of an ACC’s administrative charging document and written opinion detailing the findings, determinations, and recommendations, the agency head of the law enforcement agency shall perform the duties assigned under Public Safety Article, §3-105(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head may offer the same discipline recommended by an ACC or a higher degree of discipline within the applicable range of the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix but may not deviate below the ACC’s recommendation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A police officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accept the discipline as originally offered by an agency head; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Refuse the discipline as originally offered by an agency head and have the matter referred to a trial board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§3-114, 3-207, and 3-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.07 adopted as an emergency provision effective September 6, 2022 (49:21 Md. R. 941); emergency provision expired effective December 27, 2022</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.07 adopted effective January 9, 2023 (49:27 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective February 3, 2025 (52:2 Md. R. 68)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B amended effective November 10, 2025 (52:22 Md. R. 1096)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06E, F adopted effective November 10, 2025 (52:22 Md. R. 1096)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended effective November 10, 2025 (52:22 Md. R. 1096)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="10" heading="Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The purpose of the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix is for law enforcement agencies to apply disciplinary standards in a fair, equitable and consistent manner Statewide.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter establishes the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix required for all matters that may result in discipline of a police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A law enforcement agency shall adopt the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix in accordance with Public Safety Article, §3-105, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Provisions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In order to protect the collective integrity of a law enforcement agency, all matters that may result in discipline shall be imposed pursuant to the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix as responsive measures to a police officer’s sustained violation of a law enforcement agency’s policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Imposition of Discipline.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Generally, each sustained violation of police officer misconduct shall be considered separately for the purpose of recommending and imposing discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When multiple sustained violations arise from the same conduct or incident, as applicable, an agency head or Administrative Charging Committee (ACC), may decide that the most effective way to determine the appropriate level of discipline in the case is to consolidate sustained violations into one form of discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Discipline imposed for first or subsequent sustained misconduct violations may follow a progressive course for repeat or increasingly serious violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix and the imposition of discipline may not be based on a police officer’s race, religion, gender expression, gender identity, sex assigned at birth, sexual orientation, national origin, age, ethnicity, or familial relationship.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The imposition of discipline shall not be influenced by the high or low profile nature of the police misconduct.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrative Charging Committee (ACC)” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-104, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Aggravating Factor.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Aggravating factor" means conditions or events related to a police misconduct violation that may increase the seriousness of the violation and degree of penalty as specified in the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Aggravating factor” includes, but is not limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A police officer’s prior disciplinary history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A police officer’s prior negative work history, including non-disciplinary corrective action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A police officer’s rank;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A violation was committed willfully or for personal gain;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A police officer’s effort to conceal the violation, or to be untruthful or dishonest;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>A police officer’s failure to cooperate with an investigation into alleged misconduct;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>A violation was retaliatory in nature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>A violation or behavior was motivated by bias against a member or group of protected class under Maryland’s hate crimes law, as stated in Criminal Law Article, §10-304, Annotated Code of Maryland or the Anti-Employment Discrimination law as stated in State Government Article, §20-602, Annotated Code of Maryland or other state and federal hate crimes law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>The police officer’s expressed unwillingness to comply with policy, tactics, or performance standards;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>The impact of the violation on the community or the law enforcement agency’s ability to carry out its mission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>The degree to which the violation caused or could have caused the loss of life or injury; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>The degree to which the violation caused loss or damage to public or private property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Formal written counseling (FWC)” means a written warning given to a police officer that outlines a police officer’s misconduct and serves as the least severe form of discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Letter of reprimand” means a formal letter given to a police officer detailing the wrongful action and detailing the required corrective action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Loss of leave” means the removal of paid time off from a police officer’s earned and accrued paid time off total.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Loss of pay” means the suspension from duty without pay.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Mediation” means a process in which parties in a dispute work with one or more impartial mediators who assist the parties in reaching a voluntary agreement for the resolution of a nonviolent dispute or conflict.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Mitigating Factor.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Mitigating factor” means a condition or event related to a policy violation that may decrease the seriousness of the violation and degree of discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Mitigating factor” includes, but is not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A police officer’s actions are attributable to selfless concern for the wellbeing of others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A police officer’s lack of disciplinary history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A police officer’s complimentary work history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A police officer’s prior positive work history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A violation was the inadvertent result of reasonable, otherwise compliant performance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>A police officer’s prompt acceptance of responsibility for the conduct and willingness to be held accountable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>A police officer’s commission of the violation at the direction of a superior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>A police officer’s exposure to unusually serious workplace tensions and stressors; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>The violation is attributable to limitations beyond the control of the police officer based on a physical or mental disability.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Penalty days” means either the forfeiture of vacation days or the imposition of suspension without pay for a specified period of time, or both. The number of hours that determines a day is based on the police officer’s work schedule.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Police misconduct” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Police officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Remedial training” means training designed to correct the behavior of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A police officer who has failed to perform the police officer’s duties with the skill, knowledge, and ability expected and required of an individual given the authority and responsibility to enforce the law; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A police officer who has demonstrated a need for additional training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Sustained violation” means an investigation has revealed sufficient evidence to impose administrative charges against a police officer for a violation category established in Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Violation Levels.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Level One. The first level of violation category indicates a first sustained occurrence of a police officer's misconduct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Level Two. The second level of a violation category indicates a second sustained occurrence of a police officer's misconduct within the time periods specified in §D of this regulation and during which a sustained level one violation was committed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Level Three. The third level of a police misconduct violation category indicates a third sustained occurrence of a police officer's misconduct within the time periods specified in §D of this regulation and during which a sustained level one and level two violation was committed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Disciplinary Ranges.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The range of disciplinary penalties within the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A formal written counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A letter of reprimand;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loss of leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Suspension and loss of pay;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Demotion; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Termination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency shall determine the number of hours that constitutes a penalty day, based on a police officer's work schedule.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Additional Corrective Measures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In addition to the disciplinary penalties established within the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix a law enforcement agency head, ACC or trial board following a determination to impose administrative charges, may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Refer the police officer to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An employee assistance program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Remedial training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Another police officer assistance program permitted by a law enforcement agency's policy;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Suspend or remove a police officer from a take-home car program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Suspend a police officer from secondary employment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The options listed in §C(1) of this regulation may be independently imposed by police management in addition to any administrative charges imposed by an ACC or trial board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Violation Categories.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix includes six designated violation categories that represent a progression in the severity of police misconduct violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Category A Violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Category B Violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Category C Violation</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Category D Violation.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Categories and Descriptions Level Disciplinary Range Mitigating Factors → Aggravating Factors Category D: Conduct substantially contrary to the values of the law enforcement agency or that substantially interferes with its mission, operations, or professional image, or that involves a serious risk to officer or public safety, or intentionally violates law enforcement agency policy. One: 1st Violation 5 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay to Up to 15 Days Loss of Pay Two: 2nd Violation in 60 Months 10 Days Loss of Pay to Up to 20 Days Loss of Pay Three: 3rd Violation in 60 Months GO TO CATEGORY E LEVEL 1</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Demotion or reduction in rank may also be considered as a part of the disciplinary penalty for Category D Violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Category E Violation.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Categories and Descriptions Level Disciplinary Range Mitigating Factors → Aggravating Factors Category E: Conduct that involves misuse of authority, unethical behavior (not involving false reporting or false statements), or an act that could result in an adverse impact on an officer or public safety or to the professionalism of the law enforcement agency or a violation of any misdemeanor. One: 1st Violation 15 Days Loss of Pay to 25 Days Loss of Pay up to Termination Two: 2nd Violation in 60 Months 15 Days Loss of Pay to 30 Days Loss of Pay up to Termination Three: 3rd Violation in 60 Months GO TO CATEGORY F LEVEL 1</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Demotion or reduction in rank may also be considered as a part of the disciplinary penalty for Category E Violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Category F Violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Special Circumstance Categories.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Categories and Descriptions Level Disciplinary Range Mitigating Factors → Aggravating Factors Driving Under The InfluenceCategory 1: Any off-duty driving under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs which would constitute a violation of law. One: 1st Violation 15 Days Loss of Pay to Termination* Two: 2nd Violation 30 Days Loss of Pay to Termination* Three: 3rd Violation Termination* Category 2: Any on-duty or off-duty in a departmental vehicle driving under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs which would constitute a violation of law. One: 1st Violation Termination* *Termination may be imposed as discipline unless prohibited by an Executive Order or superseding government policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Categories and Descriptions Level Disciplinary Range Mitigating Factors → Aggravating Factors Failure to Appear for Court and MVA HearingsCategory 1:Intentional or purposeful failure to appear for any properly summoned court appearance which is the result of action taken as a law enforcement officer. This category also includes MVA hearings. One: 2 violations in 1 year Formal Written Counseling to Formal Written Counseling Two: 2 additional violations in 2 years Formal Written Counseling to Up to 2 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Note: The penalty cycle resets one calendar year from the date of the first violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Categories and Descriptions Level Disciplinary Range Mitigating Factors → Aggravating Factors Departmental CollisionsCategory 1: Minor Damage* to Police Vehicle and/or Other Property or Vehicle* One:1st Violation up to 12 months Formal Written Counseling to Letter of Reprimand Two:2nd Violation within 0—24 months Formal Written Counseling to Up to 2 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Three**: 3 or more Violations within 0—36 months Letter of Reprimand to Up to 5 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Category 2: Major Damage to Police Vehicle, Other Property, or Vehicle One:1st Violation up to 12 months Formal Written Counseling to Up to 1 Day Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Two:2nd Violation within 0—24 months Letter of Reprimand to Up to 3 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Three**: 3 or more Violations within 0—36 months Letter of Reprimand to Up to 10 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Category 3: Injury to Law Enforcement Personnel or Civilian; If gross negligence or reckless operation of a police vehicle is involved in any collision that results in serious injury or death the disciplinary range shall increase up to and including termination. One:1st Violation up to 12 months Formal Written Counseling to Up to 2 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Two:2nd Violation within 0—24 months Letter of Reprimand to Up to 5 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay Three**: 3 or more Violations within 0—36 months Letter of Reprimand to Up to 14 Days Loss of Leave or Loss of Pay * Law Enforcement Agencies may establish a dollar amount as a guideline for determining the level of severity (minor vs major). ** Driver retraining may be imposed at any level but shall impose for three or more at-fault departmental collisions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Violations that Fall into More than One Violation Category.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Some acts of police misconduct may fall into more than one violation category depending on the category definition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an act of police misconduct falls into more than one violation category, an ACC, agency head, or trial board, as applicable, shall review the totality of circumstances related to the act and the violation category definition descriptions prior to choosing the category, level, and range.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Violations not found in the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix shall be assigned to a violation category based on the circumstances of the police misconduct and the violation category definitions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Process for Determining Discipline and Imposing Administrative Charges."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Following a complaint of police officer misconduct the law enforcement agency conducting the investigation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Investigate the police officer’s actions to determine if the action was a violation of law, regulation, the law enforcement agency’s policy, or other form of police misconduct; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include the information in the investigative file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An ACC shall review the investigative file and, if applicable, an agency head’s recommendation regarding the imposition of administrative charges in accordance with COMAR 12.04.09.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Following an ACC’s review and deliberation, the ACC shall review the violation category definitions for the most appropriate violation category.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When determining the appropriate violation category, level, and disciplinary range, an ACC, agency head, or trial board may use the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix violation examples posted on the Police Training and Standards Commission’s website as a guide.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Factors Influencing the Determination to Recommend Administrative Charges and Impose Discipline.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Mitigating and aggravating factors surrounding a sustained violation may increase or decrease the discipline.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Factors considered within a disciplinary range shall stay with the specific violation category.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Multiple Count Adjustments. When multiple violations arise from the same incident:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The violations may be consolidated into one form of discipline by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Selecting the most serious violation as a starting point within a violation category; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Weighing the other violations to determine whether and how much to increase the discipline with the selected violation category; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each sustained misconduct violation may be considered separately for the purpose of determining discipline.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Prior Disciplinary Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An ACC, agency head, or trial board shall consider a police officer’s prior sustained disciplinary record when determining discipline for a new violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When applicable, three or more sustained violations in the same category within a specified time period shall progress to the next violation category.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Deviation from the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An ACC, agency head, or trial board may deviate from the use of the Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix only when required by court order, consent decree, or other superseding legal authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix does not impact a law enforcement agency’s rights to maintain order and manage the affairs of a law enforcement agency in all aspects including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establishing standards of service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transfer or assignment of a police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Establishing standards for performance and conduct; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Maintaining control and regulation of the use of government equipment and property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Mediation Programs. Complaints from the public that meet the eligibility requirements for the mediation process established by regulation pursuant to Public Safety Article, §3-207(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, may, subject to the agreement of the complainant, be handled outside of the formal PAB and ACC complaint process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Uniform State Disciplinary Matrix and Special Circumstance Violations tables shall be maintained and published by the Maryland Police Training and Standards Commission on its public website.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§3-105, 3-114 and 3-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.05 adopted as an emergency provision effective September 6, 2022 (49:21 Md. R. 944); emergency provision expired effective December 27, 2022</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.05 adopted effective January 9, 2023 (49:27 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="11" heading="Police Complaint Mediation Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes a police complaint mediation program which provides an alternative method to address minor, nonviolent police misconduct complaints outside of the standard complaint process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A law enforcement agency may refer a nonviolent complaint made against a police officer, subject to the agreement of the complainant and the involved police officer, to an independent mediation provider.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Provisions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Mediation is a process for settling minor police misconduct disputes based on the voluntary participation of the disputing parties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If eligible, voluntary mediation between community members and police officers may be used in place of the traditional administrative complaint process and administrative charging committees (ACC).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The mediation process can bridge the communication gap and create a greater understanding and appreciation between community members, police officers, and employing law enforcement agencies.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Confidential material” means any communication occurring during a mediation session that may not be disclosed outside the mediation except as allowed pursuant to Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-1804, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Impasse” means an outcome of a mediation session in which the parties are unable to resolve the dispute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Independent mediation provider” means an organization, separate and apart from a law enforcement agency, that can provide mediators to conduct mediation sessions between complainants and law enforcement personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Letter of conclusion” means a document signed by staff of the independent mediation provider that is delivered to a law enforcement agency indicating that a mediation session was held between a complainant and police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Letter of consent to mediate” means a document signed by the parties in mediation indicating each party’s voluntarily participation in mediation, and witnessed by the mediator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Mediation” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.04.10.03B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Mediator” means a trained, impartial third party, affiliated with an independent mediation provider, who will facilitate a mediation session between parties to assist them in reaching a voluntary resolution to their dispute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Police misconduct” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §3-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Resolution” means a mutual agreement resolving a conflict between two or more disputing parties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Establishing a Police Complaint Mediation Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Maryland Police Training and Standards Commission (MPTSC) in collaboration with community-based mediation resources shall establish and maintain a listing of qualified mediation providers located within the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A law enforcement agency interested in establishing a mediation program shall contact MPTSC for referral to an appropriate mediation provider.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Prior to establishing a mediation process, a law enforcement agency shall enter into a memorandum of understanding (MOU) with a local independent mediation provider approved by MPTSC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A local law enforcement agency shall establish guidelines for mediation consistent with this regulation and any policy guidelines provided by MPTSC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A law enforcement agency that enters into an MOU with a qualified mediation provider shall report the establishment of a program to MPTSC and forward a copy to ensure the program meets the requirements of the regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Mediation Participation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Participant Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Participation in a mediation program is voluntary and shall be agreed upon by the complainant, law enforcement agency, and police officer identified in the complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A complainant or police officer who is the subject of a complaint of police misconduct has the right to decline mediation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a police officer who is the subject of a complaint declines the offer to mediate the complaint, the decision to not participate may not be considered during any disciplinary proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A party to mediation shall sign a letter of consent to mediate as an alternative to the formal police misconduct complaint process, outlined in COMAR 12.04.09 and the uniform citizen complaint process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Confidentiality.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All parties involved in a potential mediation process shall agree to the confidentiality requirements as set forth in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-1803, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except as provided in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-1804, Annotated Code of Maryland, statements shared during a mediation are considered confidential material and may not be disclosed in any judicial, administrative, or other proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Costs associated with participating in a mediation program are the responsibility of the law enforcement agency employing the involved police officer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Complaints Eligible for Mediation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Complaint Eligibility.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A nonviolent complaint of a minor nature is eligible for mediation if it falls into one of the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violation category A, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04D(2); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Violation category B, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04D(3).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement agency shall review the nature of the complaint and determine if mediation is appropriate, based on the following factors:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type and severity of the alleged violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Circumstances of the alleged police misconduct; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Work history and past disciplinary record of the involved police officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Even if a complaint is eligible for mediation, the agency head or designee has the authority to decide, for any reason, that a case may not be assigned for mediation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Complaints Not Eligible.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A complaint of police misconduct that involves any level of force is not eligible for mediation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A complaint is not eligible for mediation if it falls into one of the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violation category C, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04D(4);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Violation category D, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04D(5);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Violation category E, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04E(6); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Violation category F, as stated in COMAR 12.04.10.04D(7).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A complaint of police misconduct not eligible for mediation shall be handled through the process set forth in COMAR 12.04.09.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Complaint Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When a minor complaint from a member of the public has been made to a law enforcement agency or police accountability board, a law enforcement agency shall review the nature of the complaint and determine if it is eligible for the mediation program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Notification to Involved Parties.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the complaint is eligible and conforms to Regulation .06 of this chapter, the law enforcement agency shall notify the police officer who is the subject of the complaint of the mediation option.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the police officer agrees to mediation, the law enforcement agency shall notify the complainant of the mediation option.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the police officer or a complainant decline to participate in mediation, the matter shall be referred back to the administrative complaint process set forth in COMAR 12.04.09.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If all parties to the complaint agree to the mediation process, the law enforcement agency shall contact the independent mediation provider in which there is a current memorandum of understanding (MOU) and proceed with the process pursuant to the MOU.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>When a case has been referred to the mediation service, the independent mediation provider will manage the case through mediation and resolution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Resolution."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When the mediation process has concluded, the outcome shall be determined by the independent mediation provider to be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A successful resolution if all parties agree with the resolution; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An impasse if one or more parties to the complaint cannot agree to a satisfactory resolution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An impasse shall be referred back to the law enforcement agency of the involved police officer for investigation and handled through the administrative complaint process set forth in COMAR 12.04.09.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A successful resolution shall be documented by the independent mediation provider in a written statement, signed by both parties and the mediator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The mediator shall send a letter of conclusion to the referring law enforcement agency indicating the results of mediation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Results of the mediation shall be tracked by the law enforcement agency and forwarded to the local police accountability board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Complaint mediation statistics shall be included in the law enforcement agency’s annual reporting of complaints involving the public, and the statistics shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Total number of complaints handled through mediation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Number of successful resolutions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Number of mediation impasses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the police officer fails to comply with the actions and deadlines identified in the mediation agreement, a new complaint shall be initiated and the actions of the original complaint of misconduct shall be considered as a potential aggravating factor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§3-207 and 3-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 20, 2023 (50:5 Md. R. 182)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="05" heading="Sundry Claims Board"> <chapter num="01" heading="Procedural Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Filing Claims."> <text>In addition to all other statutory requisites, claims shall be filed on official forms with the Sundry Claims Board, Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services, 6776 Reisterstown Road, Suite 310, Baltimore, Maryland 21215-2341, in person or by mail.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Investigations."> <text>The Board may not be bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence or by any technical or formal rules or procedure, other than as provided in these regulations, but may make investigations on those occasions and in a manner calculated to ascertain the substantial rights of the parties and to carry out Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Notice of Hearing."> <text>If a hearing is held, the claimant, his or her attorney, and all material and necessary parties, shall be notified in writing of the time, place, and purpose of the hearing. The notice shall be mailed not less than 10 days before the date of hearing, unless waived by the claimant. In the discretion of the Board, any issue may be considered and determined if the administration of the Act will be substantially served.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Conduct of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The claimant shall be present at the hearing and shall be allowed to present testimony or cross-examine witnesses in person or by counsel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The claimant shall have the burden of proof. The parties or their representatives shall be allowed a reasonable time for presentation or oral argument, or for the filing of briefs or other statements or depositions as to the facts or the law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board may receive as evidence any statement, document, information, or matter that it finds in its discretion is relevant and of such a nature as to afford the parties a fair hearing. The Board also may accept hospital records and reports and physician's reports as proof of the injury sustained without requiring the presence of the attending physician at the hearing. However, the Board or the claimant may request the presence of any examining physician to be present at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Board may direct medical examination of the claimant by a physician designated for this purpose. The claimant shall present himself to the physician named at the time and place designated. A representative of the claimant or any other interested party may not be present at the examination. A written report of the examination shall be filed by the examining physician with the Board and a copy mailed to the claimant or his attorney. The physician's fee shall be paid by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>All hearings shall be conducted in an orderly manner in order to ascertain the substantial rights of the parties. All witnesses shall testify under oath (or by affirmation) and a record of the proceedings shall be transcribed. The Board may examine the claimant and all witnesses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Hearings may be adjourned on motion of the Board or upon timely request of any interested party. The failure of the claimant to appear at the time of the hearing, in the discretion of the Board, upon good cause shown, may be excused and a new hearing scheduled. Otherwise, claim may be denied altogether by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Hearings generally shall be open to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Before the decision by the Board, on application of the claimant or his attorney (submitted in affidavit form) or upon motion of the board member, the case may be reopened for further investigation or further testimony. The Board, on its own motion, may reinvestigate or reopen cases at any time, as the Board deems necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Hearings shall be held at the State Office Building or any other place designated by the Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Representation of Claimant."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Claimants have the right to be represented before the Board at all stages of the proceeding by an attorney at law duly licensed to practice in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The attorney shall file a notice of appearance and, when appropriate, a notice of substitution, before or at his first appearance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If any party designates an attorney at law to represent him and the attorney has executed and filed with the Board a notice of appearance in the matter, in substantially the form annexed here, the notice shall remain in effect until:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The party represented files with the Board a written revocation of the attorney's authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The attorney files with the Board a written statement of his withdrawal from the case;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The attorney states on the record at a Board hearing that he is withdrawing from the case; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Board receives notice of the attorney's death or disqualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After a filing of a notice of appearance in accordance with this regulation, and as long as the notice remains in effect, copies of all written communications or notices in the matter to the party shall be sent to the attorney rather than the party represented, or to both the party and his attorney. Service upon the attorney shall be deemed service on the party he represents.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Compensation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The schedule in this regulation is published as an adjunct to the criteria set forth in Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland. The schedule is not intended to limit the discretion of the Board and its application of the criteria set out in Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, but is intended as a guideline in setting evaluation for a particular injury.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Compensation provided for in Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be payable for injuries sustained by prisoners engaged in work under the following circumstances:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The prisoner shall be housed in the Patuxent Institution or an institution under the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The prisoner shall sustain a “permanent partial disability” as provided by the Workers' Compensation Law, Article 101, Annotated Coded of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The injury shall incapacitate or materially reduce the prisoner's earning power in “extra-hazardous” work.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The injury cannot be self-inflicted or result from activities other than work for which wages or a stipulated sum are paid by the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board shall arrive at the ordinary earning power of the claimant as set forth in Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, by a consideration of the claimant's employment before incarceration, the nature of the skills involved in the institutional employment after release from the institution, or actual employment in the case of inmates already released. A consideration of “ordinary earning power” shall be limited to any adjustment the Board determines to be appropriate in a case when obtaining employment after incarceration at a given rate would be possible but for the reduction in earning power or incapacities resulting from the injury.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In cases when the claimant received inmate wages at the regular rate paid by the institution at the time of the injury, and the record is inconclusive as to prospective earning potential of claimant upon the claimant's release, the following flat rate schedule of awards shall be employed by the Board:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Thumb—For loss --------------------------------------- $1,147</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Finger—For loss of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>First or index finger --------------------------------- $918</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Second finger ----------------------------------------- $765</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Third finger ------------------------------------------ $612</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Fourth finger ----------------------------------------- $535</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A portion of a finger, claimant shall be compensated at same rate as loss of whole finger.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Hand—For loss by amputation or 100 percent disability ---- $6,885</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Arm—For loss ---------------------------------------- $8,415</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Foot—For loss ---------------------------------------- $5,355</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Toes—For loss of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Great toe --------------------------------------------- $765</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Other toes -------------------------------------------- $535</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Leg—For loss ----------------------------------------- $8,415</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Eye—For loss ----------------------------------------- $7,650</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For total loss of hearing in one ear ------------------ $994</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For total loss of hearing --------------------------- $1,530</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Mutilation and disfigurement aesthetically causing reduction in earning power (at the discretion of Board), an award not to exceed ------------------------------------- $3,060</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Back:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Short of paralysis, an award involving an injury to the back shall be computed on the basis of the percentage of loss of use to the back in relation to -------------- $12,240</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For an injury resulting in:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Paraplegia -------------------------------------- $22,950; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Quadriplegia ----------------------------------- $38,250</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>For all other cases of permanent partial disability, short of total incapacity, the rate of compensation shall be the percentage that the loss of industrial use of the body bears to $18,360 at the discretion of the Board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Injuries to the head shall be compensated at a rate within the discretion of the Board depending upon the severity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Permanent loss of use of an appendage or eye shall be the equivalent of the loss of the appendage. It shall be in the Board's discretion to determine that an amputation or loss of an appendage or fractional part of it, or an eye, constitutes a total loss of the eye or appendage or fractional part of it if it is disputed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Attorney's Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The attorney's fees shall be approved by the Board, which may require a written statement of services rendered or an affidavit of services rendered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When an award is made to a claimant represented by an attorney and a fee is requested, the Board shall approve a fee commensurate with the services rendered, and the fee shall be paid out of the award.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Attorney's fees shall be awarded at the discretion of the Board, but a fee may not be greater than 20 percent of the total award.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Board and the Board alone shall set and determine the attorney's fees. In establishing the fee, the Board is not bound by any prior agreement between an attorney and client.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Medical Examination of the Claimant.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When it is determined that a claimant is eligible, the Board may direct medical examination of the claimant by a physician designated for this purpose.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The claimant shall present himself to the physician named at the time and place designated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A representative of the claimant or any other interested party may not be present at the examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A written report of the examination in §E(3) shall be filed by the examining physician with the Board, and a copy mailed to the claimant or the claimant's attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The physician's fee shall be paid by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fees of private physicians shall be paid by the claimant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Forms."> <text>The Board shall prepare and furnish free of cost blank forms and have them readily available on application or request of any interested party.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Subpoenas."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board shall issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, either on its own instance, or upon written application of any party made not less than 10 days before the hearing. Subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum shall comply wit the Maryland Rules of Practice and Procedure. A written request also shall designate the names and addresses of witnesses and the location of documents, books, payrolls, personnel records, correspondence, papers, or any other evidence relating to the claim being heard. The Board in its discretion may waive the 10 day provision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum is issued at the instance of the claimant or other necessary party, the cost of service and witnesses and mileage fees shall be borne by the party at whose request it is issued. When a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum is issued at the instance of the Board, service and witnesses and mileage fees shall be borne by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board, on its own motion or on the application of the claimant, shall, whenever necessary, and upon the terms and conditions that it or he may determine, take or cause to be taken affidavits and depositions of witnesses residing within or without the State. The requesting party shall bear the expense.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Death of a Claimant."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon the death of a claimant, if the Board finds before his death that the claimant is entitled to benefits under this Act, the Board shall provide for payment of the award to the claimant's widow or dependents.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If there are two or more persons entitled to benefits as a result of the death of a claimant, the Board, having before the death passed an award in favor of the claimant, shall apportion the award among the claimants in the proportion as it finds that the deceased inmate contributed to their support.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Appeals."> <text>Appeals from this Board shall be governed by the Maryland Administrative Procedure Act.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Availability of Regulations."> <text>The regulations of the Board shall be available to the public at the offices of the Attorney General, at such reasonable costs as the Board shall determine.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Opinion of the Board."> <text>Two members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. When opinion is divided a majority shall prevail. When opinion is divided and only two members are present, the opinion of the member designated as chairman of the hearing shall prevail.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Meetings of the Board."> <text>Meetings shall be held upon notice by the Chairman at the time and place that he shall direct.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Injury While Engaged in Extra-hazardous Employment."> <text>When an inmate sustains an injury while engaged in extra-hazardous employment at any of the institutions under the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of Correction and Patuxent Institution, before release from these institutions, and files a claim with the Sundry Claims Board, the following procedures shall be adhered to:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board may summons the base file and medical records of the inmate and, upon review, determine whether or not the injury is embraced within the provisions of Correctional Services Article, Title 10, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the Board is satisfied that the claim falls within the purview of the act, it may refer the inmate to an appropriate medical specialist to determine the issue of permanent disability, if any, sustained by the inmate as a result of the alleged injury.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of the specialist's report, the Board shall forward a copy of this report to the inmate, or his counsel, and provide for the inmate to file reports in controversy, if he so desires, within 30 days of receipt of</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon receipt of all reports, the Board shall make a determination of permanent disability. If a determination cannot be made, in the opinion of the Board, because of the nature of the injury, the Board may defer the determination under such conditions as it deems necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the Board makes a determination of permanent disability, the inmate and his counsel shall be notified of this determination in accordance with the present regulations of the Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §10-310, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective August 10, 1987 (14:16 Md. R. 1775)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 repealed and new Regulation .06 adopted effective August 10, 1987 (14:16 Md. R. 1775)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 adopted effective February 10, 1978 (5:3 Md. R. 139)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="06" heading="Sex Offender Registration"> <chapter num="01" heading="Administration of Sex Offender Registration"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish the framework for the sex offender registration process and to specify the duties and responsibilities of a registrant and State and local agencies as established under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Absconder” means the status of a registrant when the Sex Offender Registry Unit determines that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The registrant has not registered in accordance with Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The registrant's address is not current.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Address verification and change of address form” means a document:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Used for the periodic registration of a sexually violent predator, sexually violent offender, and offender under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-711, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That may be used to communicate a change of address by a sexually violent predator, child sexual offender, sexually violent offender, and offender to the Sex Offender Registration Unit and local law enforcement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Central registry” means information maintained by the Department's Sex Offender Registry Unit concerning registrants who are required to register under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Child sexual offender” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Convicted” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-702, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“County” means a Maryland county or Baltimore City.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“County superintendent” has the meaning stated in Education Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Incarceration” means confinement to a State or local correctional facility because of a conviction, sentencing, and commitment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Local law enforcement unit” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>"90 days" means 3 months.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Nonresident registrant” means an individual who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is required to register in another state;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is not a resident of the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Enters the State for the purpose of full-time or part-time employment or to attend any public or private educational institution as described in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-704(7), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Notice of responsibility” means the form used to notify a registrant of the requirements of registration under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Notice of registration for child sexual offenders” means a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Form completed by a local law enforcement unit with information provided by a child sexual offender under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-707(a)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Written notification that a child sexual offender has registered with a local law enforcement unit under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-705(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Offender” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Offense” means a crime for which a conviction would require the individual to register under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Periodic registration” means the subsequent registration required under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-707(a)(1)—(3), Annotated Code of Maryland, during a term of registration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Registrant” means an individual who is required to register under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland, in one or more of the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Child sexual offender;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Offender;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sexually violent offender; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sexually violent predator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>Registrant's Address.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Registrant's address” means the physical location in the community, including a homeless shelter, where a registrant regularly sleeps.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Registrant's address” includes the street and street number, apartment number if applicable, city, state, and zip code.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Registrant's address” does not include a post office box number.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Registration” means the procedure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All registrants complete with a supervising authority under Regulation .06 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Child sexual offenders complete with a local law enforcement unit under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Registration statement” means a form that is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Obtained by a supervising authority from a registrant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Includes, at a minimum, the information required under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-706, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>Release.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Release” means any type of discharge from the custody of a supervising authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Release” includes parole, probation, mandatory supervision release, work release, and any type of temporary leave except for leave that is granted on an emergency basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Release” does not include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A transfer among the Division of Correction, the Division of Pretrial Detention and Services, the Patuxent Institution, and local correctional facilities that does not result in the registrant's release into the community.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Resident” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-705(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Sex Offender Registry Unit” means the unit in the Department that maintains the central registry and administers certain registration processes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Sexually violent offender” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Sexually violent offense” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Sexually violent predator” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(h), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Supervising authority” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701(i), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Term of confinement” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.02.06.01B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Term of registration” means the period of time a registrant is required to register under the Criminal Procedure Article, §11-707(a)(4), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>“Under investigation” means the status of a registrant when the Sex Offender Registry Unit has received information alleging that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A registrant has failed to register in accordance with Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A registrant's address is not current.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Requirement to Register."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Resident Registrant. A resident registrant shall register with a supervising authority on or before the date that the registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is released;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is granted probation before judgment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is granted probation after judgment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is granted a suspended sentence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Receives a sentence that does not include a term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Other Registrants.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A nonresident registrant shall register with a supervising authority within 14 days following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Beginning employment in the State; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Enrolling as a student in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A registrant moving into the State shall register with a supervising authority within 7 days following the earlier of the date the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establishes a temporary or permanent address; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Applies for a driver's license.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Additional Registration for Child Sexual Offenders.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A resident child sexual offender shall register with the local law enforcement unit in the county where the child sexual offender's address is located within 7 days after release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A nonresident child sexual offender shall register with the local law enforcement unit where the child sexual offender works or attends school within 7 days after registering with a supervising authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A child sexual offender moving into the State shall register with the local law enforcement unit in the county where the child sexual offender's address is located within 7 days after registering with a supervising authority.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Expiration of Sentence or Supervision. If a sentence, including supervision, for a conviction that requires registration expires, the registrant shall continue to register until the term of registration is completed under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-707(a)(4), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Term of Registration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall calculate a term of registration:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For a resident registrant, from:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The last date of release from a term of confinement related to a crime for which registration is required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date granted probation or a suspended sentence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The date of registration if a registrant is subject to registration under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-702.1, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For a nonresident registrant or a registrant moving into this State, from the date established by the state that required registration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §D of this regulation, a registrant shall register for a term of 10 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a registrant is reincarcerated during a 10-year term of registration for a crime that does not require lifetime registration under §D of this regulation and, at the time of release, the term of confinement related to the original crime for which registration is required has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Not expired, a registrant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Submit a new registration statement to the supervising authority; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Begin a new 10-year term of registration as calculated under §A of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Expired, a registrant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Resume the periodic registration requirement under Regulation .10 of this chapter for any remaining balance of the original 10-year term of registration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Submit written notification of change of residence address to the Sex Offender Registry Unit under Regulation .13 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Lifetime Registration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Lifetime registration is required if the registrant meets the criteria under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-707(a)(4)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When lifetime registration is based on a prior conviction that is subsequently reversed, vacated, expunged, or set aside by the court, or for which the registrant is subsequently pardoned by the Governor, the term of registration shall revert to 10 years from the date established under §A or C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A nonresident registrant shall register for the term specified in §B or D of this regulation and shall comply with the periodic registration requirements until termination of registration is authorized under Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Registration Statement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A registrant shall complete, sign, and date a registration statement form with a supervising authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A registration statement includes the following information supplied by the registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Registrant's full name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Address as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Registrant's address, including county; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If on work release or temporary leave, the address of the State or local correctional facility granting work release or temporary leave;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Registrant's fingerprints obtained at the time of registration by, or at the direction of, the supervising authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For nonresident registrants:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the registrant's employer or school; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The address, including county, of the registrant's work site or site of school attendance;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Registrant's signature; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Date signed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A registration statement includes the following information supplied by the supervising authority:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Registrant's photograph obtained at the time of registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Registrant's Social Security number, as required under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-706(a)(7), Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any aliases used by a registrant, including dates of birth and Social Security numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For each crime for which the registrant is required to register:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name of the crime, including statutory citation if applicable and available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date of conviction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Name of Maryland court and county, or other court and location, where the registrant was convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Date the crime was committed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Victim's age at the time the crime was committed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Registrant category, or multiple categories if applicable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Date of release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Term of registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>For a sexually violent predator:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Identifying factors, including scars, marks, tattoos, and other significant physical characteristics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The prior sexually violent offense or offenses that are the basis for the proceeding under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-703, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Dates and places of treatment received for a mental abnormality or personality disorder;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Information required in order to reimburse supervising authorities for the cost of processing registration statements under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-713(3), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Any attachments necessary to facilitate the accurate and timely registration of the registrant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Registration Responsibilities—Supervising Authority."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary may delegate the Secretary's duties as a supervising authority to an agency of the Department or a local law enforcement unit under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A supervising authority shall establish procedures for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Obtaining information required for the registration statement before to its submission to the Sex Offender Registry Unit and to other agencies as required; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Responding to inquiries from the Sex Offender Registry Unit concerning the information in a registration statement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before releasing a registrant, a representative of the supervising authority shall perform the following duties:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete the registration statement, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The information required under Regulation .05 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Signing the registration statement; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the registrant of the responsibilities under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland, by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Explaining to the registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The required periodic registration established under Regulation .10 of this chapter during the registrant's term of registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The required additional in-person registration by a child sexual offender, within 7 days, with the local law enforcement unit of the county where the child sexual offender resides, or where a nonresident child sexual offender works or attends school; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The required notifications and responsibilities pertaining to changes of a registrant's address and other changes in status established under Regulation .13 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Providing a written notice of these responsibilities that includes the registrant's signature and date acknowledging that the supervising authority explained the requirements of registration and gave written notice to the registrant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Multiple Registrant Categories. A registrant required to register in more than one registrant category shall comply with a single periodic registration requirement, as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As a child sexual offender, absent a determination as a sexually violent predator and notwithstanding another conviction as a sexually violent offender or offender;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>As a sexually violent predator, if a court order or commitment determines the individual to be a sexually violent predator under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-703, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As a sexually violent offender, absent a determination as a sexually violent predator or a conviction as a child sexual offender, and notwithstanding another conviction as an offender; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>As an offender, absent a determination as a sexually violent predator or a conviction as a child sexual offender or as a sexually violent offender.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Distribution of Registration Statement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 5 business days after obtaining the registration statement, the supervising authority shall send the completed registration statement, including fingerprints, photograph, and a copy of the signed notice of responsibilities, to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The local law enforcement unit in the county where the registrant resides, or where a nonresident registrant works or attends school.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a victim notification request form under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, is on file, the supervising authority shall, within 5 business days after obtaining the registration statement:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Send a copy of the completed registration statement under Regulation .15 of this chapter to the last mailing address of the registrant provided to the Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Send a copy of the victim notification request form to the Sex Offender Registry Unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A supervising authority shall maintain a copy of the registration statement, fingerprints, photograph, and notice of responsibilities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>On or before release of a registrant who will resume periodic registration requirements under Regulation .04 of this chapter, a supervising authority shall send notice of the registrant's release to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the registrant is a child sexual offender or sexually violent predator, the local law enforcement unit in the county where the child sexual offender or sexually violent predator resides.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Registration Responsibilities—Local Law Enforcement Unit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following are the local law enforcement units designated by resolution of each county governing body:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In Allegany County, the Cumberland Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In Anne Arundel County, the Anne Arundel County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>In Baltimore City, the Baltimore Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In Baltimore County, the Baltimore County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>In Calvert County, the Calvert County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>In Caroline County, the Caroline County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>In Carroll County, the Westminster Barrack of the Maryland State Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>In Cecil County, the Cecil County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>In Charles County, the Charles County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>In Dorchester County, the Dorchester County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>In Frederick County, the Frederick County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>In Garrett County, the Garrett County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>In Harford County, the Harford County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>In Howard County, the Howard County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>In Kent County, the Kent County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>In Montgomery County, the Montgomery County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>In Prince George's County, the Prince George's County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>In Queen Anne's County, the Queen Anne's County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>In Somerset County, the Somerset County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>In St. Mary's County, the St. Mary's County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>In Talbot County, the Talbot County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>In Washington County, the Washington County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>In Wicomico County, the Wicomico County Sheriff's Office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>In Worcester County, the Worcester County Sheriff's Office.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Receipt of Registration Statements from Supervising Authorities.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall receive copies of registration statements from supervising authorities for all registrants.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a registrant's address is in an incorporated municipality having a police department, a local law enforcement unit shall forward a copy of a registration statement received from a supervising authority to the police department of the incorporated municipality that includes the registrant's address.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>To register a child sexual offender, a local law enforcement unit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Obtain a notice of registration for child sexual offenders in person from a child sexual offender after the child sexual offender's release from a supervising authority; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the child sexual offender of the responsibility to register in person annually with the local law enforcement unit of the county that includes the registrant's address or where a nonresident works or attends school.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A notice of registration for child sexual offenders:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Contains, at a minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The registrant's name, address, signature, and date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the child sexual offender is a nonresident, the name and address where the child sexual offender is employed or attends school; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The signature and date signed by the representative of the local law enforcement unit; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May contain:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The child sexual offender's fingerprints and photographs; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Additional information as dictated by the local law enforcement unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Within 5 business days after completing registration of a child sexual offender, the local law enforcement unit shall forward:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The completed notice of registration for child sexual offenders to the Sex Offender Registry Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A copy of a notice of registration for child sexual offenders to the county superintendent in the county where a child sexual offender resides, or where a nonresident child sexual offender works or attends school.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall maintain a copy of the notice of registration for child sexual offenders.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Registration of Other Registrants.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit may obtain a registration statement under Regulation .06 of this chapter from a nonresident registrant or a registrant who moves into this State if the registrant is not under the supervision of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit that submits registration statements under this section shall be reimbursed by the Department under Regulation .17 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Registration Responsibilities—Sex Offender Registry Unit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maintain a central registry:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Initiated by receipt of registration statements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Updated by receipt of periodic registration documentation and notice of changes of registrant's address or other status;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine if a registrant should be placed in an under investigation or absconder status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Calculate terms of registration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Authorize termination of registration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall transmit a registrant's conviction and fingerprint data to the Federal Bureau of Investigation as soon as possible, but not later than 5 business days after receiving a registration statement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall supply the forms required by supervising authorities and local law enforcement units to perform their respective duties under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>In order to carry out the provisions of Criminal Procedure Article, §11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Sex Offender Registry Unit shall establish procedures and timeframes for the timely:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Exchange of information, including notification of registrant status, among:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Local law enforcement units;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Supervising authorities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sex offender registries and law enforcement units in other states; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Federal agencies; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Receipt and exchange of information concerning registrants, and the coordination of investigations among the Unit, local law enforcement units, and the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Other Responsibilities—County Superintendent."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall send a copy of the completed notice of registration for child sexual offenders to the county superintendent concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A resident child sexual offender who lives in that county; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A nonresident child sexual offender employed or attending school in that county.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As soon as possible but not later than 5 business days after receiving notice, a county superintendent shall send written notice of child sexual offender registration to principals of the schools under the superintendent's supervision that the superintendent considers necessary to protect the students of a school from a child sexual offender.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Periodic Registration Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Temporary Suspension of Periodic Registration Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A periodic registration requirement may be suspended only if a registrant is incarcerated at a time when the registrant is required to meet periodic registration requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a balance of a 10-year term of registration remains at the time the registrant is released, the registrant's periodic registration requirements resume as provided under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A registrant who is required to register in more than one registrant category shall comply with a single periodic registration requirement as provided under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A registrant shall meet deadlines as directed by a local law enforcement unit or the Sex Offender Registry Unit in order to comply with periodic registration as established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A sexually violent predator shall periodically register by completing, signing, and mailing to a local law enforcement unit, within 10 days of receipt, an address verification and change of address form:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Every 90 days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For life.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A child sexual offender shall periodically register with a local law enforcement unit in the county in which the child sexual offender resides, or where a nonresident child sexual offender is employed or attends school:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Annually;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In person; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For the term provided under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A sexually violent offender and an offender shall periodically register by completing, signing, and mailing to the Sex Offender Registry Unit, within 10 days of receipt, an address verification and change of address form:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Annually; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the term provided under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Periodic Registration—Local Law Enforcement Unit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establish a schedule for periodic registration for each child sexual offender and sexually violent predator; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Maintain a copy of documents pertaining to periodic registration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall notify the Sex Offender Registry Unit when:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A child sexual offender does not appear for annual registration as required under Regulation .10 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A sexually violent predator does not return the address verification and change of address form as required under Regulation .10 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a local law enforcement unit receives notice that a child sexual offender or sexually violent predator has changed address by moving:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Out of the local law enforcement unit's county, it shall delete the registrant from the periodic registration process; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Into the local law enforcement unit's county, it shall add the registrant to the periodic registration process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Periodic registration of a child sexual offender follows the same procedure established under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Periodic Registration of a Sexually Violent Predator.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall send an address verification and change of address form to the last reported address of a sexually violent predator:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>By certified mail, return receipt requested; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not later than 15 days before the periodic registration deadline for the registrant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 5 business days of receiving a signed address verification and change of address form from a sexually violent predator, a local law enforcement unit shall send the address verification and change of address form to the Sex Offender Registry Unit and maintain a copy for local records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Periodic Registration—Sex Offender Registry Unit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall establish a schedule for periodic registration for each sexually violent offender and offender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Sex Offender Registry Unit shall send an address verification and change of address form to the last reported address of each sexually violent offender and offender:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>By certified mail, return receipt requested; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not later than 15 days before the periodic registration deadline for the registrant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Change of Registrant's Address and Other Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A registrant shall submit to the Sex Offender Registry Unit written notification within 7 days following a change of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Registrant's address; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A nonresident registrant's employment or school enrollment address.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In addition to the requirements of §A of this regulation, when a registrant changes the registrant's address to another state that has a registration requirement, the registrant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Register with the designated law enforcement unit of the new state of residence and with the appropriate office of the Federal Bureau of Investigation within 7 days after the change; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Comply with any registration requirement in the new state of residence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a resident registrant begins or changes employment or school enrollment in another state that has a registration requirement, the registrant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Register with the designated local law enforcement unit of that state within 7 days after the change;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Comply with any registration requirement in the new state where employed or attending school; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Maintain the periodic registration requirements in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Termination of Requirement to Register."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When a registrant's 10-year term of registration terminates, the Sex Offender Registry Unit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Remove the registrant from the central registry; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The registrant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, the local law enforcement unit overseeing periodic registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The victim, if a victim notification request form is on file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other appropriate agencies.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Early termination of a term of registration may be authorized by the Sex Offender Registry Unit upon submission, by the registrant, of one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A true test copy of the court order reversing, vacating, or setting aside the conviction underlying the registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A copy of a governor's pardon for the conviction underlying the registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A true test copy of a court order for expungement of the conviction underlying the registration; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Documentation submitted by a nonresident registrant from an employer or place of school enrollment that the employment or school enrollment that required registration in this State has terminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the Sex Offender Registry Unit receives a death certificate or published death notice concerning a registrant, it shall remove the registrant from the central registry and make notification under §A(2)(b)—(d) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Dissemination of Registrant and Related Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Confidentiality.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The identity of a victim of a crime that requires registration under Criminal Procedure Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland, may not be released.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Information about an individual who receives a copy of a registration statement under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-715, Annotated Code of Maryland, may not be released.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A supervising authority, local law enforcement unit, and the Sex Offender Registry Unit shall maintain records of requests received under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Protecting the Public from a Specific Registrant. If the Department or a local law enforcement unit finds that, to protect the public from a specific registrant, it is necessary to give notice of a registration statement to a particular person, then the Department or a local law enforcement unit shall give notice of the registration to that person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Request for a Registration Statement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A victim or witness who has filed a notification request form under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall receive:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A copy of a registration statement as established under Regulation .06E(2) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notice of subsequent changes of registrant's address or other status from the Sex Offender Registry Unit, unless the victim or witness notifies the Sex Offender Registry Unit to stop notification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a copy of one or more registration statements for a specific registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May be directed to the Sex Offender Registry Unit, a supervising authority, or a local law enforcement unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Subject to §C(3) of this regulation, be processed in 5 business days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specify the registrant's name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include the requestor's name and mailing address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>State the reason or reasons for the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of a registration statement provided to a requestor includes a copy of the registrant's photograph, but may not include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The registrant's fingerprints;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Information identifying a victim, including the victim's age;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A registrant's Social Security number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>For a sexually violent predator, documentation of treatment received for a mental abnormality or personality disorder.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Central Registry.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department may make available to the public information about registration statements by posting on the Internet a current listing of each registrant's name, crime, and other identifying information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a photocopy of the central registry:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May be directed to the Sex Offender Registry Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Subject to §D(3) of this regulation, is processed in 5 business days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the requestor's name and mailing address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>State the reason or reasons for the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Include the fee established under COMAR 12.11.02.13.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Escape."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a registrant escapes from a correctional facility, the supervising authority of the facility shall immediately notify:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The local law enforcement unit in the county in which the registrant resided before the registrant was committed to the custody of the supervising authority; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Individuals entitled to receive notice under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a registrant resided, before an escape, in an incorporated municipality having a police department, a local law enforcement unit shall forward notification from a supervising authority concerning a registrant's escape from a correctional facility, or return from escape, to the municipal police department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>As soon as possible but not later than 2 business days after learning of the registrant's recapture, the supervising authority of the facility shall notify the parties identified in §A of this regulation about the recapture.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Duties of the Department."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Reimbursement for Local Law Enforcement Unit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department shall reimburse each local law enforcement unit designated under Regulation .07 of this chapter reasonable costs for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Processing a registration statement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Taking fingerprints and photographs; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Implementing and maintaining community notification procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Department shall determine the amount of reimbursement to each local law enforcement unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Department shall reimburse each local law enforcement unit annually at a rate of $200 for each registrant processed by the local law enforcement unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Department shall reimburse each local law enforcement unit by October 31 for reimbursement requests received for the preceding fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Reimbursement Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall provide each local law enforcement unit a list of registrants processed by the local law enforcement unit within 5 working days of the first day of each fiscal year for registrants processed in the preceding fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each local law enforcement unit receiving a list under §B(1) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Compare the list with local records for processing registrants;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Identify and resolve discrepancies with the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Submit a written request for reimbursement under this regulation to the Central Repository for the registrants processed during the preceding fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A local law enforcement unit shall submit a reimbursement request under this regulation to the Central Repository by August 15 for all registrants processed during the preceding fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When the Central Repository receives a request for reimbursement under this regulation, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Before making reimbursement, review and verify that the local law enforcement unit processed the registrants for which the local law enforcement unit claims reimbursement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, resolve discrepancies; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the reimbursement request to the Department's Division of Financial Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Department shall periodically review and update this chapter with advice from the Criminal Justice Information Advisory Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Enforcement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A registrant who violates the provisions of this chapter is subject to the penalties provided under Criminal Procedure Article, §11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A registrant who changes residence to another state and fails to notify the new state of residence and the FBI may be subject to the penalties established under 42 U.S.C. §14072(g)(3) and(i).</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Criminal Procedures Article, §§11-701—11-721, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 2, 2002 (29:17 Md. R. 1381)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17 amended effective December 6, 2007 (34:24 Md. R. 2158)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="07" heading="Inmate Grievance Office"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrative remedy procedure” means the procedure established by the Commissioner for inmate complaint resolution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Disciplinary proceeding” means Division of Correction and Patuxent Institution disciplinary proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Inmate Grievance Office, or a designee, appointed under Correctional Services Article, §10-203, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fair Value.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Fair value” means the worth of inmate property at the time of the loss, damage, or theft of the property.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Fair value” is the lesser of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Actual cost of the property at the time of acquisition, less any amounts attributable to depreciation, wear, use, and other factors which decrease the value of the property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reasonable cost of the property at the time of acquisition, less any amounts attributable to depreciation, wear, use, and other factors which decrease the value of the property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Filed” means that a grievance has been physically received by the Office according to requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Grievance” means the complaint of any individual in the custody of the Commissioner or confined to the Patuxent Institution against any officials or employees of the Division or the Patuxent Institution arising from the circumstances of custody or confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Grievant” means an inmate in the custody of the Commissioner or confined to the Patuxent Institution who files a grievance with the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Maryland Tort Claims Act” means State Government Article, §§12-101—12-110, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Office” means the Inmate Grievance Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Prejudice” means a finding that one or more procedural errors undermine confidence in the outcome of a proceeding; that is, but for the error or errors there is a reasonable probability that the result would be different.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Property grievance” means a grievance filed by an inmate that the inmate's personal property has been improperly withheld, lost, damaged, stolen, or destroyed through the negligence or other wrongful act or omission of an employee or official of the Division of Correction or Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Substantial evidence” means such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind could reasonably accept as adequate to support a conclusion without reassessing credibility or substituting judgment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Treasurer” means the State Treasurer's Office.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a State or federal court receives a grievance from a grievant, the State or federal court may refer the grievance to the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Executive Director shall conduct a preliminary review of each grievance properly filed with the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a grievance arises from a disciplinary proceeding, the grievant shall properly exhaust all Division or Patuxent Institution appeal procedures before filing the grievance with the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the administrative remedy procedure applies to a particular situation or occurrence, the grievant shall properly exhaust the administrative remedy procedure before filing a grievance with the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Executive Director, when conducting a preliminary review of a grievance, and the administrative law judge conducting a hearing concerning a grievance shall liberally consider the circumstances of the grievance when determining if the grievance is properly before the Office.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Duties of the Executive Director."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Executive Director is appointed as provided in Correctional Services Article, §10-203, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Executive Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Act as chief administrative officer for the Office ensuring that all records and files are properly maintained;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Docket and acknowledge receipt of a grievance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conduct a preliminary review of each grievance as required under Regulation .06 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Prepare a written summary of the grievance that specifies issues that may be considered at a hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Compile documents that may be considered in a preliminary review or a hearing that include, without limitation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Institutional reports,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classification records,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Disciplinary proceeding records,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Administrative remedy procedure decisions, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Any other information or citations of law that may be useful in determining the merits of the grievance;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If necessary, conduct a preliminary investigation of the grievance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If a hearing is necessary, make a preliminary determination of a grievant's request for a representative or witness, or both;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If a hearing is necessary, refer the grievance to the Office of Administrative Hearings; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Prepare the record of the agency, when requested, for judicial review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Grievance Filing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A grievant shall file a grievance in writing:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In a format approved by the Office; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Using an administrative remedy procedure form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The grievant shall include the following in the written grievance:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Date of the grievance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grievant's name and inmate number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Grievant's postal address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Nature of the grievance, including not more than one claim for relief;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Information concerning the situation or occurrence that is the subject of the grievance, to include any relevant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Place; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Name of an official, employee, inmate, or other individual involved;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Name and location of any witness requested and a proffer of each witness's testimony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Name and location of a requested hearing representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A copy of any claim filed with the Treasurer under the Maryland Tort Claims Act, and, if available, the Treasurer's letter directing the inmate to file a grievance with the Office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>If the grievance is based on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An appeal from the administrative remedy procedure, a copy of all related paperwork, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Request for administrative remedy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Warden's response and receipt of the warden's response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Commissioner's response and receipt of the Commissioner's response;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An appeal from a disciplinary proceeding, a copy of all related paperwork, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Notice of inmate rule violation and disciplinary hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Hearing record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Appeal to the warden; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Warden's response to the appeal;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A challenge of a classification or case management action, a copy of all related paperwork, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Notification of classification action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Notification of case management action;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A challenge of a calculation of sentence or diminution credit transaction, a copy of all related paperwork, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Notification of calculation of sentence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Notification of diminution credit action; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A property claim, a copy of all related paperwork, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Property inventory form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Property confiscation form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Commissary form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Order form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Receipt.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The grievant shall place the grievance and related documents in a sealed envelope addressed to the Executive Director at the current address of the Office.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Time Limitations and Procedural Bars."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, a grievant shall file a grievance within 30 days of the date that the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Situation or occurrence that is the subject of the grievance took place; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grievant knew or should have known of the situation or occurrence that is the subject of the grievance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the grievance is based on an appeal from the administrative remedy procedure, a grievant shall file the grievance within 30 days of the date that the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Grievant received the Commissioner's response concerning the appeal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Commissioner's response to the appeal was due to the grievant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the grievance is based on an appeal from a disciplinary proceeding, a grievant shall file the grievance within 30 days of the date that the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Grievant received the warden's final response to the appeal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Warden's response to the appeal was due to the grievant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If a grievant filed a complaint with a court and the court dismissed the complaint because the grievant did not exhaust administrative remedies, the grievant may file a grievance, based on the subject of the complaint filed with the court, with the Office within 30 days of the date the order of dismissal was entered or filed by the court.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Office may dismiss any disciplinary proceeding appeal and any grievance within the scope of the administrative remedy procedure that has not been properly exhausted through all institutional remedies in a timely manner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A time limitation or procedural bar may be waived for a grievance which represents a continuing problem or for which good cause is shown for a failure to proceed in a timely fashion.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Preliminary Review—Executive Director."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Executive Director shall conduct a preliminary review of a grievance and determine if the grievance should:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be dismissed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proceed to a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Executive Director shall dismiss a grievance on preliminary review as wholly lacking in merit if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The grievant is not in the custody of the Commissioner or the Director of the Patuxent Institution at the time the grievance is received by the Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The grievance is not brought against any official or employee of the Division or the Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The grievance is not filed within the time constraints and does not meet the exceptions under Regulation .05 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The grievant did not properly exhaust remedies available under the administrative remedy procedure or the disciplinary proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The grievant does not establish a claim for which the Office can grant relief; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The grievance is moot.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Executive Director shall notify the grievant, in writing, of the decision to dismiss the grievance on preliminary review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Executive Director's decision to dismiss a grievance following a preliminary review is final.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Hearing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If after conducting a preliminary review, the Executive Director decides the grievance should proceed to a hearing, the Executive Director, or a designee, shall notify the grievant and all other individuals determined necessary for the hearing of the date, time, and location of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To the extent that security considerations permit, a hearing conducted under this chapter shall be open to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An administrative law judge of the State Office of Administrative Hearings shall preside over the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Prehearing discovery procedures do not apply to inmate grievance proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>During a hearing, the grievant may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be represented by an attorney licensed to practice law in the State, another inmate, or may appear without representation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Call witnesses determined by the Office or the presiding administrative law judge to have competent and relevant testimony that is not unduly cumulative or repetitive; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Present or request the presentation of documents and records determined by the Office or the presiding administrative law judge to be competent and relevant and not unduly repetitious in the determination of the merits of the grievance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The administrative law judge shall conduct the hearing according to standards established under State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards of Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At a hearing, the burden of proof is a preponderance of the evidence and rests with the grievant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A decision at a hearing shall be based on substantial evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Grievance Based on Disciplinary Proceedings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a grievance is challenging the sufficiency of the evidence presented as part of a disciplinary proceeding:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The administrative law judge shall affirm the decision of the disciplinary proceeding if the administrative law judge determines the original decision was based on substantial evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The administrative law judge may not substitute judgment on factual matters for that of the trier of fact who has the ability to observe witnesses and to weigh credibility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a grievance is challenging the interpretation of the law, rules, policy, procedures, or regulations applicable to a disciplinary proceeding, the administrative law judge shall affirm the decision of the disciplinary proceeding if the administrative law judge determines that the interpretation was not erroneous, or an erroneous interpretation was not prejudicial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a grievance charges that procedures applicable to a disciplinary proceeding were not followed, the administrative law judge shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine if applicable procedures were properly followed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Determine if applicable procedures that were not followed were intended to provide the grievant a procedural benefit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Determine if the failure to follow applicable procedures made the procedure fundamentally unfair;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Determine if the failure to follow applicable procedures prejudiced the grievant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If the administrative law judge determines that applicable procedures were not followed and were intended to provide the grievant a procedural benefit and a failure to follow the applicable procedures made the proceeding fundamentally unfair or otherwise prejudiced the grievant:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Vacate the decision of the disciplinary proceeding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Remand the case for a new disciplinary proceeding, unless a remand could not remedy the procedural deficiency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a grievance is challenging the sentence imposed at a disciplinary proceeding, the administrative law judge shall affirm the decision of the disciplinary proceeding if the sentence imposed does not violate any federal or State constitutional, statutory, regulatory, or policy requirement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Grievance Based on Institutional Administrative Decisions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a grievance is challenging administrative decisions, including, but not limited to, classification and case management actions, the administrative law judge shall determine if the decision was:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Arbitrary and capricious; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inconsistent with law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The administrative law judge may determine that an administrative decision is arbitrary and capricious or inconsistent with the law if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The decision maker or makers did not follow applicable laws, regulations, policy or procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The applicable laws, regulations, policy or procedures were intended to provide the grievant a procedural benefit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The failure to follow applicable laws, regulations, policy or procedures prejudiced the grievant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Property Grievances."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as otherwise provided under this regulation, a grievance challenging administrative actions taken in connection with an inmate's property is processed the same as a grievance for any other issue properly before the Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as otherwise provided under §C of this regulation, the grievant has the burden of proof, by a preponderance of evidence, of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>That the property was lost, damaged, stolen, or destroyed through the negligence or other wrongful act or omission of an employee or official of the Division or the Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>That the grievant was the owner of the property at the time of the alleged loss, damage, theft, or destruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>That the grievant was authorized to possess the property under the rules of the correctional facility in which the grievant was confined at the time of the alleged loss, damage, theft, or destruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The fair value of the property at the time of the alleged loss, damage, theft, or destruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the grievance concerns inmate property that has been confiscated, the grievant has the burden of proving, by a preponderance of evidence:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>That the property was lost, damaged, stolen, destroyed, or improperly confiscated through the negligence or other wrongful act or omission of an employee or official of the Division or the Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>That an employee or official of the Division or the Patuxent Institution failed to comply with institutional rules governing disposition of confiscated property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>That the grievant complied with all institutional rules governing inmate disposition of confiscated property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>That the grievant was the owner of the property at the time of the alleged loss, damage, theft, destruction, or confiscation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The fair value of the property at the time of the alleged loss, damage, theft, destruction, or confiscation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>To the extent that a grievance concerns property that is contraband, the possession of which is a crime under Criminal Law Article, §9-412, Annotated Code of Maryland, the grievance shall be dismissed as without merit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the administrative law judge decides a grievance in favor of the grievant, the administrative law judge shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Issue a proposed decision and proposed order recommending that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The grievant be reimbursed for, or given a replacement for, property which has been lost, damaged, stolen, or destroyed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Improperly confiscated property which has not been lost, damaged, stolen, or destroyed, be returned to the grievant;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Note in the proposed decision and proposed order whether the grievant has filed a claim under the Maryland Tort Claims Act; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Forward the decision and proposed order to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Action After Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Decision and Final Order When the Grievance Is Without Merit. If an administrative law judge conducts a hearing and determines that a grievance is without merit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The administrative law judge shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Issue the decision and order in writing including:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Findings of fact; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Conclusions of law; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Distribute the written decision and order as required under §C(2) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>That decision is a final decision for the purpose of judicial review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Submission of Proposed Decision and Proposed Order to Secretary When the Grievance Is Meritorious. If an administrative law judge conducts a hearing and determines that a grievance has merit, in whole or in part, the administrative law judge shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Issue a proposed decision and proposed order in writing including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Findings of fact; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conclusions of law; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward the proposed decision and proposed order to the Secretary for final action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall review the proposed decision and proposed order of the administrative law judge to ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Inmate Grievance Office has jurisdiction over the subject matter of the grievance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The findings of fact are supported by the record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The conclusions of law are supported by the findings of fact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The proposed decision constitutes a proper interpretation and application of relevant law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The proposed remedy is appropriate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Funds have been appropriated or are otherwise available if a monetary award is recommended.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Within 15 days of receipt of the proposed decision and proposed order of the administrative law judge, the Secretary shall issue an order that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Affirms the proposed decision and proposed order of the administrative law judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reverses the proposed decision and proposed order of the administrative law judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Modifies the proposed decision and proposed order of the administrative law judge; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Remands the action for further administrative proceedings or consideration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Secretary's order under §B(4) of this regulation is a final order for the purposes of judicial review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Final Decision—Notifications.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the Executive Director dismisses a grievance without a hearing following a preliminary review, the Executive Director shall, on the date of the decision, send written notification to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The grievant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If appropriate, the grievant's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an administrative law judge issues a final decision and order denying and dismissing a grievance as without merit under §A(1) of this regulation, the administrative law judge shall, on the date of the decision, send written notification to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The grievant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If applicable, the grievant's attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The warden of the grievant's correctional facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The Commissioner or the Director of the Patuxent Institution, whoever is responsible for the custody of the grievant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Secretary issues a final decision and order under §B(4) of this regulation, the Secretary, or a designee, shall, on the date of the decision, send written notification to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Those individuals identified under §C(2) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Office of Administrative Hearings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Monetary Damages.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an administrative law judge recommends awarding a grievant monetary damages and the Secretary concurs with that recommendation, the Secretary shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Include this decision in the Secretary's order under §B(4) of this directive;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the grievant is also pursuing a claim under the Maryland Tort Claims Act, include this information in the order indicating that payment is contingent upon the Treasurer's decision on the tort claim; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the order to the Office of the Treasurer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Treasurer decides to pay the award, the Treasurer, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Arrange for payment to the grievant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notify the Secretary, in writing, of the decision and arrangements for payment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Treasurer denies payment of the award, the Treasurer shall notify the Secretary, in writing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If notified under §D(4) of this regulation, the Secretary may arrange for payment of the award:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>From the Department's budget; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Through the Board of Public Works.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Judicial Review."> <text>The grievant is entitled to judicial review of an administrative decision of the Executive Director, an administrative law judge, or the Secretary under this chapter according to Correctional Services Article, §10-210, Annotated Code of Maryland and the Maryland Rules of Procedure.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §10-204, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective August 6, 1990 (17:15 Md. R. 1861)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01F adopted effective November 21, 1983 (10:23 Md. R. 2065)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective August 3, 1977 (4:16 Md. R. 1214)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective August 6, 1990 (17:15 Md. R. 1861)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C amended effective August 10, 1987 (14:16 Md. R. 1776)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02D adopted effective March 1, 1982 (9:4 Md. R. 332)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02D amended effective November 21, 1983 (10:23 Md. R. 2065); July 15, 1985 (12:14 Md. R. 1432); December 28, 1987 (14:26 Md. R. 2748)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03D amended effective August 6, 1990 (17:15 Md. R. 1861)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 adopted effective April 11, 1983 (10:6 Md. R. 559)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective August 6, 1990 (17:15 Md. R. 1861)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective August 10, 1987 (14:16 Md. R. 1776)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.06 repealed and new Regulations .01—.11 adopted effective June 6, 1994 (21:11 Md. R. 952)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective September 8, 2008 (35:18 Md. R. 1600)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="08" heading="Parole Commission"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Introduction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The law establishing the Parole Commission of the State of Maryland provides for a separate agency within the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services with exclusive power to hear cases for parole release and revocation and to authorize the parole of persons sentenced under the laws of this State from any penal or correctional institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission also has the power to issue warrants for the return to custody of alleged violators of parole and to revoke a parole upon a showing of a violation of the conditions of parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In addition, the Commission evaluates information on the activities of parolees as reported by the Division of Parole and Probation and makes recommendations to the Governor with respect to life cases, pardons, and commutations of sentences.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>These regulations are promulgated by the Parole Commission pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §7-207, Annotated Code of Maryland, as amended, and may not be construed as waiving or abrogating any existing statutes or laws.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <text>The definitions as set forth in Correctional Services Article, §7-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, are hereby adopted by this Commission and incorporated by reference in these regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Composition of the Commission."> <text>The Parole Commission consists of seven members (a chairman and six associate members), appointed by the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services, with the approval of the Governor and with the advice and consent of the Senate, for staggered terms of 6 years. The Chairman, from time to time designated by the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services, with the approval of the Governor, is the executive and administrative head, coordinating the assignments and duties of the other members, and directing the duties of the employees and other personnel.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Meetings of the Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Regular. The Commission shall sit en banc in general session not less than once each month, at the call of the chairman, to discuss and settle questions of policy and procedure, to arrange the schedule of institutional hearings, and to review such other matters as may be within the Commission's jurisdiction. Reasonable notice of these meetings shall be given each member of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Special. Special meetings shall be held when called by the Chairman or any two members of the Commission and reasonable notice of these meetings shall be given to each member of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Executive Sessions. The Commission, for good cause, may meet in private in executive session, and shall do so as provided in Regulation .24G, below.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Parole Hearings."> <text>The Commission shall cause hearings to be conducted at least once each month, at the penal or correctional institutions under the supervision and control of the Division of Correction, and, as often as may be required, at jails or other places of penal confinement or detention in this State in which inmates eligible for parole consideration are confined.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Records."> <text>All official files, reports, documents, evaluations, and records pertaining to any individual which are kept in normal course of the conduct of the business of the Parole Commission are declared confidential. Except as otherwise provided by law, they may not be inspected by, items withdrawn from, or items furnished to any person or entity other than the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services, the Commissioner of Correction, the Director of the Division of Parole and Probation, and members and employees of the Commission of the Departments mentioned.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Rules of Evidence."> <text>The Commission may not be bound by common law or statutory rules of evidence or by any technical or formal rules or procedures other than as provided in these regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Attorneys."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Attorneys may practice before the Commission subject to the limitations delineated in Regulation .18C. They may request a conference with the Commission and submit letters or other data relative to an inmate's parole consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Parolees or mandatory releasees may be represented by counsel at parole revocation hearings. If a parolee or mandatory releasee is indigent, the Commission will make an effort to obtain counsel to represent the parolee or mandatory releasee without cost.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Interested Parties."> <text>Relatives or other interested and responsible individuals may request a conference with the Commission, submit letters, or other pertinent data relative to an inmate's parole consideration at any time before the hearing. They may not appear at parole hearings.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Mentally Disturbed Prisoners."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Parole hearings may not be held for inmates confined in a State mental hospital, unless the Commission, in its discretion, and upon the recommendation of the Maryland Department of Health, elects to hold a parole hearing at the State mental hospital where the inmate resides.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Whenever an inmate is transferred back to the Department of Correction by the Maryland Department of Health, a hearing will be scheduled on the date set by the Commission at any prior parole hearing. If there has been no prior parole hearing, a hearing will be scheduled at the expiration of one-fourth of the sentence. If the transfer occurs subsequent to this date, the hearing shall be held at the next meeting of the Commission at the place of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Prisoners in Custody of Another Jurisdiction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual serving a sentence in a foreign jurisdiction who was sentenced in Maryland to a term to run concurrently with the foreign sentence may be considered for parole in absentia by the Commission at the same time he is being considered for parole in the foreign institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Whenever an inmate sentenced to a Maryland institution is in the custody of federal or out-of-State authorities other than for the purpose of serving a concurrent sentence, the inmate shall have his parole hearing continued until such time as he is returned to one of the State penal institutions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Persons sentenced to the custody of the Commissioner of Corrections who are serving their sentence in a foreign jurisdiction under the Interstate Compact of Corrections shall receive consideration for parole in any manner permitted in this compact which, in the discretion of the Commission, seems expedient and appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Mental Examinations."> <text>The Commission, in its discretion, may arrange psychiatric or psychological examinations, or both, for applicants for parole whenever it deems these examinations will better enable it to decide the advisability of parole.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Mandatory Release."> <text>A prisoner may shorten the period of his incarceration, even in the absence of parole, if he maintains a satisfactory institutional adjustment. “Good time and industrial time credits” serve to decrease the length of incarceration. These prisoners are released by action of the Division of Correction upon termination of sentence less credit for good conduct and industrial time earned, but by statute, are supervised “as if on parole” and are subject to the jurisdiction of the Parole Commission after release and bound by the rules and conditions of parole until the legal expiration date of their sentence. A violation of any rules and conditions of parole shall subject the releasee to parole revocation procedures.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Narcotic and Dangerous Drug Users."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>All inmates who, in the discretion of the Commission, may benefit by special treatment by virtue of their addiction to or use of narcotic or dangerous drugs may be paroled with the special condition that they actively participate in approved treatment programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Methadone Maintenance Programs. A presumably drug-free inmate will not be paroled with the special condition of methadone treatment unless he is evaluated and a report is submitted to the commission by a qualified physician that, not withstanding the inmate's drug-free status, a methadone maintenance program would be best suited to the treatment needs of the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Civil Commitment--Drug Abuse Administration. Any inmate who deems himself a drug addict shall, with the approval of the Commission, be eligible for civil commitment to an in-patient treatment facility under the auspices of the Drug Abuse Administration, providing he has no other criminal charges pending and the conviction is for a crime not punishable by more than 10 years imprisonment (larceny excepted).</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Commutation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Any inmate may request of the Commission a recommendation to the Governor that the sentence be commuted when all legal remedies are exhausted and the circumstances of the case are unusual. The Commission may entertain these requests at a parole hearing, and in its discretion may deny the request or submit it to the Governor with a recommendation. A sentence can be commuted to time served and the inmate released, or to a number of years. Once commuted, the Commission, in its discretion, may release the inmate on parole. If the Governor denies the request, it may again be resubmitted after a reasonable time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Life Cases. The Commission will recommend to the Governor a commutation of a life sentence where the case warrants special consideration or where the facts and circumstances of the crime justify special consideration, or both.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Pardons."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pardons are awarded by the Governor upon recommendation by the Parole Commission, and may be full, conditional, or partial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If pardon is denied, the petitioner may reapply after a reasonable time. Before making its recommendation to the Governor, the Commission shall cause a comprehensive investigation of the individual to be prepared by the Division of Parole and Probation for submission to it and to the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Request for pardon may be initiated by petition or letter directed to the Parole Commission. Proof of successful completion of any parole or probation, or both, which may have been imposed, plus a reasonable length of satisfactory adjustment in the community beyond the maximum expiration date of sentence, is preferred for a favorable pardon recommendation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Preparation for Parole Consideration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Parole Consideration and Parole Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A parole-eligible prisoner sentenced to a term of 6 months or more for a crime that is not a violent crime or for a violent crime that occurred before October 1, 1994, shall receive a parole hearing after serving not more than 1/4 of the sentence or, in the case of multiple sentences, 1/4 of the combined sentences unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The prisoner is incarcerated for a violent crime and the victim, in accordance with COMAR 12.08.02, makes a written request that the parole hearing be open to the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The prisoner has been sentenced to more than one term of confinement, including a term during which the prisoner is eligible for parole and a term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Following a review without a hearing, the Commission determines that no useful purpose would be served by a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the parole hearing is designated as open to the public under §A(1) of this regulation, the parole hearing may be held up to 90 days later than 1/4 of the sentence, 1/4 of the combined sentences, or the greater of 1/4 of the combined sentences or a period of time equal to the term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A parole-eligible prisoner sentenced to a term of 6 months or more for a violent crime that occurred on or after October 1, 1994 shall receive a parole hearing after serving not more than 1/2 of the sentence, or in the case of multiple sentences, 1/2 of the combined sentences unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The victim, in accordance with COMAR 12.08.02 makes a written request that the parole hearing be open to the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The prisoner has been sentenced to more than one term of confinement, including a term during which the prisoner is eligible for parole and a term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Following a review without a hearing, the Commission determines that no useful purpose would be served by a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a prisoner has been sentenced to a term of confinement that includes a sentence for which the prisoner is not eligible for parole consideration, the prisoner is not eligible for parole consideration until having served the greater of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The period set forth in §A(1)—(3) of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A period of time equal to the term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the parole hearing is designated as open to the public under §A(3) of this regulation, the parole hearing may be held up to 90 days later than 1/2 of the sentence, 1/2 of the combined sentences, or the greater of 1/2 of the combined sentences or a period of time equal to the term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Administrative Review.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The file of a prisoner sentenced to life imprisonment, or to a term of 25 years or more shall be administratively reviewed by the Commission after serving 5 years of the sentence unless the prisoner is serving a term of confinement for a violent offense which occurred on or after October 1, 1994.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The file of a prisoner serving a term of confinement for a violent offense which occurred on or after October 1, 1994 shall be administratively reviewed by the Commission after serving 1/4 of the term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The file of a prisoner serving a term of confinement that includes a mandatory term during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole need not be administratively reviewed until the period of confinement during which the prisoner is not eligible for parole has been served.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Before conducting an administrative review, the Division of Correction shall furnish the Commission with a pre-review summary similar to a pre-parole summary unless the review is conducted in accordance with §A(5)(g) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The decision resulting from the review shall be in writing unless the review is conducted in accordance with §A(5)(g) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Except as provided in §A(5)(g) of this regulation, an administrative review shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Be conducted by a randomly assigned Commission member or hearing examiner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Ensure that the file contains the necessary documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Develop a chronological record of the case before the initial parole release hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Be sent to the prisoner and the institution where the prisoner is incarcerated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If a prisoner is serving a term of confinement of less than 25 years for a violent offense which occurred on or after October 1, 1994, an administrative review shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Be conducted by a Commissioner or hearing officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Ensure that the file contains the necessary documents before the initial parole release hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>When appropriate, establish the month and year of the initial parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Sentence of Life Imprisonment.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A prisoner sentenced to life imprisonment is eligible for parole after serving 15 years or the equivalent of 15 years when considering the allowance for any diminution credits awarded by the Division of Correction in accordance with Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, and Title 11, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A prisoner sentenced to life imprisonment as a result of a proceeding under Criminal Law Article, §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland, is eligible for parole after serving 25 years or the equivalent of 25 years when considering the allowance for any diminution credits awarded by the Division of Correction in accordance with Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, and Title 11, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>When a parole release hearing for a prisoner serving a sentence of life imprisonment is scheduled, that date may be deferred for up to 90 days if the hearing is open to the public in accordance with COMAR 12.08.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A prisoner sentenced under Criminal Law Article, Title 2, Subtitle 2, or §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland, to imprisonment for life without the possibility of parole is not eligible for parole consideration and may not be granted parole at any time during the term of the sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The Governor has the exclusive power to grant parole to prisoners serving a sentence of life imprisonment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A parole release hearing for a prisoner serving a sentence of life imprisonment shall be conducted by a panel of two Commissioners and, if they agree to recommend the granting of parole, the case shall be presented by the panel to the Commission en banc.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If the Commission meeting en banc agrees that the prisoner should be granted parole, the Commission's recommendation for parole shall be forwarded to the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>When the Commission determines that an inmate has demonstrated suitability for parole, the Commission may not send to the Governor a recommendation for commutation in lieu of a recommendation for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Consecutive Sentences.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>When life sentences are imposed consecutively to each other, the eligibility of the prisoner for parole shall be determined by aggregating the number of years required for parole eligibility on each separate life sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>When a term of confinement includes a life sentence or sentences and a fixed term or terms to be served consecutively, regardless of the order in which they are to be served, the eligibility of the prisoner for parole shall be determined by aggregating the number of years required for parole eligibility on the fixed term or terms with the number of years required for parole eligibility for the life sentence or sentences.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Split Sentences.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>When the court suspends a portion of the sentence imposed, other than a sentence of life imprisonment, a prisoner shall receive a parole release hearing on the unsuspended period of confinement in accordance with §A(1) or (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Regardless of how much of a sentence of life imprisonment is suspended by the court, a prisoner sentenced to life imprisonment cannot be paroled until the prisoner has served the period of confinement required by Correctional Services Article, §7-301(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>General Requirements. Before each parole hearing, the Commission reviews all information available. The Admission Summary of the Division of Corrections for each prisoner shall be furnished the Commission and shall contain a detailed report of the nature of the offense, a complete social history, employment record, etc. The following are procedures for accumulating further information:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>State Penal or Correctional Cases.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In advance of the hearing date, the Commission shall cause to be promulgated a list of those cases which shall receive parole consideration. This list shall be distributed to the institutions of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The receipt of this list by the institution shall serve as notice for the initiation of up-to-date staff reports, psychological and psychiatric examinations, and other reports pertaining to the inmate scheduled for hearing. The institutional parole agent shall initiate the pre-parole investigations of home and employment plans.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In cases where a detainer is on file or a pending charge is indicated, its status will be investigated and reported, so far as reasonably possible, before that hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Attached to the material enumerated above, there shall be a pre-parole summary containing a report of the inmate's institutional adjustment and progress during his incarceration or since his last appearance before the Commission. This summary may include a recommendation regarding parole by the institutional staff. The pre-parole summary shall also contain the projected date of mandatory release from the institution after allowing credit for good conduct time and industrial time earned by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The completed material shall be collected and shall include any pre-sentence reports and any prior parole and probation files of the prisoner. Before the hearing the Chairman shall assign the completed files to members of the Commission and hearing examiners for their review and hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>County Jail and Detention Center Cases.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It shall be the duty of the Division of Parole and Probation to inform the Commission, by timely notice, of all persons serving sentences of 6 months or more in county jails or detention centers, and to prepare a docket and necessary classification material.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Before the hearing date of the prisoner, the Division of Parole and Probation shall prepare a pre-parole report reflecting the community plan established, or to be established, by the parole applicant. The report should reflect the home situation, environmental patterns, economic factors, and such other relevant matters, including social history, as the Commission may require in order to properly evaluate the prisoner for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Notice to Inmate and Access to Files.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notification. Before any parole hearing, it shall be the duty of the several institutional parole agents to furnish the applicant for parole with written notice of the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The date, time, and place of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The factors which the Commission will consider in making its determination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Right of the prisoner or a representative to examine and inspect before the hearing, any file, report, or other document to be used by the Commission in making its determination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Representative” defined. The following shall be recognized as authorized representatives to examine an inmate's file at his request:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classification counselors or other members of the professional institutional staff where the inmate is incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any member of the Bar in good standing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any paralegal working under the supervision of a member of the Bar in good standing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Any agent of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Time of Notice. The notice shall be furnished the inmate not less than 15 days before the parole hearing unless, in certain individual cases and for good cause, the time must be shortened.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Notice of Intention and Authorization of Representative.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any inmate desiring to inspect his file shall immediately, upon receipt of the notice of hearing, file a notice of this intention with the institutional parole agent upon a form to be furnished by that agent. If a representative is to be authorized to inspect the file on behalf of the inmate, the name of the representative and his occupation and address shall be included on the notice together with an authorization of the inmate for the person to act as his representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon receipt of the notice, the institutional parole agent shall furnish the Commission with the name and number of the inmate and at the same time notify classification personnel of the Division of Corrections in order that they may immediately prepare a pre-parole summary in timely fashion in order that it will be made available to the inmate at the time of the file review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In advance of the scheduled hearings of such inmates, the institutional parole agent shall be furnished the file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Review of Parole Commission File.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The institutional parole agent and the inmate or the inmate’s representative shall review the file at the appointed time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except as provided in Correctional Services Article, §7-303(b)(1)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland, the inmate and the inmate’s representative may, on request, examine a document that the Commission or hearing examiner uses in determining whether the inmate is suitable for parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Subject to the provisions stated in Correctional Services Article, §7-303b(1)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commission may not withhold from an inmate or an inmate’s representative a document or communication from the Office of the State’s Attorney concerning an inmate who is being considered for parole unless the Commission believes that releasing the document would compromise the safety of one or more individuals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Subject to the provisions stated in Correctional Service Article, §7-303(b)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, any documents submitted by a victim or the victim’s designated representative shall be available for review by the inmate or the inmate’s representative except when prohibited by Correctional Services Article, §7-303(b)(1)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If a risk assessment is prepared for the Commission, the Commission shall upon receipt provide the inmate with a copy of the inmate’s risk assessment or a summary of the risk assessment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If the Commission withholds any requested documents or portions of requested documents, the Commission shall provide the inmate or the inmate’s representative with a list of each withheld document and a summary of the document’s contents as required by Correctional Services Article, §7-303(b)(1)(iii), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Disputed facts.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Errors, omissions, or disputed facts contained in the file shall be adjusted and corrected by agreement between the inmate or his representative, and the parole agent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In cases of irreconcilable difference, it shall be the duty of the institutional parole agent to immediately notify the Parole Commission, furnishing it with a short statement of the problem and nature of the dispute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Commission, upon receipt of the notice, may postpone the hearing for a period not exceeding 30 days and shall determine, in its discretion, how best to decide the dispute. In so doing it may, but may not be limited to, any of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Obtain documentary evidence to prove the disputed fact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reserve the question until the parole interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Accept the inmate's version of the disputed facts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Hold a fact-finding hearing with two or more Commission members before the parole hearing, allowing testimony of witnesses and cross-examination of witnesses by all parties. The inmate may have his representative present to act as counsel at any fact-finding hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The facts found by the Commissioners shall be final and shall become a part of the file to be considered at the parole hearing and a copy of the finding shall be furnished in writing to the inmate before the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Consideration for Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall have the exclusive power of parole release. In determining whether a prisoner is suitable for release on parole, the Commission considers:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The circumstances surrounding the crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The physical, mental, and moral qualifications of persons who become eligible for parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Whether there is reasonable probability that the prisoner, if released on parole, will remain at liberty without violating the laws; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Whether the release of the prisoner on parole is compatible with the welfare of society.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission also considers the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Whether there is substantial risk the individual will not conform to the conditions of parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Whether release at the time would depreciate the seriousness of the individual's crime or promote disrespect for the law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Whether the individual's release would have an adverse affect on institutional discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Whether the individual's continued incarceration will substantially enhance his ability to lead a law abiding life when released at a later date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>When deciding if an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old is suitable for parole, the Commission shall consider whether the inmate has adequately demonstrated maturity and rehabilitation since commission of the crime.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In addition to the factors contained in §A(1)—(3) of this regulation, the Commission shall consider the following mitigating factors, to which it affords appropriate weight, in determining whether an inmate who committed a crime as a juvenile is suitable for release on parole:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Age at the time the crime was committed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The individual’s level of maturity and sense of responsibility at the time of the crime was committed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Whether influence or pressure from other individuals contributed to the commission of the crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Whether the prisoner’s character developed since the time of the crime in a manner that indicates the prisoner will comply with the conditions of release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The home environment and family relationships at the time the crime was committed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The individual’s educational background and achievement at the time the crime was committed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Other factors or circumstances unique to prisoners who committed crimes at the time the individual was a juvenile that the Commissioner determines to be relevant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>To make these determinations the Commission shall examine:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate’s prior criminal and juvenile record and the inmate’s response to prior incarceration, parole or probation, or both;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The inmate’s behavior and adjustment and the inmate’s participation in institutional and self-help programs, including progression to Division of Correction facilities with a less restrictive security classification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The inmate’s vocational, educational, and other training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The inmate’s current attitude toward society, discipline, and other authority, etc.;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The inmate’s past use of narcotics, alcohol, or dangerous controlled substances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Whether the inmate has demonstrated emotional maturity and insight into the inmate’s problems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Any reports or recommendations made by the sentencing judge, the institutional staff, or by a professional consultant such as a physician, psychologist, or psychiatrist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The inmate’s employment plans, occupational skills, and job potential;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The inmate’s family status and stability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>The inmate’s ability and readiness to assume obligations and undertake responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>The adequacy of the inmate’s parole plan and the availability of resources to assist the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>The circumstances surrounding the crime, which diminish in significance as a consideration after the initial parole hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Any other factors or information which the Commission may find relevant to the individual inmate’s consideration for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Commission may recommend that an inmate serving a sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old progress to a facility with a less restrictive security classification, as provided in §E(4) of this regulation, and if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has completed all programming and treatment options available at the inmate’s current security level;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Would be afforded the opportunity to demonstrate parole suitability if placed in a lower security classification, or would benefit from the privileges, programming, and treatment programs that are available only at a less restrictive security classification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Was previously found to be suitable for release by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Any risk assessment tool used by the Commission for determining the risk of an inmate shall include dynamic risk factors as a method for assessing risk and shall require the healthcare professional administering the tool to exercise independent clinical judgment in assessing risk.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>In deciding whether to recommend parole for an inmate serving a sentence of life imprisonment, the Commission may not consider whether the inmate has successfully completed a period of work release if the inmate has never been eligible for work release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An application for parole is not necessary, and an application need not be made by an inmate or on his behalf.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A record shall be maintained of the mandatory hearing dates, noting on the record the time when each prisoner must receive parole consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission shall conduct hearings at the State penal and correctional institutions and the county jails and detention centers in accordance with a schedule to be determined by the Commission and as required by the laws of the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Hearings shall be conducted by a hearing examiner, a commissioner acting as a hearing examiner, or by two or more commissioners in accordance with the appropriate statutory requirements of each case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A parole hearing is actually an interview of the inmate, and attendance shall be restricted to parole personnel and a representative of the institution. On occasions, others may be invited by the Commission to attend, provided their attendance does not impede the prisoner being interviewed. The hearings are private and shall be held in an informal manner, allowing the prisoner the opportunity to give free expression to his views and feelings relating to his case. Formal presentations by an attorney, relatives, and others interested are not permitted at the parole hearings. Attorneys, relatives, and others who are interested in the inmate may discuss the relative merits or other factors of the case with the Commission at its executive offices, any time before or after a parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A parole hearing conducted by a parole commissioner or hearing examiner shall be electronically or stenographically recorded to preserve a record for appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except as provided in §C(4) of this regulation, the recording shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Be destroyed 30 days after the hearing unless an appeal has been taken under the provisions of Regulation .19 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In cases of appeal, be destroyed upon conclusion of the appeal hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The recording of a parole hearing conducted for an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old shall be retained until the conclusion of the inmate’s next parole hearing, or until the final disposition of any action seeking judicial review of the Commission’s decision, whichever is later.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Absent any unusual circumstances, the inmate’s classification counselor shall attend all hearings concerning that inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The classification counselor, or other member of the institutional staff who has knowledge of relevant facts, shall be available to provide new information which may have developed since the completion of the reports provided to the Commission, and to assist in answering questions which may arise concerning institutional policy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Parole Grant.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Release on parole may not be granted unless recommended by a hearing examiner or acting hearing examiner and approved by a parole commissioner, or when required by law, by the affirmative vote of not less than two commissioners.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When concurrence of at least two commissioners is required by law to grant parole, in the event of lack of concurrence, the case shall be continued and heard with a third commissioner present. The opinion of the majority shall represent the decision of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Decisions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the end of a parole interview, the inmate shall be verbally informed of the hearing examiner's recommendation, or of the decision in cases heard by two or more commissioners.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A written copy of the hearing examiner's recommendation and the Commission's action relative to the recommendation, or a written copy of a Commission panel's decision shall be prepared and served upon the prisoner in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §§7-306 and 7-307, Annotated Code of Maryland. A copy of the written decision shall be retained in the Commission's file on the prisoner and in the prisoner's institutional base file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A parole commissioner or hearing examiner issuing a written decision denying parole to an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Include specific findings as to why the inmate has failed to demonstrate suitability for parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Affirm that the Commission, in reaching the decision to deny parole, considered:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The diminished culpability of youth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The hallmark features of youth; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>An individual’s capacity for growth and maturation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>State why the Commission has determined that the inmate has not yet demonstrated sufficient maturity and rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>To the extent possible, provide guidance to the inmate that may improve the inmate’s likelihood of demonstrating suitability at the next parole hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Provide specific recommendations with regard to programming and treatment, as appropriate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Notify the inmate of the right to seek judicial review of the decision as permitted by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a parole commissioner or hearing examiner determines that an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old is nearing suitability for parole, the Commission shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Indicate that determination within the inmate’s parole decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Recommend that the inmate be transferred to a facility with a less restrictive security classification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the Commission’s decision is to rehear the inmate’s case at a later date and if the parole rehearing is open to the public under COMAR 12.08.02, the rehearing may be held up to 90 days later than the rehearing date specified in the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Information shall be disclosed to the inmate in accordance with Regulation .17C(5) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the Commission requires additional information, it may defer issuing a decision pending receipt of the information and, upon receipt of the information, shall promptly:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Render and serve a final decision; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conduct another interview with the inmate before making a final decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the Commission decides not to recommend parole for an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, the Commission shall provide a copy of the decision to the inmate within 18 months of the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>If the Commission decides to recommend parole for an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, the Commission shall forward the recommendation to the Governor within 12 months of the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>For an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, the Commission shall provide the inmate with timely written notice of the inmate’s status in the parole process when:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A risk assessment has been ordered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A risk assessment has been received;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The case will be considered en banc; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The case has been forwarded to the Governor with a recommendation for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Upon request from the inmate or the inmate’s representative, the Commission shall disclose to the inmate or the inmate’s representative the inmate’s current status in the parole process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The Commission may neither permanently refuse parole to an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, nor schedule any rehearing in excess of 10 years from the date of the previous hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Effective Date of Parole.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A decision to parole does not become effective for release of the inmate until the parole order is presented and accepted by him. An inmate shall be released on parole as soon as practicable after a favorable decision unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission has specified a deferred release date; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The investigation of the community plan of the individual indicates that he would be without means of support, is likely to be unemployed upon his release, or is without a satisfactory home plan.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A prisoner may not be released from confinement without an approved parole plan.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Special Conditions for Release. The Commission may, when it deems it necessary for the safety and welfare of the individual or the safety of the public, impose reasonable special conditions to be complied with before release on parole or from time to time during the period of parole supervision. These conditions shall be such that compliance can be accomplished by the exercise of reasonable effort by the parolee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Institutional Behavior Following Favorable Parole Action.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When an effective date for release has been set by the Commission, release on that date is conditioned upon the continuance of good prison conduct. In those cases where the inmate's behavior is such that a re-evaluation of a previously established parole date should be made, it shall be the responsibility of the warden or superintendent of the institution of confinement to promptly provide the Commission with details of this behavior.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of the information, the Commission may take such action as it deems appropriate under the circumstances including suspending release and rescheduling the inmate for an interview, after which the Commission may either cancel the parole order, delay the inmate's release, or grant the parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Early Initial Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may, in its discretion, grant early initial parole hearings before the mandatory hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The sentencing judge, the prosecuting attorney, or the inmate may write to the Commission requesting early parole hearings, setting forth the reasons for the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Institutional personnel, over the signature of the warden or superintendent, or both, may write the Commission and request an early hearing, setting forth the reasons for the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Wardens or superintendents, or both, may make recommendations for early parole hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission may adopt a policy for uniform scheduling of hearings in advance of the mandatory date in accordance with such specific plan as it may from time to time establish.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Considerations of the Commission for early hearings are:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The nature and circumstances of the crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The length of the sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The amount of time served and the inmate's institutional adjustment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The date of the inmate's regularly scheduled hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The reasons set forth in the request for an early hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Adjustment to prior parole or probation supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Authority to grant early initial hearings lies solely within the discretion of the Commission and cannot be delegated. Unless a uniform policy for advancing parole hearings has been adopted by the Commission, a hearing may not be advanced in individual cases except by a majority vote of those commissioners considering the question, and in any event, by at least three commissioners. An order to advance the hearing shall be in writing and included in the case file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Exception to Decision (Appeal)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Filing of Exceptions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner of Corrections, the inmate, or the Commission on its own motion may file written exceptions to any recommendation of a hearing examiner which has been adopted by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The exceptions shall be filed within 5 days after receipt of the written decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Decisions of cases heard by two or more Commissioners are not subject to exceptions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A recommendation of a hearing examiner which is not adopted by the Commission shall be treated in the same manner as if exceptions had been filed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Disposition of Appeal.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of exceptions or the non-concurrence of the Commission with a recommendation of a hearing examiner, the Chairman shall assign not less than two commissioners as an appellate panel to review the case on the record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The appellate panel shall, in the administrative offices of the Commission, review the record of the parole hearing, review the case file, consider the written recommendation of the hearing examiner, and the exceptions to the recommendation. The panel shall then, by a majority vote, render a final decision which shall be in writing and served upon all interested parties within 30 days of receipt of the exceptions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the panel consists of only two commissioners and they cannot concur, a third commissioner shall be assigned to the panel and the decision of the majority shall be final.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Appellate Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The panel may elect to do the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Affirm the decision of the examiner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reverse the decision of the examiner and render a new decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Modify the decision of the examiner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Remand the case to the examiner for further consideration and a new decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Remand.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A remand will be made when, in the opinion of the appellate panel, the examiner should have had additional information before making the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The examiner shall, immediately upon remand, request the necessary information from the appropriate source. If the information requested is not a psychological report, a psychiatric report, or other privileged information, the information shall be forwarded to the institutional parole agent where the individual is confined for the purpose of inmate review pursuant to Regulation .17C(5), providing the inmate has previously requested, and been provided a file review. Thereafter, the requested information shall be transmitted back to the hearing examiner for recommendation to the reviewing commissioner. If the inmate did not request a file review, the information shall be forwarded directly to the hearing examiner for recommendation to the commissioner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Predetermined Parole Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>By virtue of statutory authority, the Parole Commission, an inmate and the Commissioner of Corrections may negotiate, by collective bargaining, a tripartite agreement or contract for parole release of the inmate at a time certain in the future.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This contract shall be made in writing and signed by all parties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Parole release is contingent upon satisfactory performance of the inmate of the obligations undertaken.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Criteria.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Criteria shall be mutually prepared by the Commission and Corrections setting the eligibility standards for submission of contracts by inmates for negotiations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The criteria, as established, and changed from time to time, shall be in a written document which shall have appended to its forms, rules of practice and procedure, and shall be on file in the principal offices of the parties and made available, upon request, to all interested parties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Procedures. The Mutual Agreement Program contract negotiations and all other procedures of the process shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of Division of Corrections Regulation 280-10, which, together with all subsequent amendments, is hereby incorporated by reference in these regulations.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".21" heading="Release on Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When feasible, parole plans should be completed and submitted before the parole hearing, as parole is conditioned upon an adequate release plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Elements in a Release Plan.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Evidence shall be furnished to the Commission that the prospective parolee will be legitimately employed following his release. The employment requirement may be waived by the Commission where circumstances warrant a waiver.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Assurance should be given that necessary aftercare will be available to parolees who are ill or who have any other demonstrated problems in which special treatment may be necessary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Parolees shall be allowed, in the discretion of the Commission, to return to their homes, or to go elsewhere, upon such terms and conditions as the Commission shall prescribe.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Gradual release may be completed through a community-based treatment facility (i.e. halfway house). The Commission may require this placement as a step in the release process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Detainers. The policy and practice of the Commission with regard to releasing inmates on parole to meet detainers is as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The status of any detainers lodged against an inmate will be investigated so far as reasonably possible, before the parole hearing and the Public Defender shall be notified and encouraged to assist the inmate in the disposition of the detainer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may parole an inmate to meet detainers if the inmate is considered in other respects to meet the parole criteria set forth in Regulation .18.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Commission will cooperate in making arrangements for concurrent supervision with other jurisdictions when it is feasible and when release on parole appears justified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate's parole release plan previously approved by the Commission may be altered or changed, providing the changes have been approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Order for Release on Parole.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before being released on parole, each inmate is required to enter into and execute a written agreement which sets forth the terms and conditions upon which parole was granted, thus evidencing the inmate's acceptance of the terms and conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The conditions of the release contained in the Order shall be valid and shall remain effective regardless of whether the releasee signs the Order, providing a release from confinement occurs as a result of the Order.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Order shall bear the signature, or facsimile of the signature, of a member of the Commission, and the official seal of the Commission shall be affixed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Conditions of Parole. The following shall be the general conditions of every parole:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Report to your parole agent as directed and follow his instructions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Work regularly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Get permission from your parole agent before:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Changing your home,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Changing your job,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Leaving the State;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Obey all laws;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Notify your parole agent immediately if you are arrested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>You may not illegally possess, use, or sell any narcotic drug, controlled dangerous substance, or related paraphernalia;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>You may not own, possess, use, sell, or have under your control, any dangerous weapon or firearms of any description without approval of the Parole Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>You shall conduct yourself as not to present a danger to yourself or others.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Special Terms and Conditions. In addition to the general conditions, the Commission, in its discretion, may impose such special conditions as it deems appropriate to the individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Modification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may from time to time, in its discretion, and upon good cause shown, change or modify the conditions of an individual's parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In case of modification, the parolee shall be given opportunity to show cause why a condition should not be changed, added, or modified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate may request a hearing before not less than two commissioners before the modification, change, or addition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Release of the Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It is the policy of the Commission that an inmate who has been approved for parole may not remain confined in excess of 30 days from the date of the approval, unless a later date for release is specified by the Commission, or the Commission has granted parole upon the happening of a contingency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall immediately be notified in writing by the institutional parole agent of the name of any person who remains in custody 30 days after his approval for parole, setting forth fully the reasons why the inmate is being so detained.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Cases of failure of release within the 30 day limit shall be dealt with in such manner as the Commission, in its discretion, may deem appropriate considering the circumstances in each individual case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Supervision. All persons under parole supervision shall be automatically abated from further supervision upon the completion of 2 years of uninterrupted crime-free behavior as provided below (subject to the exceptions stated):</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It shall be the duty of the parole agent to certify in writing for inclusion in the case file that the parolee has completed 2 years of uninterrupted crime-free behavior on parole and that further supervision is not deemed necessary for the protection of society. Upon the filing of this certificate, the Director of the Division of Parole and Probation may automatically sign and issue an order of abatement of supervision and the case shall then be closed for supervision purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each parole agent, in lieu of signing a certificate as provided above may in all appropriate cases file a written report directed to the Parole Commission recommending continued supervision and stating reasons for the recommendation. Upon receipt of the recommendation, the Commission shall either order continued supervision or order abatement, as it shall, in its discretion, deem proper.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A parolee, his representative, or the supervising agent may make application to the Commission for abatement of supervision at any time before the completion of 3 years of uninterrupted crime-free behavior on parole. The application shall be made in writing, setting forth the history of the parolee's adjustment to parole supervision and the reasons abatement is requested. The Commission, in its discretion, may issue an abatement from supervision order upon the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Abatement of supervision does not release a parolee or mandatory releasee from the jurisdiction of the Commission before the maximum expiration date of the parole. All abatements shall be conditioned upon the parolee or mandatory releasee violating no laws before the maximum expiration date and maintaining conduct so as not to present a danger to self or others. An arrest, charge, or conviction, or improper conduct judged to present a danger to self or others, may result in a retake warrant being issued for the individual as a parole violator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".22" heading="Violation and Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Basis of Revocation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon satisfactory information alleging that a parolee or mandatory releasee has violated any of the conditions under which he was released, a warrant may be issued, and, after the parolee or releasee is taken into custody, a preliminary hearing shall be provided in accordance with §E, below.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a parolee or mandatory releasee does not demonstrate capacity and willingness to fulfill the obligations of a law-abiding citizen, or if his continuance in the community becomes detrimental to the integrity of the parole system or incompatible with the welfare of society, he may be reimprisoned pending a hearing to determine if his parole or mandatory release should be revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Technical Violations. If a parolee or mandatory releasee violates any of the conditions of parole, other than commission of a new offense, he shall be termed a “technical violator”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Charge or Conviction of a Crime. If a parolee or mandatory releasee has been arrested, or is awaiting indictment or is awaiting trial, or is serving a sentence, concurrent or consecutive, for a crime committed while on parole, he shall be termed a “violator”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Absconding. If a parolee or mandatory releasee cannot be located for an extended period while on parole, he shall be termed an “absconder”.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Duty of Agent.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It shall be the duty of the supervising parole agent to make application for a warrant of parole violation in every case where the parolee is termed a violator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The application shall be in the form and style approved by the Commission from time to time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The agent may, in the exercise of sound discretion, elect not to apply for a warrant. In this case, the agent shall at once prepare a written report setting forth a summary of the parolee's background, parole adjustment, the full facts of the alleged violation supplemented by police and court records where applicable, together with a complete explanation and recommendation as to why a warrant should not be issued. The Commission shall consider the report and shall either concur with it, issue a warrant, or take such other action as it may deem appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Pre-Warrant Conference. Before issuance of a retake warrant for an alleged violation of parole, the Commission may, in its discretion, consult with the parole agent, or any other responsible individual to determine whether or not a warrant should be issued.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Warrants.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All warrants shall be issued in the manner and form prescribed by the Commission from time to time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A copy of the warrant shall be furnished the parolee or mandatory releasee at the time of his apprehension and shall set forth with certainty the nature of the alleged violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a parolee or mandatory releasee is already incarcerated on other charges, the warrant shall be filed as a detainer and a copy given to the parolee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A parolee or mandatory releasee detained by a warrant of the Commission may not be released on bail.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A warrant filed by or for the Commission may not be lifted without prior consent of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Preliminary Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A releasee in custody solely as an alleged parole violator shall receive a prompt preliminary hearing before a hearing examiner designated to conduct the hearing. The hearing may be conducted either in the county where the releasee was arrested or the county in which he was residing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before the preliminary hearing, the parolee shall be given written notice stating the date and place of the hearing, the purpose of the hearing, fully disclosing the charges alleged as parole violations and informing him of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>He shall be allowed to testify in his behalf;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>He shall be allowed to call witness in his behalf;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>He shall be allowed to cross-examine his accuser or accusers unless disclosure of the identity of the accuser might subject the accuser to risk or harm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The parolee may waive the formality of a preliminary hearing and request a prompt revocation hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hearing examiner shall inquire to determine whether there is probable cause or reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of parole has occurred.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The hearing shall be informal without resorting to strict adherence to rules of evidence. The hearing officer shall make a summary of what transpired at the hearing, and make determination of whether there is probable cause to hold the parolee for a revocation hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Withdraw.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any hearing officer, upon finding probable cause to believe a violation of parole has occurred, may, in his discretion, withdraw the retake warrant and substitute for it a subpoena served by him on the alleged violator requiring the parolee to appear before the Commission at a time certain, then and there to show cause why the parole should not be revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authority is hereby delegated to the several hearing officers to sign subpoenas on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A warrant may not be so withdrawn unless the hearing officer has determined to his satisfaction that the alleged violator would not constitute a danger to society if allowed to remain at large until the revocation hearing and that the interests of justice would best be served thereby.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Any person who participated in a parole release decision or has supervised the alleged violator on parole is disqualified from conducting a preliminary hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Revocation Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hearings are conducted as an adversary proceeding and are subject to judicial review. One commissioner is authorized to conduct the hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Scheduling.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A parole revocation hearing shall be held within 60 days after apprehension of the parolee on the parole violation warrant, except that failure to hold the hearing within the 60-day period may not be in contravention of this paragraph if the parole violation warrant is not the sole document under which the parolee is detained or incarcerated. This paragraph may not serve to invalidate the action of the Parole Commission in revoking the parole of an individual if, under all the circumstances, the revocation hearing is held within a reasonable time after the parolee was apprehended and detained for violation of parole under the parole violation warrant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may, for good cause shown, postpone a parole revocation hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Counsel. Parolees or mandatory releasees are entitled to counsel of their choice. The Parole Commission shall make an effort to obtain, without cost, counsel to represent indigent parolees or mandatory releasees desiring representation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Parole Agent. Unless excused for good cause, the supervising agent shall be present at the hearing to report on the activities of the parolee or mandatory releasee and about the circumstances of the alleged violation. He shall be subject to cross-examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Witnesses.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any party to the proceedings may call any witness having pertinent information relative to the parolee's or mandatory releasee's adjustment to parole supervision or to the circumstances concerning the alleged violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission shall be notified 5 days in advance of the hearing by the party of intention to produce a witness, giving the identity of the witness. Otherwise, the Commission is not required to recognize the witness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If witnesses do not appear voluntarily, the Commission may issue subpoenas to compel their appearance, upon timely application therefor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Transcript.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All parole revocation hearings shall be recorded, and transcripts shall be made available upon suit for judicial review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If a request for a transcript has not been received within 60 days of the hearing, the Commission may destroy the recording.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Commission Decisions.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission is an administrative body and is not bound by the rules of criminal practice and procedure. Its decisions are based on the evidence produced at the hearing without adhering to formal rules of admissibility. A Commissioner's final decision is based upon the preponderance of the evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A Commissioner may continue the parolee or mandatory supervisee on parole, and release the parolee or mandatory supervisee under the original conditions of parole or with modifications to the original conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the Commissioner revokes parole the Commissioner may award credit against the original sentence for all or a portion of the period between release and revocation, except as provided in §F(7)(d) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A prisoner may not receive credit for the period between release and revocation if:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The parole or mandatory supervision release is revoked for a prisoner who was on parole supervision for a violent crime which occurred on or after October 1, 1994; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The parole or mandatory supervision release is revoked due to a finding that the prisoner committed a violent crime while on parole or mandatory supervision release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Except as provided in §F(7)(d) of this regulation, an allowance of parole time as credit toward time served is at the absolute discretion of the Commissioner and may be based upon, but not limited to, the following considerations:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The length of time spent on parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The demeanor of the parolee or mandatory supervisee while under supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The nature of the original offense; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The nature of the violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Except as provided in §F(7)(d) of this regulation, time spent incarcerated pending trial for a new offense may, at the absolute discretion of the Commissioner, be credited toward time served on parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Except as provided in §F(7)(d) of this regulation, time spent incarcerated following the issuance of a parole revocation warrant shall be awarded and credited by the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>If a parolee or mandatory supervisee is allowed partial or no time credit, the unallowed time spent under parole supervision shall be added to the maximum expiration date of the original term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Form of Decisions.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The decision of the Commissioner shall be announced at the conclusion of the hearing. In addition, a written decision accompanied by a concise statement of the findings of fact and the determinations of contested issues shall be prepared as soon as practicable after the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The written decision shall be furnished the alleged violator personally and, in cases of revocation, a copy shall be furnished the correctional authorities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Parole Rehearings. The Commission may, in its discretion, set a date for a new hearing as part of the revocation order. Consideration for rehearing may be based upon the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Technical or Absconder. A date for rehearing may be set at the discretion of the Commission if one year or more remains to be served after credit for good and industrial time is deducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Violator.</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If the violator receives a new concurrent sentence for a crime that is not a violent crime, the rehearing date may be set no earlier than the completion of 1/4 of the new sentence, unless the Commissioner sets an earlier date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If the violator receives a new consecutive sentence for a crime that is not a violent crime, the rehearing date may be set no earlier than 1/4 of the time left to be served on the combined sentences, unless the Commissioner sets an earlier date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>If the violation is the result of a conviction for a violent crime as defined by Correctional Services Article, §7-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, the violent crime occurred on or after October 1, 1994, and a new concurrent sentence has been imposed, the rehearing date may be set no earlier than the completion of 1/2 of the new sentence, unless the Commissioner sets an earlier date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>If the violation is the result of a conviction for a violent crime as defined by Correctional Services Article, §7-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, the violent crime occurred on or after October 1, 1994, and a new consecutive sentence has been imposed, the rehearing date may be set no earlier than the completion of 1/2 of the time left to be served on the combined sentences, unless the Commissioner sets an earlier date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".23" heading="Consideration and Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>En Banc Consideration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission, in its discretion, may delay action relative to parole or revocation of parole at any time during a hearing to permit consideration of the case by the Commission en banc.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A majority of all members then serving on the Commission shall constitute an en banc panel. The members of the panel and no others shall vote relative to parole or revocation. Members may abstain from voting only in the event of conflict of interest. The decision of the Commission shall be the majority vote of all the members serving on the panel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>En banc consideration may be initiated by the administrative order of the Chairman or at the request of any two members of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Whenever a parole has been refused or revoked, a written request for a rehearing may be made on behalf of the inmate and shall set forth any new facts, conditions, or circumstances not previously considered by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The case shall be referred to the officials participating in the last decisions who, in their discretion, may schedule a rehearing, deny a rehearing, setting forth the details for denial, or schedule the case for en banc consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any case may be reviewed at the discretion of the Commission at any time upon receipt of new information of significance relative to the possibility of parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The participating officials, upon receipt of sufficiently significant information which was not known to them at the time of the parole hearing, in their absolute discretion, may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Advance, postpone, or deny any parole which has been granted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Advance, postpone a scheduled rehearing date, or grant parole in cases where it had previously been denied.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Denial of a granted parole before the inmate's release shall be subject to the following procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Release of the inmate shall be suspended by written notice to the institutional parole agent and to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>At the next regularly scheduled visit of the Commission to the institution of confinement, a de nova parole hearing shall be conducted and a parole decision rendered.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the Governor disapproves the Commission's recommendation to parole an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, the Commission shall provide timely written notice to the inmate, and consider the inmate for parole en banc within 18 months of the date of the Governor's decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>In accordance with §B(6) of this regulation, the Commission shall recommend the inmate for parole unless the Commission finds good cause to deny the inmate parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the Commission denies an inmate parole under §B(7) of this regulation, the Commission shall set forth its reasoning in its written decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>When the Governor has disapproved the Commission's recommendation to parole an inmate serving a life sentence for a crime committed while younger than 18 years old, two parole commissioners shall, in accordance with §B(6) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Ensure that the written notice of the decision is hand delivered to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Explain the decision to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Consider the inmate for an explicit recommendation to a less restrictive security level to the extent a positive adjustment at a less restrictive security level can help demonstrate parole suitability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Provide guidance about what the inmate can do to improve the likelihood of demonstrating suitability for parole at the next parole hearing, and provide specific recommendations as to programming or treatment, as appropriate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Notify the inmate of the right to seek judicial review of the decision as permitted by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Sentence Imposed under Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate sentenced under the provisions of Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, who is at least 65 years old and has served at least 15 years of the sentence imposed may petition for and be granted parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The petition shall be in writing and shall be directed to the Chairman.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Upon receipt of the petition the Chairman, by administrative order, shall schedule a consideration of the petition by a panel of two Commissioners.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The panel shall decide whether to grant the petitioner a parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the panel members fail to agree on granting the petitioner a parole release hearing, the Chairman shall schedule a consideration of the petition by a third member of the Commission. The opinion of the majority shall determine whether the petitioner is granted a parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the panel does not grant the petitioner a parole release hearing, the petitioner may petition the Commission after 2 years have elapsed from the denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If the panel grants the petitioner a parole release hearing, the hearing shall be scheduled and conducted in accordance with Regulations .17—.19 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Parole release hearings conducted under COMAR 12.08.02 shall be open to the public if the victim makes a written request to the Commission for notification when a parole release hearing is scheduled and the victim makes a written request that the parole release hearing be open to the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".24" heading="Administrative Matters."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Publicity. To promote and assist the reintegration into the community of those persons released on parole, it is the desire of the Commission that as little publicity as possible be given the individual parolee. The Commission, as a matter of policy, opposes the publication of names and addresses of those persons being released on parole, as experience has proven that this publicity often has a detrimental effect upon the individual's acceptance in a neighborhood, upon his employer, and upon his ultimate parole success.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Correspondence. Correspondence requiring establishment of Commission policy will be signed by the Chairman, after consideration by the Commission, and with the approval of the majority. Routine correspondence such as acknowledging receipt of information, advising interested persons of the Commission's actions and similar matters will be signed by the Chairman, or designated administrative staff after consultation, when necessary, with the Commission members, or may be signed by the Commissioner involved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Conference. Details of conferences with attorneys and other persons representing or interested in prisoners, or which bear upon important questions of policy or possible parole actions, will be made available to other members of the Commission by memorandum, and when proper, included in the inmate's file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Hearing Examiners.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The authority to determine parole release and to promulgate Commission policy is vested solely in the several commissioners, and hearing examiners have only a limited authority to conduct hearings and make recommendations. Therefore, conferences with interested parties and correspondence relative to parole shall be dealt with exclusively by commissioners and the hearing examiners may not meet with lawyers or other interested parties who wish to offer information regarding inmates or parolees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>This section is not intended to preclude hearing examiners from conducting routine correspondence and conferences with institutional authorities and other criminal justice officials.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Office Management. The Chairman of the Commission will prepare and submit reports, supply such information and data as may be required, act as spokesman for the Commission before State agencies and legislative committees and be generally responsible for the administrative work of the Commission, assignments, and the effective performance of the Commission's duties. In doing this, he shall seek the views and collaboration of the members of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Forms. The Commission shall prepare the necessary forms to implement and effect the pertinent statutes and these regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Executive Session. Deliberations of the Commission for the purpose of granting or revoking parole, recommending executive clemency or pardon, shall be conducted privately in executive session. All but commissioners shall be excluded during these deliberations and during the drafting of the decisions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Annual Report. The Commission shall maintain a record of its actions, make an annual report of its work to the Governor, and make such recommendations for the improvement of its functions as may be appropriate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Construction of Rules. These regulations shall be liberally construed to accomplish the purpose of the Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Amendments to Regulations. New regulations may be adopted and any regulation may be amended or rescinded by the Commission at a regular or special meeting provided that notice of the proposed adoption, amendment, or recision has been given to all members of the Commission at least 72 hours before the meeting at which action is taken.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Availability of Regulations. The regulations of the Commission shall be available to the public at the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services, Parole Commission, at a reasonable cost which does not exceed the cost of publication.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 7-207, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 3, 1975 (2:20 Md. R. 1301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Amended May 8, 1978 and March 30, 1979</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22F amended effective June 3, 1985 (12:11 Md. R. 1051)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .17, .18, .22, and .23 amended as an emergency provision effective November 18, 1994 (21:25 Md. R. 2094); amended permanently effective April 24, 1995 (22:8 Md. R. 596)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17A, C amended effective September 20, 2021 (48:19 Md. R. 802)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17C amended effective October 24, 2016 (43:21 Md. R. 1168)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .18A amended effective October 24, 2016 (43:21 Md. R. 1168)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .18A, C, E amended effective September 20, 2021 (48:19 Md. R. 802)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .23B amended effective September 20, 2021 (48:19 Md. R. 802)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: COMAR 12.08.01.17A cited in Hanson v. Hughes, 52 Md. App. 246 (1982)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: COMAR 12.08.01 cited in Simms v. State, 65 Md. App. 685 (1986)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Open Parole Release Hearings"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>These regulations only apply to parole release hearings for parole-eligible inmates when the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate is incarcerated for a violent crime as defined by Correctional Services Article, §7-101, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Victim of the violent crime makes a written request to the Parole Commission for notification of parole hearings, in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §7-801, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Victim makes a written request that the parole hearing be open to the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Predetermined parole release under COMAR 12.08.01.20, including Mutual Agreement Program parole releases from the Herman L. Toulson Correctional Boot Camp, are not subject to the public hearing process established by this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All other regulations pertaining to the conduct of parole release hearings under this subtitle apply to open parole release hearings.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Chairman” means the Chairman of the Maryland Parole Commission or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Designated family member” means a relative of a deceased victim who has been designated by the other relatives of the victim to act on their behalf with regard to notification of parole release hearings and requests for an open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“General public” means a party 18 years old or older interested in an open parole release hearing who is not the victim or the victim's companion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Hearing official” means a panel of two or more Parole Commission members, an individual Parole Commission member, or a Parole Commission hearing examiner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Open parole release hearing date” means the date on which a parole-eligible inmate who is incarcerated for a violent crime will receive a parole release hearing that is open to the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Regional open hearing center” means a Division of Correction institution, designated by the Commissioner of Correction, where open parole release hearings will be conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Tentative parole release hearing date” means the date on which a parole-eligible inmate who is incarcerated for a violent crime is likely to receive either an initial parole release hearing, or a parole release rehearing under Correctional Services Article, §§7-301 and 7-302, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Victim” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An individual who suffers personal harm or death as a direct result of a crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the victim is deceased, a designated family member of the victim; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the victim is less than 18 years old, the parent or legal guardian of the individual who suffers personal harm or death as a direct result of a crime.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Victim's companion” means a person 18 years old or older who has been selected by the victim to accompany the victim to an open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Violent Crime.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Violent crime” means, for offenses committed before October 1, 1994, the commission of, or attempt to commit, any of the following offenses:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Abduction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Arson in the first degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Burglary, including any common law or statutory form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Carjacking or armed carjacking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Child abuse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Escape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Housebreaking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Kidnapping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Manslaughter other than involuntary manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Mayhem;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Murder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>Rape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xiii)"> <text>Robbery, including robbery with a deadly weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xiv)"> <text>Assault with intent to commit any of these crimes; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xv)"> <text>Use of a handgun or other deadly weapon in the commission of, or attempt to commit, any crime.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Violent crime” means, for offenses committed on or after October 1, 1994, the commission of any of the following offenses:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Abduction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Arson in the first degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Assault with intent to murder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Assault with intent to rape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Assault with intent to rob;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Assault with intent to commit a sexual offense in the first degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Assault with intent to commit a sexual offense in the second degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Burglary in the first, second, or third degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Carjacking or armed carjacking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Child abuse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Kidnapping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>Manslaughter, except involuntary manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xiii)"> <text>Mayhem and maiming under Article 27, §§384, 385, and 386, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xiv)"> <text>Murder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xv)"> <text>Rape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xvi)"> <text>Robbery;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xvii)"> <text>Robbery with a deadly weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xviii)"> <text>Sexual offense in the first degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xix)"> <text>Sexual offense in the second degree;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xx)"> <text>Use of a handgun in the commission of a felony or other crime of violence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xxi)"> <text>An attempt to commit any of the aforesaid offenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Requesting an Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmates under the Jurisdiction of the Division of Correction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate serving a term of confinement that includes a parole-eligible violent offense or offenses shall be scheduled for a tentative parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A victim who requests notification of the scheduling of a parole release hearing under Correctional Services Article, §7-801, Annotated Code of Maryland, or a victim of child abuse who otherwise requests notification of the scheduling of a parole release hearing, shall be given written notification of the tentative parole release hearing date by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The notification shall be sent at least 120 days before the tentative parole release hearing date to the victim's most current address filed with the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The notification shall state the date of the tentative parole release hearing for an inmate convicted of the commission of a violent crime.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A victim, after the Commission's written notification of the scheduling of a tentative parole release hearing date, may submit to the Commission, in writing, at least 90 days before the tentative parole release hearing date, a request that the parole release hearing be open to the general public under Correctional Services Article, §7-304, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A victim may submit to the Commission the written request for the open parole release hearing at the same time as the written request for notification, if both written requests are submitted to the Commission at least 90 days before the tentative parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Unless a written request for an open parole release hearing is submitted to the Commission 90 days before the tentative parole release hearing date, the hearing shall be closed to the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>It shall be within the discretion of the Chairman to grant or deny a request for an open hearing that is submitted to the Commission less than 90 days before the tentative parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Once an open hearing is held, a new request for an open parole release hearing is required for any subsequent hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Upon receipt of a victim's written request for an open parole release hearing within the time limits required by this regulation, the Commission shall designate the parole release hearing as a public hearing under Correctional Services Article, §7-304, Annotated Code of Maryland, unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A chief law enforcement officer responsible for an ongoing criminal investigation related to the inmate submits:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A written request to the Chairman for a closed parole release hearing,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An explanation regarding how the ongoing investigation could be compromised if the hearing were open to the general public, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The request at least 30 days before the tentative parole release hearing date; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Chairman grants the request for a closed hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>If the chief law enforcement official's request for a closed hearing is granted, the victim and any other preapproved attendee shall be notified in writing as soon as practicable that the hearing will be closed to the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>If written notification is not practicable, notification by telephone or other means may be used.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inmates under the Jurisdiction of a Local Jail or Detention Center.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A victim shall apply under Correctional Services Article, §7-801, Annotated Code of Maryland, for notification that a tentative parole release hearing has been scheduled for the inmate convicted of the commission of the violent crime.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A victim shall request, as set forth in Regulation .03A of this chapter, that the parole release hearing be open to the general public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Scheduling an Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmates under the Jurisdiction of the Division of Correction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Hearing Sites.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An open parole release hearing shall be held at a regional open hearing center designated by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The regional open hearing centers will serve the Division of Correction facilities and institutional complexes located in the various geographical regions of the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>There may be more than one regional open hearing center in a geographical region if institutional security requires the establishment of separate open hearing centers within a geographical region.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The following geographical regions will be sites of a regional open hearing center or centers:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Baltimore, Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Cresaptown, Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Hagerstown, Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Jessup, Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Westover, Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>After the Commission designates a parole release hearing as open to the general public, the tentative parole release hearing date shall be replaced by the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The open parole release hearing date may be up to 90 days later than the tentative parole release hearing date in order to hold the open parole release hearing at a regional open hearing center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>At least 90 days before the open parole release hearing date, the Commission shall inform the victim in writing of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>At least 60 days before the open parole release hearing date, the Commission shall inform the Commissioner in writing of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Once notified of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing, the Division of Correction may not transfer the inmate from the jurisdiction of the regional center serving the facility where the inmate is housed until after the hearing is held, unless the transfer is necessary for institutional security or rehabilitative programming.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If, because of institutional security or rehabilitative programming, it is necessary to transfer an inmate to a facility served by a different regional open hearing center, the inmate shall be returned to the original regional open hearing center for the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Location. An open parole release hearing shall be held only at a regional open hearing center designated in §A(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inmates under the Jurisdiction of a Local Jail or Detention Center.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Hearing Sites. An open parole release hearing shall be held at the local jail or detention center where the inmate convicted of the violent crime is committed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>After the Commission designates a parole release hearing as open to the general public, the tentative parole release hearing date shall be replaced by the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The open parole release hearing date may be up to 90 days later than the tentative parole release hearing date in order to accommodate the scheduling of an open parole release hearing at a local jail or detention center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>At least 90 days before the open parole release hearing date, the Chairman shall inform the victim in writing of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>At least 60 days before the open parole release hearing date, the Chairman shall inform the warden or superintendent of the local jail or detention center in writing of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Once notified of the date, time, and place of the open parole release hearing, the local jail or detention center may not transfer the inmate to a different facility until after the hearing is held, unless the transfer is necessary for institutional security or rehabilitative programming.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If, because of institutional security or rehabilitative programming, it is necessary to transfer an inmate to a different facility, the inmate shall be returned to the original local jail or detention center for the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Location. An open parole release hearing shall be held only at the local jail or detention center where the violent offender is committed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Attendance at an Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Victim Attendance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The victim and the victim's companion have the right to attend an open parole release hearing and shall be admitted before a member of the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A victim shall provide the name, date of birth, address, and telephone number of the victim's companion when the written request for the open parole release hearing is made to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A victim under 18 years old has the right to attend an open parole release hearing, but shall be accompanied by a parent, legal guardian, or other person 18 years old or older who is considered to be the victim's companion under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commissioner, or the warden or superintendent of a local jail or detention center, shall be informed in writing of the name of the victim and the victim's companion at least 15 days before the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Attendance by the General Public.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A member of the general public shall make written application to the Commission in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter to attend an open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Applications shall be considered in the order that they are received, subject to available seating at the designated regional open hearing center, local jail, or detention center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Chairman may consider the applications in some other order if the interest of the victim or the general public requires discretion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A member of the general public shall be at least 18 years old in order to attend an open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Limitations on Attendance at Open Parole Release Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Chairman, after consultation with the Commissioner, shall establish the number of individuals who may attend an open parole release hearing at each regional open hearing center, in accordance with the physical limitations and security requirements of the center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Chairman, after consultation with the warden or superintendent of a local jail or detention center, shall establish the number of individuals who may attend an open parole release hearing at each local jail or detention center, in accordance with the physical limitations and security requirements of the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Application by the General Public to Attend an Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission shall have published in the Maryland Register a notice of the date, time, and location of open parole release hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A member of the general public interested in attending an open parole release hearing shall apply to the Commission in writing at least 60 days before the open parole release hearing date. The written application to attend shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's full name, place of confinement, and institutional identification number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The interested person's full name, date of birth, address, telephone number, relationship to the victim, if any, or relationship to the inmate, if any.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A member of the general public approved to attend an open parole release hearing shall be informed by the Chairman in writing at least 30 days before the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Chairman may disapprove an application to attend an open parole release hearing for any of the following reasons:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Insufficient space at the designated regional open hearing center, local jail, or detention center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant's attendance may threaten or present a danger to the security of the institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The applicant's attendance may threaten or present a danger to other attendees or participants; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The applicant's attendance may disrupt the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A member of the general public who is not approved to attend an open parole release hearing shall be notified by the Chairman in writing. If written notification is not practicable, notification by telephone or other means may be used.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commissioner, or the warden or superintendent of a local jail or detention center, shall be informed in writing of the name and date of birth of all approved attendees at least 15 days before the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Admission to an Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>On the date of the open parole release hearing, the victim, the victim's companion, and preapproved members of the general public shall arrive at the designated regional open hearing center, or local jail or detention center, sufficiently in advance of the time set for the open parole release hearing to complete the required security procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The victim, the victim's companion, and preapproved members of the general public shall conduct themselves in an orderly and responsible manner while entering the open parole release hearing area, observing the hearing, and leaving the hearing area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An attendee shall comply with the normal procedures of the institution with respect to the admission of visitors, including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submitting proper identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Wearing proper attire;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Consenting to be searched; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Complying with restrictions on the possession of contraband or other inappropriate items.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Failure to comply with all established procedures for visitors shall result in the denial of admission to the institution and the open parole release hearing by a representative of either the Commission, the Division of Correction, or the local jail or detention center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>After admission to the institution, all attendees shall remain in the waiting area designated by the institution until the inmate's case is called by the hearing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>While in the institution proper or on any adjoining property, walkway, street, or parking lot an attendee shall act in an orderly and responsible manner that does not threaten the security of the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Failure to act in an orderly and responsible manner, or failure to follow the reasonable instructions of institutional staff shall result in the denial of admission to the open parole release hearing by a representative of either the Commission, the Division of Correction, or the local jail or detention center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Only the victim, the victim's companion, and preapproved members of the general public shall be admitted to the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A victim, victim's companion, or preapproved member of the general public may not send a substitute to the open parole release hearing unless the substitution is approved by the Chairman.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Notification to Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A parole-eligible inmate who is incarcerated for a violent crime may be subject to an open parole release hearing if the victim of the crime for which the inmate is being heard for parole complies with Regulation .03 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon the Commission's determination that the inmate's parole release hearing will be open to the general public, the inmate shall be notified of the open parole release hearing in writing at least 60 days before the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate's request for the postponement of the open parole release hearing shall be for good cause and be submitted in writing to the Commission at least 30 days before the open parole release hearing date unless the need for the postponement could not be anticipated in a timely manner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate may not request a postponement of the open parole release hearing for the sole reason that the parole release hearing is open to the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the inmate's request for a postponement is granted, it shall be for an indefinite period of time and a new date for the open parole release hearing shall be set only when the inmate submits a written request for a parole release hearing to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>When a postponement of the open parole release hearing is granted in advance of the hearing, the Chairman shall notify the Division of Correction, the local jail or detention center, the victim, the victim's companion, and preapproved members of the general public that the open parole release hearing has been postponed. When possible, the notification of the postponement shall be made in writing and at least 15 days before the open parole release hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>When a new parole release hearing date is set, the hearing shall be open to the victim, the victim's companion, and members of the general public who were previously approved to attend the parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Once the postponed open parole release hearing is rescheduled by the Commission, written notification shall be provided to the Division of Correction, local jail or detention center, the victim, the victim's companion, preapproved members of the general public, and the inmate in accordance with Regulations .04, .06, and .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Postponement of an Open Parole Release Hearing by the Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may postpone, suspend, or cancel an open parole release hearing because of unforeseen or emergency circumstances, including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sudden illness of the hearing official;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Impassable roads;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Mechanical failure of vehicles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Riot or other disturbance within the institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The victim, the victim's companion, preapproved members of the general public, the Division of Correction, the local jail or detention center, and the inmate shall be informed as soon as practicable that the open parole release hearing has been postponed, suspended, or cancelled.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An open hearing that is postponed, suspended, or cancelled under this regulation shall be rescheduled as soon as practicable as an open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If possible, written notification of the rescheduled hearing date, time, and place shall be provided to the victim, the victim's companion, preapproved members of the general public, the Division of Correction, the local jail or detention center, and the inmate. If the written notification is not possible, notification by telephone or other means may be used.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Conduct of the Open Parole Release Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An open parole release hearing session shall commence promptly at 9:30 a.m. unless another time has been set.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Conduct When Cases Are Called.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cases shall be called in the order docketed by the Commission, subject to the availability of the inmate and the security requirements of the institution, but the order may be changed at any time by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the case is called, the victim, the victim's companion, and preapproved members of the general public shall be ready and shall immediately present themselves to institutional staff for an escort to the hearing area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A victim, victim's companion, or preapproved member of the general public who fails to respond when the inmate's case is called may not be admitted to the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Observing an Open Parole Release Hearing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The victim and other attendees may observe the open parole release hearing, but may not provide oral or written testimony at the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Under Correctional Services Article, §7-801, Annotated Code of Maryland, the victim, at least 30 days before the open parole release hearing, may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make a written recommendation to the Commission on the advisability of releasing the inmate on parole; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Request that an inmate be prohibited from having any contact with the victim as a condition of parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A written recommendation on the advisability of parole, a request for a special condition of parole prohibiting contact by the inmate, or an updated victim impact statement prepared in conformity with Correctional Services Article, §7-801, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be considered at the parole release hearing by a hearing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The victim may request a meeting with a Commission member at the Commission's Executive Offices.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An attendee of an open parole release hearing may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Film or videotape the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Record the oral testimony by electronic recording devices or stenographic means; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Take still photographs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The victim and other attendees may observe the entire open parole release hearing unless a hearing official, by formal action, closes the hearing for any of the following reasons:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To receive oral testimony that, if disclosed to the general public, would violate the doctor/patient privilege; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To deliberate upon oral testimony and other relevant information received at the parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A hearing official may deny admission or continued attendance at an open parole release hearing to a victim or any other attendee who by word, action, or gesture:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Threatens or presents a danger to the security of the institution where the parole release hearing is being held;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Threatens or presents a danger to other attendees or participants; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Disrupts the parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Conclusion of Oral Testimony.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the conclusion of oral testimony and deliberation, the hearing official conducting the hearing shall announce to the inmate, the victim, and other attendees the outcome of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the open parole release hearing is conducted by a panel of Commission members, the vote of each member shall be announced.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the parole release hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner or a Commission member acting as a hearing examiner, the hearing examiner's recommendation to the Commission shall be announced.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A decision by a panel of Commission members, or recommendation by a hearing examiner to defer a final formal action in the inmate's case pending the receipt of additional information considered necessary by a hearing official, shall be announced.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A decision by a panel of Commission members to defer a final formal action in the inmate's case to permit consideration by the Commission en banc shall be announced.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Notification of an Open Parole Release Hearing Decision."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The vote of each member of the Commission on a formal action pertaining to an open parole release hearing, including an action to close or restrict access to the hearing, shall be made available to the general public if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An interested person submits to the Commission the request in writing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The written request contains the inmate's name, place of confinement, institutional identification number, and the date of the open parole release hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for a decision that meets the requirements of §A of this regulation shall be answered by the Commission, when possible, in writing within 15 days from receipt of the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a final formal action is deferred pending the receipt of additional information, or is deferred by a hearing official to permit consideration of the case by the Commission meeting en banc, the request for the parole decision shall be answered by the Commission, when possible, in writing within 15 days of the date that the final formal action is taken.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Decision of Hearing Examiner.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The decision of a hearing examiner or a Commission member acting as a hearing examiner on a formal action pertaining to an open parole release hearing, including an action to close or restrict access to the hearing, shall be made available to the general public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A hearing examiner's decision to close or restrict access to the parole release hearing may be made without the approval of a Commission member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All other decisions by a hearing examiner constitute a recommendation to the Commission for a final formal action and are subject to approval or disapproval by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The recommendation of a hearing examiner is subject to an appeal under COMAR 12.08.01.19.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If an appeal is filed, the decision of the appellate panel of the Commission shall constitute the final formal action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A request by the general public for the hearing examiner's recommendation or the final formal action resulting from the hearing examiner's recommendation shall be made as provided in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Video Conferencing."> <text>Nothing in this chapter shall prevent the Commission from adopting procedures for the conduct of open parole release hearings over closed-circuit television or other suitable electronic media.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §7-207, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.12 adopted as an emergency provision effective November 18, 1994 (21:25 Md. R. 2094); adopted permanently effective April 24, 1995 (22:8 Md. R. 596)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="09" heading="Handgun Permit Review Board"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Applicant.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Applicant” means an individual who has submitted an application to the Secretary, or a designee, to obtain a handgun permit, whose application for a handgun permit was:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Disapproved; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Issued with restrictions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Applicant” includes an individual who has been issued a handgun permit and subsequent to issue, the Secretary:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Revoked the individual's handgun permit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Applied new or additional restrictions to the individual's handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Board” means the Handgun Permit Review Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Request for review” means an applicant's request to the Board to consider the circumstances related to the individual's handgun permit that the Secretary, or a designee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Disapproved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Issued with restrictions; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Revoked.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Board Membership."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board consists of five members appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, for a term of 3 years according to requirements under Public Safety Article, §5-302, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Governor shall designate a chairman from the five members of the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The chairman shall designate a vice-chairman from the remaining members of the Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Meetings of the Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board shall meet with sufficient frequency to ensure that the Board decides on a request for review and notifies the applicant of the Board's decision within 120 days of the Board's receipt of the request for review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall meet at a location accessible to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A majority of the Board shall designate the location, time, and date of the meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The chairman shall notify Board members of the date and time of a meeting at least 10 days before the date of a scheduled meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A quorum of at least three Board members shall be present to decide on a request for review.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Request for Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall make a request for review to the Board:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In writing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 10 days of the date the applicant received the Secretary's decision on the applicant's handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 10 days of receipt of a request for review, the Chairman, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Open a file on the request for review; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the applicant, in writing, that the Board:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has received the request for review; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shall decide on the request for review within 120 days of the Board's receipt of the request for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Processing a Request for Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 30 days of the Board's receipt of the request for review, the Board may request, in writing, that the Secretary, or a designee, provide the Board with information concerning the action taken on the applicant's handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 90 days of the Board's receipt of a request for review, the Board shall act upon the request by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Reviewing at a Board meeting, information obtained under §C of this regulation and other information the Board acquires from the applicant or other sources; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conducting a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Board elects to conduct a hearing, the Board shall notify the applicant, in writing, at least 10 days before the date of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the applicant fails to appear for a scheduled hearing, the Board may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing once; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the applicant fails to appear for the rescheduled hearing, decide on the request for review without the applicant present.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board's decision on an applicant's request for review shall be based on requirements under:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Public Safety Article, §5-312, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>COMAR Title 29.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>After processing a request for review, the Board may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sustain the decision of the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reverse the decision of the Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Modify the decision of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A decision of the Board is based on a majority vote of Board members present at a meeting or hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the Board is unable to reach a decision by majority vote, the decision of the Secretary stands.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Request for Review Hearings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board shall conduct a request for review hearing according to State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall permit the applicant, or the applicant's attorney, if present:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To present testimony or cross-examine witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A reasonable time to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Present evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Offer rebuttal evidence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>File briefs or other statements or depositions containing relevant information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board may receive as evidence a statement, document, information, or matter that in the Board's discretion is relevant and of such a nature as to afford a fair hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Representation by Counsel.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant may be represented before the Board by an attorney licensed in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An applicant's attorney shall file with the Board, before the attorney's first appearance, a notice of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Appearance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>When appropriate, a notice of substitution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an applicant designates an attorney and the attorney has filed with the Board a notice of appearance, that notice remains in effect until:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The applicant files with the Board a written revocation of the attorney's authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The attorney files with the Board a written statement of withdrawal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The attorney states on the record at a Board hearing that the attorney is withdrawing from the case; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Board receives notice of the attorney's death or disqualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>As long as a notice of appearance filed under this regulation is in effect, the Board shall send a copy of a written communication or notice to the applicant's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Hearing Record.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board shall record a request for review hearing, but is not required to transcribe the recording unless requested.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual requesting a transcript shall pay, in advance, for the cost to transcribe a hearing record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Written Decision of the Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>After the Board decides on a request for review, the Board shall issue a written decision that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Findings of fact; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conclusions of law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall provide a copy of the written decision to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant or, if represented by an attorney, the applicant's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §§5-301, 5-302, and 5-312; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date; May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 760)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective December 30, 1996 (23:26 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective September 8, 2008 (35:18 Md. R. 1600)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="10" heading="Correctional Training Commission"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Academy” means a college, school, correctional unit, training unit, or training facility approved or certified by the Commission under this chapter to conduct entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Addictions counselor” means a mandated employee, a Department of Juvenile Services employee, or an employee of a correctional unit:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Designated by the individual's employer as an addictions counselor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Performing duties similar to duties of an addictions counselor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>With the primary duty to provide alcohol or substance abuse drug treatment or counseling services for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individuals under the jurisdiction of a correctional unit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Juveniles under the jurisdiction of the Department of Juvenile Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Agency Head.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Agency head” means:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A warden, a correctional administrator, a sheriff, an individual with an equivalent position, or a designee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An individual appointed, employed, or elected to manage, administer, or supervise a correctional unit, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Agency head” includes the Secretary of Juvenile Services or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Applicant” means the individual named on the application for certification and for whom the correctional unit is seeking certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Application for certification (AFC)” means a form approved by the Commission that is an official record verifying that an individual has met the applicable Commission selection standards for a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Case management specialist (CMS)” means a Department of Juvenile Services employee who provides case management or treatment services for juveniles under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Services (DJS).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Certification” means the legal authority under Correctional Services Article, §8-208, Annotated Code of Maryland, conferred by the Commission authorizing an individual to exercise duties related to the investigation, care, custody, control, or supervision of inmates in the custody or under the supervision of a correctional unit after complying with applicable Commission selection and training standards specified in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Classification counselor” means an employee who provides case management, counseling, or classification services to an inmate in the custody or under the supervision of a correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Commission” means the Correctional Training Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Correctional officer” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Correctional unit” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Criminal gang” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §9-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Department of Juvenile Services employee” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director for the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Derogatory Information.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Derogatory information” means negative information developed during a background investigation or reported to a correctional unit that may adversely affect the ability of an individual to perform the duties of a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Derogatory information” includes, but is not limited to, information related to an individual's membership in a criminal gang.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Drug dependent person” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Felony conviction” means an offense classified as such under the law of Maryland, another state, or the United States, including the District of Columbia.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“First-line administrator” means a mandated employee who is promoted to a position that is designated by the correctional unit as exercising first-line administrative authority as defined under Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland, for a correctional administrator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“First-line supervisor” means a mandated employee who is promoted to a position that is designated by the correctional unit as exercising first-line supervisory authority as defined under Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland, for a correctional supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Institutional support staff” means a mandated employee who performs one or more of the duties of a correctional officer, but whose primary duties are other than that of a correctional officer, classification counselor, parole and probation agent, or monitor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Juvenile Services support staff” means an individual employed by the Department of Juvenile Services who performs one or more of the duties of a Department of Juvenile Services employee, but whose primary duties are other than those of a case management specialist or resident advisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Mandated employee” means an individual required to comply with this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>Mandated Position.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Mandated position” means a job classification required to comply with this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Mandated position” includes a correctional officer, classification counselor, institutional support staff member, parole and probation agent, monitor, case management specialist or resident advisor, and Juvenile Services support staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>Misdemeanor Conviction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Misdemeanor conviction” includes an offense classified as such by the laws of Maryland, another state, or the United States, including the District of Columbia.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Misdemeanor conviction” does not include a violation of a federal or state motor vehicle code except for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Vehicle operation resulting in the death of an individual, such as auto manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Unauthorized use or theft of a motor vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Driving while intoxicated, under the influence of drugs, or alcohol, or both; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Operating a motor vehicle without a license or while a license is suspended or revoked.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Monitor” means a drinking driver monitor employed by the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>Moral Turpitude.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Moral turpitude” means conduct that demonstrates negative characteristics directly related to the individual's fitness or qualification to hold a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Moral turpitude” includes, but may not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Conduct demonstrating untruthfulness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Conduct demonstrating lack of trust;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Conduct demonstrating lack of responsibility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Other conduct that may undermine public trust.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Nonofficer status” means a situation in which a mandated employee, who continues to be employed by a correctional unit in a mandated position, is temporarily relieved of duties by a correctional unit, without any effect on the mandated employee's Commission certification or eligibility for Commission certification or recertification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For medical or administrative reasons that prevent the mandated employee from completing Commission-required training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For the purpose of suspending Commission-required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Offense involving violence” means an offense where the applicant was convicted of a crime involving the application of force or physical violence, the attempt to commit such a crime, or any assault.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Parole and probation agent” means a Division of Parole and Probation employee who provides case management, supervision, and other programming services to individuals under the supervision of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>“Probationary period” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-209(b), Annotated Code of Maryland for probationary appointment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Provisional appointment” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-209, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Resident advisor (RA)” means a Department of Juvenile Services employee who provides custodial services to juveniles under the supervision of the Department of Juvenile Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Training director” means the director of an academy, school, or training unit, or a designee, authorized to act for the agency head in training matters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Processing and Reporting Employment Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Completion of the Application for Certification (AFC).</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall complete an AFC for a correctional officer, classification counselor, institutional support staff, monitor, parole and probation agent, or Department of Juvenile Services employee to apply for certification to a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head is responsible for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accurately completing the AFC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Submitting the AFC to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign the AFC certifying that Commission selection standards have been met; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the date the individual completed the certification requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>False or misrepresented information on the AFC is a basis for rejection or revocation of certification by the Commission and may be the basis for administrative or legal action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Filing the AFC.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall submit the AFC to the Commission within 1 year after the individual has met each applicable selection standard under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall issue a provisional appointment for the individual in the mandated position after receipt of a properly completed AFC indicating:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The individual has met each applicable Commission selection standard under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Each applicable Commission selection standard was met within 1 year before the AFC was submitted to the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May certify the individual in the mandated position after receipt of a properly completed AFC indicating completion of the requirements under §B(2)(a) of this regulation and mandated employee entrance-level training requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An individual for whom an agency head has submitted an AFC in a mandated position may not legally exercise the duties of a mandated position until the individual receives a provisional certification from, or is certified by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Notification of Change in Employment or Certification Status.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall notify the Commission in writing when a mandated employee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is separated from employment in a mandated position by death, retirement, dismissal, or resignation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is transferred to a different type of mandated position within the correctional unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Changes a legal name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Is promoted to a first-line supervisor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Is promoted to a first-line administrator; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Is placed on nonofficer status for more than 30 days when that status prevents the mandated employee from meeting the Commission's training requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall report a change in a mandated employee's employment status under this section within 30 days of the change in a format or on a form approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall include in the notification required under §C(1) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The mandated employee's name and Commission-assigned identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date of the action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A statement indicating the change in status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>In a case of separation from employment with a correctional unit or from a mandated position or placement on nonofficer status, information indicating whether at the time of the separation or placement on nonofficer status the mandated employee was under:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Criminal or administrative investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Indictment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Formal charges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Suspension; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Other similar action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Criminal Charges.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall notify the Commission when a mandated employee:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Is convicted of a felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is convicted of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for 1 year or more;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Serves a term of incarceration for a conviction of a misdemeanor offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Serves a term of incarceration as a condition of probation for a felony or misdemeanor criminal offense; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Is separated from employment with a correctional unit or from a mandated position while criminal charges filed against the employee were pending and any pending charge was a felony or misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for 1 year or more.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head shall include in the notification required under §C(4)(a) of this regulation information concerning the conviction, term of incarceration, or allegations being reported.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An agency head shall submit the notification under §C(4)(a) of this regulation to the Commission in a format or on a form approved by the Commission within 10 days of the date:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A conviction or term of incarceration under §C(4)(a)(i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this regulation became known to the agency head;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The mandated employee is separated from employment with a correctional unit or a mandated position; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A mandated employee is placed on nonofficer status because the individual has been charged with a crime under §C(4)(a)(i) or (ii) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An agency head shall make the notification required under §C(4)(a) of this regulation regardless of the outcome of administrative plea negotiation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Audit and Records.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission has the legal authority to audit records of reporting requirements, selection standards and training provided according to this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A correctional unit or academy shall retain records of an individual’s:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Training for a minimum of 3 years from the date the individual completed the training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Selection standards for a minimum of 5 years from the date an application for certification or recertification is submitted on behalf of the individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Provisional Appointment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may grant a provisional appointment to a mandated employee after the individual meets the applicable selection standards under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Perform the duties of a mandated position unless the individual has met the applicable selection standards under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be authorized to carry or use a firearm unless the individual has successfully completed firearms training and qualification requirements under COMAR 12.10.04.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual may not perform the duties of a mandated position under a provisional appointment beyond the individual's probationary period.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual with a Commission provisional appointment to a mandated position classified as a correctional officer, classification counselor, institutional support staff, parole and probation agent, monitor, case management specialist, resident advisor, or Juvenile Services support staff who changes from the original position to another of these positions shall receive a new provisional appointment in the new mandated position to provide the opportunity to obtain applicable training for the new mandated position required under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A provisional appointment is valid until:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>365 cumulative days have elapsed from the initial date of the provisional appointment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>It is determined that the applicable selection standards have not been met;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The individual has been certified; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The individual's employment in a mandated position is terminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A provisional appointment to a mandated position under this regulation may be made for a formerly certified mandated employee who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has not been in a mandated position with a correctional unit for over 3 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meets the appropriate selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Probationary Period.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>After an individual has met the applicable selection standards under Regulation .04 or .08 of this chapter and received a provisional appointment, the Commission shall grant a probationary period of up to 365 days to the mandated employee to perform mandated employee duties while awaiting the opportunity to complete the entrance-level training required under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The probationary period begins on the first day of the Commission provisional appointment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The 365-day period is cumulative and may not be lengthened by multiple employments in the same mandated position by different correctional units or periodic employment with the same correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an individual transfers as a new employee in the same mandated position from one correctional unit to another correctional unit before successfully completing the required entrance-level training, the probationary period continues from the date of the first provisional appointment, less any time the individual is not employed in the same mandated position by a correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A Commission probationary period for a mandated position under this chapter does not prohibit a correctional unit from imposing a probationary period that may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Exceed that established by the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be in addition to that imposed by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Selection Standards for Appointment to a Mandated Position and Documentation Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Age. An applicant shall be 18 years old or older:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On the date of provisional appointment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To begin entrance-level training for a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Citizenship.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be a United States citizen or a resident alien; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Submit proof of citizenship or resident alien status to the hiring correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the applicant is a resident alien, an agency head shall submit a copy of the applicant's identification card or other official documentation issued by Immigration and Customs Enforcement of the United States Department of Homeland Security with the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Education Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Correctional Officer, Monitor, or Resident Advisor.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An applicant for a mandated position classified as a correctional officer, monitor, or resident advisor shall possess a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>High school diploma issued by a high school or recognized by the State Board of Education; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>General Educational Development (GED) certificate or diploma issued by another state or recognized by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head may accept a baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university recognized by the Maryland Higher Education Commission in place of the high school diploma required under §C(1)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In the absence of a copy of a diploma, an agency head may accept a certified transcript indicating that an individual successfully completed the requirements for graduation from a high school or college under §C(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If an applicant required to submit proof of education under §C(1)(a) of this regulation received a General Educational Development (GED) certificate or diploma outside Maryland or while in the military service and no certificate or diploma was issued, an agency head may accept a copy of the GED test scores that meet requirements established by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Classification Counselor or Parole and Probation Agent. An applicant for a mandated position classified as a classification counselor or parole and probation agent shall possess a baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university recognized by the Maryland Higher Education Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Institutional Support Staff. An agency head shall establish the educational requirements for a mandated position classified as institutional support staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Case Management Specialist (CMS). An applicant for a mandated position classified as a case management specialist shall possess at least:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A baccalaureate degree from an accredited college or university recognized by the Maryland Higher Education Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An associate of arts degree from an accredited college or university recognized by the Maryland Higher Education Commission and a minimum of 2 years experience providing direct service to delinquent, emotionally disturbed, socially maladjusted, victimized, or exceptional children.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Juvenile Services Support Staff. The Department of Juvenile Services shall establish the educational requirements for a mandated position classified as juvenile services support staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Documenting and Reporting Education Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall maintain a copy of an appropriate diploma or other acceptable documentation submitted by the applicant demonstrating that the applicant meets the education requirements for a mandated position under §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head shall include information indicating that the applicant for employment in a mandated position meets the education requirements under §C of this regulation on the AFC form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Background Investigation and Criminal History Record Check.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, shall perform a background investigation and criminal history record check of an applicant for a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, shall include in the criminal history record check a fingerprint check as required under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Physical and Mental Health Examinations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Physical Examinations.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Require that an applicant is examined by a licensed, trained, and qualified medical health care professional; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Receive a positive recommendation from the medical health care professional.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To be eligible for certification in a mandated position, the medical health care professional's recommendation shall indicate that the applicant is physically able to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Perform duties of the mandated position for which the applicant is applying as determined by a correctional unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Participate in the entrance-level training required by the Commission for the mandated position for which the individual is applying; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Participate in training required by the correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Mental Health Examination.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Require that an applicant is examined by a licensed, trained, and qualified mental health care professional; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Receive a positive recommendation from the mental health care professional.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>To be eligible for certification in a mandated position, the mental health care professional's recommendation shall indicate that the applicant is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Emotionally and mentally fit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Able to perform duties of the mandated position for which the applicant is applying as determined by a correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Certification of Medical and Mental Health Examination Results.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head shall provide the following information concerning an applicant's medical and mental health examination with the AFC:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The names of the licensed medical and mental health care professionals performing the examinations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The date the medical and mental health examinations were performed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head shall retain and maintain documentation concerning an applicant's medical and mental health examinations according to statutory and regulatory requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Oral Interview.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Require that an applicant for a mandated position participates in an oral interview to assess the applicant's ability to communicate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the name of the individual conducting the oral interview and the date of the interview on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, shall maintain a record of the interview.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Drug Screening.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall require that an applicant for a mandated position submits to a drug screening to test for controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana according to Regulation .21 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head, or a designee, shall maintain a record of the drug screening test results and include the drug screen test results on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the drug screening test results exceed the levels specified under Regulation .21of this chapter, the Commission may not certify the individual in the mandated position, unless the positive drug screening test for a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana is determined to be the result of a legitimate ingestion or exposure as provided under Regulation .21 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>This regulation does not prohibit an agency head from establishing more restrictive standards than Commission standards for certifying an individual in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>An agency head may submit a request for a waiver of the minimum standards under this regulation according to requirements under Regulation .19 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Background Investigation and Criminal History Record Checks."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Background Investigation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or agency authorized under §A(7) of this regulation shall perform a background investigation to determine if an applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is of good moral character and reputation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is emotionally stable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Displays the suitable behavior necessary to perform the duties of the mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Has, at any time, been a member of a criminal gang.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall ensure that a background investigation includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A check of military records, when applicable, including obtaining a complete copy of discharge documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A report from a credit agency regarding current and past credit history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Examination of school records or interviews with school officials if the applicant attended a school within the last 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Interviews of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Personal references;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Neighbors within the last 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Current and past employers within the last 5 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Coworkers within the past 5 years;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>An investigation for prior use of controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana as specified under Regulation .22 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A search for information related to an applicant that is reported by the following criminal gang database systems:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>GangNet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>RISSNET; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Other criminal gang database systems approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head shall use a background investigation to determine whether:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Information concerning the applicant's citizenship, mental and emotional fitness, and other information is accurate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The applicant is capable of performing duties of the mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The applicant meets the Commission's requirements for the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Interviews may be conducted:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>By telephone;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>By using a correctional unit form or questionnaire that the interviewer or individual interviewed is required to complete; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>By other lawful methods designed to elicit useful information from a person concerning the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Personal Interview.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission considers a personal interview appropriate when the individual to be interviewed is within 50 miles of the correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Interviews with personal references and others not residing in Maryland may be conducted by correspondence or telephone.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Out-of-State Applicant.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If an applicant has resided or been employed in another state, an agency head:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>May permit the background investigation to be performed by a law enforcement agency or a legitimate private background investigation agency in the area where the applicant lived or worked outside of the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Shall ensure that a search for information related to an applicant is conducted using a reliable criminal gang database system in the state where the applicant resided or was employed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an applicant was employed in a mandated position for the federal government or another state, an agency head shall include the following information on the AFC:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The name of the federal or state organization employing the applicant in a mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Information received from the previous out-of-State federal or state employer concerning the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Investigations By Other Agencies. The hiring agency head may conduct the Commission-required background investigation or may authorize another individual, office, or agency to conduct the Commission-required background investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, submitting an AFC for an applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Maintain a record of the applicant's background investigation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the result of the background investigation on the AFC.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Derogatory Information.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If derogatory information is discovered during the background investigation, an agency head shall submit details with the AFC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may refuse to certify an applicant in a mandated position based upon derogatory information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Criminal History Record Checks and Fingerprints.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head submitting an AFC for an applicant to be certified as a correctional officer or Department of Juvenile Services employee shall require that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be fingerprinted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Apply to the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services for a State and national criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An applicant applying for a criminal history records check under this section shall request the results of the criminal history records check be provided to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Agency submitting the AFC for the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Record of Criminal Conviction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission shall include with the Commission’s records for the applicant’s AFC results of the criminal history records check that reveal an applicant has:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Been convicted or otherwise found guilty of a felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Been convicted or otherwise found guilty of a misdemeanor for which a sentence of imprisonment of 1 year or more may be imposed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Served a term of incarceration for a conviction of a misdemeanor offense; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Served a term of incarceration as a condition of probation for a felony or misdemeanor criminal offense.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may not certify an applicant in a mandated position if the applicant has a conviction for an offense under Regulation .20 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission shall notify the applicant that the applicant may contest the contents of the criminal history records check results as provided under Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission may refuse to certify the applicant based on derogatory information resulting from the criminal history records check or other verified reliable source.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Certification of a Mandated Employee."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Mandated Employee Certification Requirements. The Commission shall certify an individual for appointment to a mandated position after the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Meets selection standards established under Regulation .04 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completes training for that position under Regulation .09 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successfully completes a field training program under Regulation .23 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Mandated Employee Period of Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall determine the period of certification for a mandated employee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A mandated employee's certification is valid for the period determined by the Commission or until the employee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is separated from employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Does not meet the Commission's standards;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Is transferred from a mandated position to a nonmandated position; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Is transferred from one mandated position to another mandated position with different selection or training requirements that the individual has not met.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Mandated Employee Certification—Renewal.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall establish a schedule for renewing mandated employee certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall renew a mandated employee's certification if the individual meets the Commission's annual training requirements under Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a mandated employee is not eligible for certification renewal under §C(2) of this regulation, at least 30 days before the end of the current certification the Commission shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the mandated employee's agency head of the date that the current mandated employee's certification will end; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Request the agency head to supply information that may affect the mandated employee's eligibility for certification renewal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If notified under the provisions of §C(3)(a) of this regulation, the agency head shall notify the affected mandated employee of the date the certification ends before the date the employee's certification ends.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Mandated Employee Certification—Lapse.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A mandated employee's certification lapses on the date recorded on the certification card if it has not been renewed under §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head may not permit a mandated employee to perform the duties of a mandated position if the mandated employee's certification has lapsed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the mandated employee's certification has lapsed because the mandated employee did not meet the Commission's annual training standards, the mandated employee may request a hearing before the Commission to show that the mandated employee was not at fault and that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The employer did not provide the mandated employee with the required training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The mandated employee's duty assignment prevented the individual from attending or completing the required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a hearing is requested under §D(3) of this regulation, the Commission shall conduct the hearing according to procedures under State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a hearing is conducted and the Commission determines that the mandated employee was not at fault because a condition under §D(3)(a) or (b) exists:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commission shall extend certification to provide the opportunity for the mandated employee and the employer to meet the Commission's training requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The agency head shall continue to employ the mandated employee at the employee's established pay rate, regardless of the duties assigned, pending completion of required training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Commission may order the employer to pay all reasonable hearing costs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Mandated Employee Recertification. The Commission shall recertify an individual formerly certified as a mandated employee in Maryland after the individual meets the applicable selection and training standards under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Certification Card.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall issue a certification card to an individual who has met the Commission's certification requirements for a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall determine the format and contents of the certification card.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The certification card indicates that the individual is authorized to perform the duties of the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The mandated employee's agency head:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is responsible for the cost of replacing an issued, current certification card; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May require a mandated employee to reimburse the agency for the cost of replacement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A mandated employee shall, to the extent possible, possess a valid certification card while the mandated employee is on duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A certification card issued by the Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Lapses at midnight on the date printed on the card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Remains the property of the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Shall be returned, by an agency head, to the Commission when an individual is no longer employed as a mandated employee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An agency head shall return a mandated employee's certification card, removed from the individual under §F(6)(c) of this regulation, to the Commission within 30 working days of the date the individual is no longer employed as a mandated employee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An agency head shall retain the certification card of a mandated employee on nonofficer status until the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Returns to active duty; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is no longer employed in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Department of Juvenile Services Contractor Employee Selection, Training Standards, and Certification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee of a nonprofit or for-profit organization (contractor) under contract with the Department of Juvenile Services performing duties equivalent to those performed by a Department of Juvenile Services employee in a mandated position shall meet the same selection and training standards and certification requirements as the Department of Juvenile Services mandated employee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the contractor under §G(1) of this regulation changes or the Department of Juvenile Services assumes responsibility for the services previously provided by a contractor, mandated employee certification for a contractual employee shall continue under a new contractor or the Department of Juvenile Services if the employee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Continues employment under the new contractor or the Department of Juvenile Services without a break in service that exceeds 30 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Continues to perform the same duties and responsibilities of the mandated position for which the employee is certified;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Under the new employer, continues to perform duties at a facility formerly under the authority of the previous contractor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Continues to meet Commission training and certification requirements for the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Recertification Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant in a mandated position if the applicant was previously certified in the same mandated position when:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Hired by a second or successive correctional unit in the same mandated position within 3 years of termination from the previous correctional unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission receives a completed AFC for the individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The applicant meets applicable Commission-required:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Recertification standards for the mandated position under Regulation .08 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Applicable training standards under §C or D of this regulation for the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Recertification. The Commission may grant a provisional certification to an applicant who has received a previous provisional certification to a mandated position but was not certified by the Commission in that mandated position after the applicant met the recertification standards for the mandated position under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Recertification to a Mandated Position Within 3 Years of Separation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant previously certified by the Commission in a mandated position without requiring the applicant to meet Commission entrance-level training requirements under Regulation .09 of this chapter if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has been separated from a correctional unit for less than 3 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Receives a provisional certification at a new or the same correctional unit in the same mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Meets Commission recertification standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Meets Commission training requirements under §C(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Training Requirements for Mandated Employee Recertification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In-Service Training.</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If an applicant has met the in-service training requirements for the current or previous calendar year, additional in-service training is not required for recertification in the same mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If an applicant has not met the in-service training requirements for the current or previous calendar year, the applicant shall successfully complete in-service training required under Regulation .16 of this chapter for the mandated position before recertification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms Training and Qualification — Recertification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A mandated employee required to carry or use a firearm shall complete firearms training and qualification requirements under Regulation .16 of this chapter with each firearm that the individual is authorized to carry or use before the individual is permitted to carry or use the firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An applicant is required to meet firearms training and qualification requirements under Regulation .16 of this chapter before recertification regardless of firearms training and qualifications completed at a previous correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Recertification to a Mandated position After 3 Years of Separation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may recertify an applicant in a mandated position who has been separated from employment at a correctional unit in a mandated position for 3 years or more and the applicant is reemployed at the same or a new correctional unit after the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets Commission recertification standards under Regulation .08 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully completes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Entrance-level training under Regulation .09 of this chapter for the mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>If the applicant is required to carry or use a firearm, entrance-level firearms training and qualification for each firearm the applicant is required to carry or use according to requirements under COMAR 12.10.04.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may grant an applicant under this regulation a new provisional certification under Regulation .03 of this chapter to provide an opportunity to complete the required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards for Recertification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant for recertification to a mandated position who previously received a provisional certification in a mandated position by the Commission shall meet the standards under this regulation for the mandated position that the applicant is seeking recertification to before the applicant may perform duties of the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Information Required for a Recertification Applicant. An agency head, or a designee, submitting an AFC for recertification under this regulation shall require that the following are performed for the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A criminal history record check and fingerprinting under Regulation .05 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A drug screening under Regulation .21 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A check with the applicant's previous correctional unit to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine the reason for separation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensure that the applicant left in good standing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Assess past work performance;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An investigation for the applicant's prior use of controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, and marijuana according to requirements under Regulation .22 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The physical and mental health examinations required under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The background investigation review and assurances, or full background investigation, as required under §E of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Required Additional Information for Certain Applicants. If an applicant for recertification has not been employed in a mandated position at a correctional unit for the last 90 days or more before filing an AFC for recertification, in addition to information required under §B of this regulation, the agency head, or a designee, shall conduct a modified background investigation for the period that the applicant was not employed in a mandated position at a correctional unit that includes obtaining information related to the applicant through:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A check with each employer during the applicant's absence from mandated duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A check with the applicant's coworkers during the applicant's absence from mandated duties and responsibilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interviews of personal references and neighbors provided by the applicant for the most recent period of the applicant's absence from mandated duties and responsibilities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An agency head, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete an AFC to verify that applicable selection standards have been met; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward, to the Commission, the completed AFC along with criminal history record check and derogatory information discovered during the background investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Review of Previous Background Investigations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head, or a designee, submitting an AFC for recertification shall review the background investigation conducted by the applicant's previous agency head to ensure that a complete and accurate investigation was performed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head, or a designee, submitting an AFC for recertification is responsible for correcting any omission or discrepancy in a prior background investigation that was conducted in conjunction with an AFC submitted to the Commission by an agency head less than 5 years from the date of the applicant's AFC for recertification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If records of a previous background investigation are not available, the agency head, or a designee, submitting an AFC for recertification shall conduct a full background investigation according to requirements under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Minimum Standards for Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant for certification in a mandated position shall successfully complete the Commission-approved entrance-level training for the mandated position in which the individual is employed before the Commission may certify the individual in the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>General Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The entrance-level training required by this regulation for a mandated position shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the mandated subject areas and minimum training hours under this regulation for a specific mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may not permit hours used to meet entrance-level firearms training and qualification requirements under COMAR 12.10.04 or field training requirements under Regulation .23 of this chapter as part of the minimum hours of entrance-level training specified for each mandated position in this regulation, regardless of whether the activity is conducted contemporaneously with or separate from the entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Correctional Officer and Classification Counselor — Entrance-Level Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a correctional officer or classification counselor is a minimum of 160 hours.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a correctional officer or classification counselor shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Administrative procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Introduction to corrections;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Supervision, interpersonal relations, and treatment of inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Security, custody, and control of inmates; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Discipline of inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Institutional Support Staff — Entrance-Level Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as institutional support staff requires an individual to successfully complete entrance-level training:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Required under §C of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Required under §D(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as institutional support staff is a minimum of 88 hours and shall include the subject areas required under §C(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Parole and Probation Agent — Entrance-Level Training Requirements. Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a parole and probation agent is a minimum of 204 hours and shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Program orientation and evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Introduction to corrections;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Supervision tasks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Investigation tasks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Enforcement tasks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Parole and Probation Drinking Driver Monitor — Entrance-Level Training Requirements. Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a parole and probation agent drinking driver monitor is a minimum of 90 hours and shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Program orientation and evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Introduction to corrections;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Administrative tasks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Monitoring tasks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Enforcement tasks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Resident Advisor — Entrance-Level Training Requirements. Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a resident advisor is a minimum of 160 hours and shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Juvenile services in the criminal justice system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Human growth and development;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Laws and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Facility admissions and orientation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Custody and control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Transportation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Integrated case management;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Safety and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Youth gang awareness and interventions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>First aid.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Case Management Specialist — Entrance-Level Training Requirements. Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as a case management specialist is a minimum of 160 hours and shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Juvenile services in the criminal justice system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Human growth and development;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Laws and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Community intake;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Transportation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Integrated case management;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Safety and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>First aid; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Youth gang awareness and interventions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Juvenile Services Support Staff — Entrance-Level Training Requirements. Commission-approved entrance-level training for a mandated position classified as juvenile services support staff is a minimum of 120 hours and shall include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Juvenile services in the criminal justice system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Human growth and development;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Laws and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Transportation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Integrated case management;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Safety and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>First aid; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Youth gang awareness and interventions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Commission Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training Performance Objectives."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>For the Commission to approve mandated employee entrance-level training, the entrance-level training shall include activities that ensure that an individual applying for certification in a mandated position has met performance objectives that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Are composed and sanctioned by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Address tasks that are essential to the applicable mandated position regardless of the correctional unit employing the individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission shall furnish a copy of the performance objectives upon request by a correctional unit, academy, or school.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An agency head or training director, or a designee, providing Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cover the Commission performance objectives during Commission-approved entrance-level training exactly as written by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determine the sequence, content, and duration of training to cover the Commission's performance objectives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Successful Completion of Commission-Approved Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The training director, or a designee, shall conduct testing to verify that each individual attending Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training has learned or can perform each of the Commission's performance objectives in each subject area required for the applicable mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A training director, or a designee, may use a single question or demonstration to test an individual for knowledge or performance of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A single Commission performance objective; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Multiple Commission performance objectives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual attending Commission-approved entrance-level training for certification in a mandated position shall achieve a score of 75 percent on each test or demonstration to be eligible for certification by the Commission in the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual attending Commission-approved entrance-level training for certification in a mandated position who is absent for more than 10 percent of the training may not be certified by the Commission unless the academy director determines that the individual has completed sufficient work.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A training director of an academy conducting Commission-approved entrance-level training for certification in a mandated position may require the individual attending to meet entrance-level training requirements, standards, and objectives that exceed entrance-level training requirements, standards, and objectives required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Once an individual completes Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training, the training director, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Report to the Commission, in a format determined by the Commission, the results of each individual attending the training for certification in a mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain records of the tests and testing procedures for each individual attending the training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Failure to Successfully Complete Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an individual attending Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training does not meet the requirements for successful completion of the training:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The training director, or a designee, shall notify the individual's agency head; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Commission may not certify the individual in the applicable mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head may request in writing that the Deputy Director permit an individual who does not successfully complete Commission-approved entrance-level training for certification in a mandated position to attend one additional Commission-approved entrance-level training to attempt to meet the Commission's requirements for entrance-level training for the same mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Alternate Entrance-Level Training Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall successfully complete Commission-approved entrance level training under §B of this regulation within 1 year of appointment if the individual is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Employed in a State, county, or municipal position that is not a mandated position under this chapter and performs duties and responsibilities similar to a mandated employee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Under private contract to operate a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Community adult rehabilitation center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Prerelease unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Work release unit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other community residential program for offenders.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual described under §A of this regulation shall successfully complete Commission-approved entrance level training according to requirements under either:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>§C under Regulation .09 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>§D under Regulation .09 of this chapter and 100 hours of training meeting requirements of §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The 100 hours of training required under §B(2) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May be developed by the individual's employing agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall be approved by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall, at a minimum, include the following subject areas:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Orientation to and a tour of the correctional unit or community program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The correctional unit's or community program's:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Mission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Staffing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Resident population or program participants;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Facility security and control and emergency and fire control procedures; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Either:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The American Red Cross basic first aid and safety program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Another first aid and safety program approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An employer of an individual required to meet entrance-level training requirements under this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Forward to the Commission, in a form or in a format provided by the Commission, information concerning an employee's entrance-level training required under this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain records of each employee's successful completion of entrance-level training under this regulation for audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Minimum Standards for Attending an Academy Providing Commission-Approved Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In addition to Commission requirements for selection and attending an academy providing Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training, the individual may be required to meet standards established by the agency head.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Before an individual may attend Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training, the agency head, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Have the individual complete the requirement for a medical examination under regulation .04 of this chapter that indicates that the individual is physically able to participate in the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct a criminal history record check of the National Crime Information Center (NCIC) files that meets selection requirements under Regulation .04 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provide the individual with a copy of the selection standards under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Have the individual attending the training acknowledge in writing that the individual is aware that completion of the Commission-approved entrance-level training is not a guarantee of Commission certification in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Entrance-Level Firearms Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A mandated employee authorized to use a firearm shall successfully complete the entrance-level firearms training program under COMAR 12.10.04 before being issued or permitted to carry a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A firearms program may be taken as part of an entrance-level training program or taken separately.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Commission Certification Requirements for an Academy Providing Commission-Approved Mandated Employee Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Academy Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may certify an academy to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may approve the following types of academy certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Temporary certification that authorizes an academy to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training under limited conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provisional certification that provides an academy preliminary approval to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training before receiving certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Certification authorizing an academy to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training subject to continued compliance with Commission academy standards.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission shall establish standards required to be met for each type of academy certification provided under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>General Requirements. An academy seeking certification to provide Commission-approved mandated employee training shall submit a request to the Commission documenting that the academy:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has a need to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is in compliance with Commission standards for instructors and curricula;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provides an atmosphere that supports learning;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Provides suitable lighting, ventilation, and acoustic qualities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Meets applicable federal, State, and local health, safety, and fire safety laws and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has a physical structure that if practical provides:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least 25 square feet of classroom space for each individual attending;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Locker space for each individual attending;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Appropriate desk space, work tables, and seating to support classroom and other related learning activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Storage for learning and training materials; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Instructional and training equipment and material to support the training provided;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has adequate space for skills training and conducting practical exercises; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Has an instructor certified by the Commission or the Police Training Commission to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training, unless the individual providing the training is exempt under COMAR 12.10.06 or COMAR 12.04.06 from instructor certification requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Commission certification of an academy under this regulation is not an exemption from Commission requirements for Commission approval of training provided by the academy under Regulations .09 and .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Individuals Attending Commission-Approved Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an individual is attending Commission-approved mandated employee training that is required by the Commission for the mandated position, the individual's agency head, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Excuse the individual from performing assigned duties and responsibilities during the training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Compensate the individual at the individual's appropriate salary while attending the training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The training director of an academy providing the Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission for a mandated position is responsible for the personal conduct of each individual attending the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The training director, or a designee, is the commanding official or supervisor for each individual attending the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The training director shall provide each individual attending the Commission-approved mandated employee training a copy of the academy's rules and regulations governing the individual's daily conduct while attending the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The disciplinary rules or regulations of the academy apply to each individual attending training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A training director shall notify an individual's agency head if, while at the academy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual commits a breach of conduct that requires disciplinary action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The individual's progress in Commission-required subject areas indicates the individual is failing the Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An agency head of an individual failing Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission may withdraw the individual from the training at any time before completing the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A training director and the agency head sending the individual to the academy may negotiate arrangements for reimbursement of costs associated with the individual attending the academy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An individual not employed in a mandated position may voluntarily enroll in an academy to participate in Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission if the individual meets the selection standards specified under Regulation .15 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Academy Authority.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An academy certified by the Commission may provide Commission-approved mandated employee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In-service training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Supervisor training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Administrator training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Instructor training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Firearms training and qualification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Other required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training director may establish rules of conduct for the academy that exceed Commission requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A written academy rule or lawful verbal direction or order issued by a Commission-certified academy representative has the same authority as a Commission requirement or standard.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A training director may establish academy requirements for successful completion that exceed Commission requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Academy Certification Lapse or Revocation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Certification Lapse.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Commission certification for an academy shall lapse if the academy does not conduct Commission-approved training for a period of 2 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An agency head or training director may apply for the academy’s recertification if the agency head or training director can demonstrate the need for the academy to conduct Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Academy Certification Revocation. The Commission may revoke an academy's certification if the academy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discontinues presenting Commission-approved training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conducts Commission-approved training without Commission-certified instructors providing the training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Demonstrates a pattern of deficiencies identified by audits or fails to correct identified deficiencies following an audit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Training director does not successfully complete the training director orientation program under §H of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Violates a provision of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Academy Audit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved mandated employee training provided by an academy is subject to review and audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall audit a Commission-certified academy providing Commission-approved mandated employee training required by the Commission at least every 2 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head or training director responsible for an academy shall correct deficiencies identified during an audit according to requirements established by the Commission and recorded in the Commission's audit report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Training Director Orientation. An individual appointed as a training director of a Commission-certified academy, within 3 months of appointment, shall successfully complete a training director orientation program designed and approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Voluntary Attendance — Commission-Approved Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual may voluntarily attend Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training if the individual meets the requirements under this regulation, and is not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Employed in a mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Currently employed by a correctional unit and required to comply with requirements for a mandated position; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An applicant for a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Standards for Voluntary Attendance — Commission-approved Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual who is not an applicant for or employed in a mandated position requesting to voluntarily attend Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meet selection standards established for the academy conducting the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authorize the training director to conduct a records check of the National Criminal Information Center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Submit to a medical examination conducted by a licensed health care professional and receive written certification from the licensed health care profession that the individual is physically able to participate in the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Be 18 years old or older at the time the individual enters the academy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Receive from the training director a copy of the selection standards for the mandated position under Regulation .04 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Acknowledge an understanding, in writing, that successful completion of the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training does not guarantee Commission certification in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An agency head hiring an individual for a mandated position may request a waiver, according to Regulation .19 of this chapter, of the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training requirement, if the individual, before applying for the mandated position, voluntarily attended and successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training for the mandated position within 2 years of being hired by the agency head.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Mandated Employee In-Service Training and Firearms Training and Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Mandated Employee In-Service Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head shall ensure that a mandated employee at or below the rank of a first-line supervisor completes a minimum of 18 hours of Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training by December 31 of each calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall only accept successful completion of Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training toward a mandated employee's in-service training requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training may be conducted, according to Commission requirements, by the individual's agency or another agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission does not require a Commission-certified mandated employee to meet the in-service training requirement under this regulation during the same calendar year the mandated employee successfully completed Commission-approved entrance-level mandated employee training for the same mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission may apply a mandated employee's successful completion of Commission-approved supervisor, administrator, or instructor training toward a mandated employee's in-service training requirement for the calendar year in which the Commission-approved supervisor, administrator, or instructor training was completed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An agency head who receives a waiver of the Commission requirements for an employee to complete Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training under Regulation .19 of this chapter shall ensure that the mandated employee successfully completes Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training during the first full calendar year of employment and during each successive calendar year of employment in the mandated position with the correctional unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Mandated Employee Firearms Training and Qualification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A mandated employee, authorized to carry or use a firearm, shall complete Commission-approved firearms training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04 during each calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission does not require a mandated employee required to carry or use a firearm to complete firearms training and qualification under this regulation if, in the same calendar year, the mandated employee successfully completes Commission-approved:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Entrance-level firearms training and qualification with the same firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms instructor training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04 for the same firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms refresher training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04 for the same firearm; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms conversion training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04 for the same firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Mandated Employee In-Service Training and Firearms Training and Qualification Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Determine the format for submitting training for approval; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Assign a program number to approved training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Training is not approved until the Commission assigns a program number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request for the Commission to approve training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Include the topics to be studied;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the time allocated to each topic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include a brief explanation of why, in terms of current job needs, the topics are included;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Identify each instructor providing training on a specific subject and the number of hours that the instructor is scheduled to provide the training on the subject; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Unless the Commission instructs otherwise, be submitted to the Commission at least 20 working days before the training is scheduled to begin.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Only an instructor certified by the Commission or the Police Training Commission may conduct Commission-approved training unless the individual providing the training is exempt under COMAR 12.04.06 or 12.10.06 from instructor certification requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C(6) of this regulation, the Commission may approve mandated employee training for a period of 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The agency head or training director of a correctional unit, agency, academy, or school conducting Commission-approved mandated employee training shall submit training to the Commission for approval:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>When a significant change is made in the format or content of Commission-approved training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>After the period of approval established by the Commission has expired.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Curriculum, Attendance, and Testing for Mandated Employee In-Service Training, Firearms Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The agency head or training director shall report a mandated employee's successful completion of Commission-approved in-service training to the Commission on or before January 31 of the year immediately following the training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The agency head or training director shall report in-service training information in a format determined by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Testing.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An agency head or training director providing Commission-approved mandated employee training shall test each mandated employee attending Commission-approved mandated employee training to determine successful completion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A mandated employee shall achieve a minimum test score of 70 percent on each test before the Commission may apply the training to the mandated employee's training requirements under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The commission shall determine the method for reporting a mandated employee's training information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission requires that an agency head or training director providing Commission-approved mandated employee training establishes a method to evaluate the training provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If a mandated employee is absent for more than 10 percent of the time required for a Commission-approved annual in-service training program, including electronic control device and firearms training and qualification, the employee may not receive credit toward the annual in-service training requirements of this chapter for any portion of the program, unless the Deputy Director approves the individual to receive full or partial credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Attending Training Hosted by Other Agencies.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or training director responsible for training a mandated employee may send the individual to Commission-approved mandated employee training hosted by another agency without prior Commission approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head or training director responsible for training a mandated employee who sends the mandated employee to another agency for Commission-approved training shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Ensure that the training has been assigned a program number by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Submit the mandated employee's training information to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Failure to Complete Commission-Required Mandated Employee In-Service Training and Firearms Training and Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Mandated Employee In-Service Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as provided under §A(2) of this regulation, if a mandated employee does not complete the 18 hours of in-service training by December 31 of a calendar year, the agency head or training director responsible for training the mandated employee shall add the number of hours of in-service training missed to the new calendar year's required 18 hours of in-service training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a mandated employee is scheduled for certification renewal on July 1 of any year, but does not receive the entire 18 hours of mandated employee in-service training by December 31 of the previous calendar year, the agency head or training director responsible for training the mandated employee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the employee, before the July 1 date on which the employee is scheduled for certification renewal, the Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training missed in the previous calendar year; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the current year's requirement of 18 hours of Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training by December 31 of the current calendar year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Firearms Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a mandated employee does not successfully complete Commission-approved firearms training and qualification under this regulation before December 31 of a calendar year, the agency head or training director responsible for training the mandated employee may not permit the mandated employee to use or carry a firearm until the mandated employee successfully completes firearms training and qualification with the firearm the mandated employee is required to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a mandated employee has not successfully completed Commission-approved firearms training and qualification under this regulation for the firearm the mandated employee is required to use or carry for 3 or more consecutive calendar years, the mandated employee shall complete Commission-approved entrance-level mandated employee firearms training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04 before an agency head may permit the mandated employee to carry or use a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except for a mandated employee on nonofficer status, if an agency does not provide required training in 2 consecutive years or displays a repetitive pattern of not providing the required training, the Commission shall initiate appropriate action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Nonofficer Status.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved Mandated Employee In-Service Training. If a mandated employee does not successfully complete mandated employee in-service training because the mandated employee is on nonofficer status, the agency head or training director responsible for training the mandated employee shall provide the mandated employee with the required in-service training in the calendar year in which the mandated employee returns to active duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Firearms Training and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a mandated employee does not successfully complete firearms training and qualification requirements under this regulation because the individual is on nonofficer status, before the employee may carry or use a firearm, the mandated employee shall successfully complete Commission-approved firearms training and qualification under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>For each firearm the mandated employee is required to use or carry; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In the same calendar year that the individual returns to active duty.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If a mandated employee returning from nonofficer status has not, during the previous 3 calendar years, successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee annual firearms training and qualification with the firearm the mandated employee is required to use or carry, before the employee may use or carry a firearm, the mandated employee shall successfully complete Commission approved mandated employee entrance-level firearms training and qualification:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Under COMAR 12.10.04; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In the same calendar year the mandated employee returns to active duty.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a mandated employee returns to active duty from nonofficer status and the mandated employee's certification has lapsed, the agency head shall ensure that the mandated employee meets requirements for mandated employee certification renewal under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an agency head or training director responsible for training a mandated employee under this regulation does not provide training documents to the Commission in a timely manner, a mandated employee's certification renewal may be delayed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Waivers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Deputy Director may grant a request for a waiver of annual in-service training or annual firearms training and qualification if the correctional unit or agency provides information demonstrating that an individual successfully completed comparable training in the same calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a waiver of training requirements under this regulation shall be submitted in accordance with Regulation .19 of this chapter by the agency head or training director responsible for training a mandated employee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Audit Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission-approved in-service training and firearms training and qualification information is subject to audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head or training director providing Commission-approved mandated employee in-service training or mandated employee firearms training and qualification, or both, shall maintain documentation until audited by the Commission, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Curriculum;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Listing of instructors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Attendance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Test and qualification scores; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other information required by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency head or training director sending a mandated employee to another academy for Commission-approved mandated employee training shall maintain records of in-service training and firearms training and qualification provided by the academy conducting the training until audited by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>To verify compliance with Commission requirements, the Commission shall annually audit a portion of the following Commission-approved annual in-service programs:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Mandated employee training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Electronic control device training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Minimum Training Standards — Mandated Employee Supervisors and Administrators."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for provisions under §A(2) of this regulation, the Commission requires a mandated employee promoted to a first-line, or higher, mandated employee supervisor position to successfully complete Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor training within 1 year of the date of the promotion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission does not require a mandated employee to successfully complete Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor training if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The mandated employee successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor training within the 2 years immediately preceding the date of the promotion from a position below that of a first line mandated employee supervisor to a first line, or higher, mandated employee supervisor position; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A mandated employee supervisor has successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor training and the individual is promoted to a new mandated employee supervisor position that does not include administrator duties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except for provisions under §A(4) of this regulation, the Commission requires a mandated employee promoted to a first-line, or higher, mandated employee administrator position to successfully complete Commission-approved mandated employee administrator training within 1 year of the date of the promotion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Commission does not require a mandated employee to successfully complete Commission-approved mandated employee administrator training if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The mandated employee successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee administrator training within the 2 years immediately preceding the date of the promotion; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A mandated employee administrator has successfully completed Commission-approved mandated employee administrator training and the individual is promoted to a new mandated employee administrator position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commission requires a mandated employee promoted to a first line, or higher, mandated employee administrator position from a position below that of a first line mandated employee supervisor who has not met the mandated employee supervisor or administrator training requirements under this regulation to successfully complete, within 1 year of the date of the promotion, Commission-approved mandated employee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Supervisor training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Administrator training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Minimum Mandated Employee Supervisor and Administrator Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission requires that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Only Commission-approved or certified instructors provide mandated employee supervisor and administrator training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A mandated employee shall obtain a minimum 70 percent overall test score to successfully complete the training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Mandated employee supervisor and administrator training are a minimum of 35 hours for each form of training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Unless determined otherwise by the agency head or training director and the Commission, a mandated employee required to attend Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor or administrator training may not receive credit toward the training requirement under this regulation if the mandated employee is absent for more than 10 percent of the required hours of a Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The Commission's training objectives for the mandated employee supervisor and administrator training are covered as written by the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>An agency head or training director submit the proposed mandated employee supervisor or administrator training to the Commission for approval at least 20 days before the date the training is scheduled to start.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head or training director shall submit rosters, required reports, and grades to the Commission upon completion of training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Upon request by an agency head or training director, the Commission shall provide a copy of a training outline and training objectives for Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor and administrator training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an agency head or training director amends Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor or administrator training, the agency head or training director shall submit the amended training to the Commission for approval at least 20 working days before the date the amended training is to begin.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Waivers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may waive requirements for successful completion of Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor or administrator training if an agency head or training director provides the Commission with documentation establishing that the mandated employee successfully completed parallel Commission-approved mandated employee supervisor or administrator training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head or training director requesting a waiver of training requirements under this regulation shall submit the request to the Deputy Director for approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Failure To Complete Commission-Required Mandated Employee Supervisor or Administrator Training. If a mandated employee required to meet training requirements under this regulation has not successfully completed required Commission-approved supervisor or administrator training by the first year anniversary date of promotion to a mandated employee first-line, or higher, supervisor or mandated employee first-line, or higher, administrator position, the agency head shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Relieve the mandated employee of mandated employee supervisory or administrative duties related to the position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inform the Commission in writing within 30 days of the anniversary date of action taken to relieve the mandated employee of mandated supervisory or administrative duties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Procedures for Requesting a Waiver."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Selection Standards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or training director may submit a written request for a waiver of mandated employee selection standards to the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The training director or agency head submitting the request for waiver of mandated employee selection standards shall include a completed AFC supporting the waiver request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Training Standards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or training director may submit a signed written request for a waiver of mandated employee training standards to the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A signed written request for a waiver of Commission-required mandated employee training shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Course content or an outline of parallel training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A description of the parallel training received;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The number of hours of parallel training completed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information that the Deputy Director may request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Mandated Employee Entrance-Level Training Waiver.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Deputy Director may approve a waiver of Commission-required mandated employee entrance-level training if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Was employed in the same type of mandated position with a correctional unit within the last 3 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Completed an entrance-level training determined by the Deputy Director to be comparable to the Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training under Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head or training director may submit a signed written request for a waiver of Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training to the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Deputy Director grants a waiver of Commission-approved mandated employee entrance-level training, the individual shall meet the following requirements before the Commission grants certification in the mandated position:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certification in first aid and safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Completion of the entrance-level firearms training and qualification under COMAR 12.10.04, if applicable; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>For mandated employees defined under Regulation .01B under this chapter, satisfactory completion of 80 hours of training in the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Administrative procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Purpose of corrections;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Supervision of inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Security, custody, and control of inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Deception and manipulation by inmates; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Security threat groups.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Denial of Waiver Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head or training director may appeal the Deputy Director’s decision to deny the waiver request by mailing a signed written request for reconsideration of the denial to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Commission’s final determination is to deny a waiver requested on behalf of an individual under §D(1) of this regulation, the agency head or training director may not submit another request for waiver on behalf of the individual within 2 years of the date the Commission denied the previous request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Disqualifying Criminal Convictions for Correctional Officers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional officer applicant is not eligible for certification if the applicant has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A felony conviction for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Aggravated assault;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Murder or manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Robbery;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Arson;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Kidnapping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A handgun or weapon-related violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A first, second, or third degree sexual offense; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Two or more felonies not arising from the same incident;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A conviction for an offense that resulted in incarceration when less than 10 years have elapsed since the applicant was released from incarceration or terminated from parole or probation, whichever last occurred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A misdemeanor conviction that resulted in incarceration when less than 5 years have elapsed since the applicant was released from incarceration or terminated from parole or probation, whichever has last occurred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Three or more misdemeanor convictions, except convictions for minor traffic violations, arising out of separate occurrences if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least one of the misdemeanor convictions was for an offense involving violence or moral turpitude; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A term of imprisonment was served for any conviction; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A misdemeanor or felony conviction for a criminal offense under Criminal Law Article, Title 9, Subtitle 8, Annotated Code of Maryland, or similar conviction in a jurisdiction outside of the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This regulation does not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Require an agency head to employ an individual as a correctional officer who has a criminal record; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Prevent an agency head from setting higher criminal history standards than specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commission may reject the appointment of an individual with a criminal record not covered by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".21" heading="Drug Screening Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Urine Sample Collection.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency head conducting drug screening shall ensure that the process used by the correctional unit includes the minimum requirements under this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The correctional unit representative collecting a urine sample from an individual applying for a mandated position required to submit a urine sample shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Before collecting the sample, verify the identity of the individual providing the sample by examining a driver's license or other acceptable form of photographic identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Before collecting the sample, obtain written consent from the individual authorizing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Collection and analysis of the sample; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Disclosure of the sample analysis to the correctional unit and the Commission;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Obtain the urine sample in a manner that reasonably prevents substitution, alteration, or tampering;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Ensure that a minimum of 50 milliliters of urine is collected from the individual providing the sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A urine sample is collected using a proper container that was sealed by the manufacturer when presented to the individual providing the sample; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Once the container's seal is broken by the individual providing the sample and the urine sample is deposited in the container, the container is sealed by the individual supplying the urine sample;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The container is sealed using tamper-proof tape that extends over and around the container;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Once the sealed container is accepted from the individual supplying the urine sample, record on the container the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Name of the individual providing the urine sample;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Date the urine sample was taken; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Name of the individual who received the sample from the individual providing the sample; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Ensure that the urine sample is secured and stored in a manner that preserves the chain of custody.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Positive Urine Sample Results.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A urine sample screened positive under §C(2) of this regulation is considered evidence of recent use of a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency head shall ensure that a positive screen for a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana is not the result of legal use by the individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Urine Sample Analysis.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To ensure the reliability and integrity of the testing process, an employing agency conducting drug screening shall ensure that the process used to analyze the urine sample includes the minimum requirements under this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency conducting drug screening under this chapter shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A urine sample is screened by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Enzyme immunoassay;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Radioimmunoassay testing; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Other equally scientifically rigorous screening method;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The drug screening tests for the presence of the following controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, or marijuana or classes of controlled dangerous substances, narcotic drugs, or marijuana or controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana metabolites at the minimum levels, measured in nanograms per milliliter, specified:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Amphetamines — 1,000;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Barbiturates — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Cannabis or cannabinoids — 50;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Opiates — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Cocaine or cocaine metabolite — 300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Phencyclidine — 25; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Benzodiazepines — 300;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A positive drug screen is confirmed for each controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana identified by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Gas chromatography;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Mass spectrometry; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Other equally scientifically rigorous method; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Drug screening and sample analysis are conducted according to provisions under Health-General Article, §17-214, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Considers a urine sample collected and analyzed under this regulation that shows a presence of a controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana in a quantity equaling or exceeding the limits for the controlled dangerous substance, narcotic drug, or marijuana under §C(2)(b) of this regulation to be a positive drug screen; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Requires confirmation of a positive drug screen according to §C(2)(c) of this regulation before accepting the results as conclusive.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".22" heading="Prior Substance Abuse by Applicants for Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as provided under §A(2) of this regulation, applies to an applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An individual currently employed in a correctional unit and certified by the Commission as a mandated employee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except as provided under §B(1)(b) of this regulation, an addictions counselor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>General Policy.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may disqualify an applicant for certification in a mandated position if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has manifested unacceptable character traits, judgment, behavior, or activity resulting from personal involvement in the illegal use, purchase, sale, manufacture, or distribution of a controlled dangerous substance; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Was found guilty or convicted of a misdemeanor or felony for the purchase sale, manufacture, or distribution of a controlled dangerous substance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In accordance with the criteria and timeframes specified in §C of this regulation the Commission may not certify an applicant in a mandated position if there is an indication that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Unlawfully obtained or used a controlled dangerous substance; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Used a controlled dangerous substance in a manner not prescribed by the applicant’s doctor that resulted in dependence, abuse, or habitual use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A correctional unit may set more restrictive standards than those specified in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Prior and Current Use Criteria.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may not certify an applicant to a mandated position if the applicant has, within the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>12-month period immediately preceding the date of hire, unlawfully, according to Maryland law, used natural cannabis or natural cannabinoids; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>3 years immediately preceding the date of the hire, unlawfully used one or more of the following controlled dangerous substances:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Amphetamines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Barbiturates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Benzodiazepines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Cannabimimetic agents and synthetic cannabinoids;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Cocaine or a cocaine metabolite;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Hallucinogens including but not limited to PCP, LSD, and mescaline and their derivatives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Inhalants including but not limited to solvents, glue, paint, aerosols, and amyl nitrates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Opiates including but not limited to opium, heroin, morphine, and codeine;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Natural or synthetic anabolic steroids; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Except for §C(1)(a) of this regulation, any other substance prohibited by federal or State law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission may certify an applicant to a mandated position if the applicant was lawfully prescribed a controlled dangerous substance listed under §C(1) of this regulation and its use has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Not resulted in the applicant’s habitual use or becoming a drug dependent person; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not affected the applicant’s fitness to fulfill the responsibilities of the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission may certify an applicant to a mandated position if the applicant’s unlawful use of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Natural cannabis or natural cannabinoids preceded the applicant’s date of the hire by 12 or more months; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A controlled dangerous substance listed in §C(1)(b) of this regulation preceded the applicant’s date of hire by 3 or more years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>As a condition of being granted certification by the Commission under §C(3) of this regulation, an applicant shall agree to complete an annual drug test to be scheduled at the discretion of the employing agency during each of the 2 years following the applicant’s date of certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An employing agency that conditionally hires an applicant under §C(4) of this regulation may require an applicant to submit to the employing agency’s drug testing procedures for suspicion of substance use during the 2 years following certification or as part of the employing agency’s procedures for random drug testing of its employees..</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If certification is granted to an applicant who qualifies under §C(2) or (3) of this regulation, the employing agency shall notify the applicant of the additional minimum drug testing requirement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Indication of Use.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The employing agency shall investigate and report the results of an investigation to the Commission with the application for certification, if a background investigation, polygraph examination, interview, drug screening, or other process indicates an applicant’s prior or current use of a controlled dangerous substance as specified in §C this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the reported outcome of an investigation indicates that an applicant’s current or prior use of a controlled dangerous substance as specified in §C of this regulation is or was:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Lawful, the employing agency shall obtain proper medical documentation from a licensed health care professional; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Unlawful, the employing agency shall determine whether the applicant’s use occurred within the timeframes specified in §C(1)(a) and (b) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the employing agency determines that an applicant’s use of a controlled dangerous substance occurred prior to the timeframes specified in §C(1) of this regulation, the employing agency may proceed with the application for certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The employing agency shall evaluate an applicant’s use of a lawfully prescribed controlled dangerous substance as specified in §C of this regulation to determine whether the applicant is currently a drug dependent person or is medically unfit to perform the duties of a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The employing agency may apply to the Commission for certification in the mandated position if there is no indication of moral turpitude, no evidence that the applicant is a drug dependent person, and the applicant is medically fit to perform the duties of the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Upon review of the employing agency’s evaluation, the Commission may not certify an applicant if the employing agency found an indication of moral turpitude, evidence that the applicant is a drug dependent person, or the applicant is medically unfit to perform the duties of the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An employing agency shall maintain records and documentation of an applicant’s prior or current use, dependence on, or legitimate medical use of a controlled dangerous substance as specified in this regulation, and the records and documents are subject to audit by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Requesting a Waiver.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A correctional unit may request a waiver under Regulation .19 of this chapter of any provisions of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Commission shall consider a waiver requested for an individual on a case-by-case basis at a regularly scheduled meeting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".23" heading="Field Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall complete field training before the Commission certifies the individual in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional unit's field training for a mandated position:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be designed by the correctional unit and include activities to familiarize the individual with the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Duties of the mandated position; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Policies, procedures, and practices of the correctional unit;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be conducted in conjunction with, or separately from, Commission-approved entrance-level training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall be a minimum of 80 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>May not be used to meet the minimum Commission entrance-level training hourly requirement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Shall be managed by a Commission-certified mandated employee, the agency head, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Documenting Field Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The agency head, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete and submit a written statement to the Commission documenting an individual's successful completion of field training under this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date and sign the written statement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon receipt of the notice from an agency head, or a designee, documenting an individual's completion of field training, the Commission shall process the individual's application for certification under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 8-208; Public Safety Article, §3-207; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 760)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01B, C, .03 amended effective April 14, 1976 (3:8 Md. R. 427)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Existing Regulation .03 repealed and new Regulation .03 adopted effective May 15, 1981 (8:10 Md. R. 877)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.05 amended effective March 10, 1978 (5:5 Md. R. 325)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective May 19, 1978 (5:10 Md. R. 781)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective June 2, 1978 (5:11 Md. R. 885)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B, D, E, G amended effective February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 343)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01G adopted effective July 14, 1978 (5:14 Md. R. 1138)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01G-1 and G-2 adopted effective February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 343)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01H amended effective July 14, 1978 (5:14 Md. R. 1138)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01I adopted effective November 28, 1980 (7:24 Md. R. 2262)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05D adopted effective February 20, 1981 (8:4 Md. R. 343)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 8, 1982 (9:22 Md. R. 2197)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective July 2, 1984 (11:13 Md. R. 1177); July 13, 1986 (13:14 Md. R. 1634)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B, C amended effective June 20, 1994 (21:12 Md. R. 1062)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective December 14, 1987 (14:25 Md. R. 2661); February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B, .06C, .07 amended effective July 13, 1986 (13:14 Md. R. 1634)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective December 1, 1986 (13:24 Md. R. 2560); February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective April 9, 1984 (11:17 Md. R. 628); July 2, 1984 (11:13 Md. R. 1177); November 5, 1984 (11:22 Md. R. 1900); July 24, 1989 (16:14 Md. R. 1569)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective July 2, 1984 (11:13 Md. R. 1177); June 20, 1994 (21:12 Md. R. 1062)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05C amended effective February 6, 1989 (16:2 Md. R. 161); June 20, 1994 (21:12 Md. R. 1062)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05D amended effective November 5, 1984 (11:22 Md. R. 1900); November 28, 1988 (15:24 Md. R. 2772)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective June 20, 1994 (21:12 Md. R. 1062)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective January 16, 1995 (22:1 Md. R. 20)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A amended effective August 8, 1988 (15:16 Md. R. 1916); August 20, 1990 (17:16 Md. R. 1992)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .09—.11 adopted effective January 1, 1987 (13:24 Md. R. 2560)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective February 19, 1990 (17:3 Md. R. 301); June 20, 1994 (21:12 Md. R. 1062)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.11 repealed and new Regulations .01—.18 adopted effective October 20, 1997 (24:21 Md. R. 1451)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04C, E amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07C amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08B amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11B amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12F amended effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 adopted effective July 1, 2000 (27:10 Md. R. 967)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 7, 2002 (28:26 Md. R. 2274)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective September 13, 2004 (31:18 Md. R. 1351); May 23, 2005 (32:10 Md. R. 925)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective September 13, 2004 (31:18 Md. R. 1351)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03D amended effective September 13, 2004 (31:18 Md. R. 1351)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04C amended effective September 13, 2004 (31:18 Md. R. 1351)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective January 1, 2005 (31:17 Md. R. 1313); January 1, 2005 (31:23 Md. R. 1654)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09B, C amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10 amended effective August 30, 2004 (31:17 Md. R. 1313)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective January 1, 2005 (31:17 Md. R. 1313)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12D amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15C amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19A amended effective September 13, 2004 (31:18 Md. R. 1351)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20 adopted effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .21 adopted effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22 adopted effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 5, 2007 (34:22 Md. R. 1978)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective November 16, 2009 (36:23 Md. R. 1817)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective November 16, 2009 (36:23 Md. R. 1817)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08B, C amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:24 Md. R. 1858)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20A, B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22A amended effective November 16, 2009 (36:23 Md. R. 1817)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2013 (39:16 Md. R.1081)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202); July 1, 2021 (48:13 Md. R. 509)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective December 11, 2014 (41:24 Md. R. 1428)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202); August 18, 2014 (41:16 Md. R. 947); August 31, 2015 (42:17 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04C amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202); August 18, 2014 (41:16 Md. R. 947); February 29, 2016 (43:4 Md. R. 333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09G—I amended effective October 9, 2017 (44:20 Md. R. 945)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11F amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13B amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15A amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15D repealed effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16 amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .17 amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .18B amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 amended effective February 11, 2019 (46:3 Md. R. 107)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19D adopted effective August 31, 2015 (42:17 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20A amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .21B amended effective September 2, 2024 (51:17 Md. R. 777)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22 amended effective January 1, 2017 (43:24 Md. R. 1351)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22 repealed and new Regulation .22 adopted effective July 1, 2021 (48:13 Md. R. 509)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22C amended effective November 28, 2022 (49:24 Md. R 1027); September 2, 2024 (51:17 Md. R. 777)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: COMAR 12.10.01 cited in Attorney General Opinion No. 86-032 (May 16, 1986)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Public Information Requests" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: November 9, 1981 (8:22 Md. R. 1784)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01, .02, .04, .06—.16 amended effective March 14, 1983; (10:5 Md. R. 465)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective June 6, 1983 (10:11 Md. R. 976)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective September 24, 1984 (11:19 Md. R. 1667)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="General Hearing Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>These regulations apply to administrative hearings before the Correctional Training Commission (Commission), where issues concerning the legal rights, duties, statutory entitlements, or privileges of specific parties are decided as required by law or constitutional right.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations do not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee grievance hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An informal investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A Commission action on an application for certification or recertification to a mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A decision made by the Executive or Deputy Director pursuant to authority delegated by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A decision to conduct or not to conduct a hearing; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A proceeding where a hearing is not required by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Provisions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A hearing conducted by the Commission is subject to the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission may conduct a hearing only if a majority of the Commission's authorized membership is present.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Parties—Representation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A party to a hearing includes an individual or agency that the Commission names or designates, or who is entitled to be a party to a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may be represented by counsel at a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notice of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission shall provide all parties with written notice of a hearing at least 10 business days before the scheduled hearing date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written notice shall comply with State Government Article, §§10-207 and 10-208, Annotated Code of Maryland, and include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The date, time, and place of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A brief explanation of the allegations and issues;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Citations of relevant law or regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of COMAR 12.10.03.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Postponements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer may postpone a hearing upon a written request of any party, if the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Presiding officer receives the request at least 3 business days before the scheduled hearing date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Request establishes good cause for the postponement as determined by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Absent a postponement request, the presiding officer may postpone the hearing for good cause.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Presiding Officer—Duties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission chairman, or a designee, shall be the presiding officer who shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be in charge of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Permit the examination of witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Rule on the admissibility of evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Decide the order in which parties may testify, present evidence, or present argument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Adjourn or recess the hearing from time to time;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Decide if a party is required to submit a written brief or motion supporting the party's position and establish deadlines for submissions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing if a majority of the Commission is not present; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Maintain a record of the hearing as required under State Government Article, §10-218, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall determine that a party:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has been informed of the nature of the proceedings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Understands the language and intent of these regulations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is cognizant of the rights under applicable statutes upon which the subject of the hearing is conducted as well as rights under these regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the presiding officer is not satisfied that a party is fully informed as to these matters, the presiding officer shall note this on the record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer, when deciding the case or issuing an order pursuant to the provisions of these regulations and of law, shall inform the party of the right to appeal a decision or order and the methods and procedures for making that appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The presiding officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Examine witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Call witnesses; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request the Office of the Attorney General to provide counsel to the Commission and to Commission staff who may be presenting evidence at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Attendance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a party fails to appear for the hearing and the presiding officer has reason to believe the party received notice of the hearing, the presiding officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Proceed with the hearing based on the information available; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Reschedule the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may waive the right to appear for the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Hearing Procedures—Testimony and Evidence."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The introduction of evidence at a hearing shall comport with procedures under State Government Article, §10-213, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When a party is represented by counsel, only counsel may submit evidence, question witnesses, and file objections, exceptions, and motions on behalf of the party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A party testifying shall be under oath administered by an individual authorized by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer shall require the following oath be used: “Do you solemnly swear or affirm under the penalties of perjury that the responses given and statements made will be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth?”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The burden of proof shall be on the party bringing the issue before the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The standard of proof shall be a preponderance of evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A party may submit a brief, or the presiding officer may order that a brief be submitted, concerning the issues of fact and law involved in the hearing. The presiding officer shall determine:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The form, for the brief; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submission deadlines.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Decisions and Orders."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A decision by the Commission shall be made by a majority of the members present at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall prepare the Commission's final decision and order in writing that includes findings of fact and conclusions of law that are based exclusively on testimony, evidence, and other matters that are a part of the hearing record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commission shall deliver or mail a copy of the decision and order and accompanying findings and conclusions to each party or the party's counsel of record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Unless specified otherwise, orders of the presiding officer or the Commission shall be immediately implemented.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Request for Reconsideration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A party may request reconsideration of a final decision by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for reconsideration shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be received by the presiding officer issuing the decision not later than 10 days after receipt of the final decision or order by the party or the party's counsel of record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>State in detail the grounds for the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within a reasonable period following receipt of the request for reconsideration, the presiding officer, with input from the Commission members hearing the case, shall either grant or deny the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer shall mail the decision on the request for reconsideration under §C of this regulation to the individual making the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>At the discretion of the Commission, a request for reconsideration may stay enforcement of the order until disposition of the request or subsequent action based on that request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Submitting a request for reconsideration does not stay the time requirements for filing an appeal.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Transcription of Hearing Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission is not required to provide a transcript of the hearing record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A party may obtain a complete or partial transcript if the party:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Makes a written request for transcription to the presiding officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Agrees to pay the costs of and make arrangements for transcription.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Judicial Appeal."> <text>A party aggrieved by the Commission's final decision, or by an interlocutory order, is entitled to judicial review as provided in State Government Article, §10-222, Annotated Code of Maryland, or any other applicable provision of law.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 15, 1981 (8:10 Md. R. 878)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 22, 2004 (31:23 Md. R. 1654)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Firearms Training"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes Commission firearms training requirements for a firearms qualified employee regulated by the Commission for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Authorization to use or carry a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Commission Requirements are Minimum Requirements. An employer may adopt more stringent requirements for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This chapter does not apply to a firearm that discharges a projectile that is not intended to cause death that the employer has authorized a firearms qualified employee to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Academy” means a college, school, training unit, or training facility approved or certified by the Commission under this chapter or COMAR 12.10.01 to conduct entrance-level and other training programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Classroom instruction” means training conducted in a traditional educational setting; for example, in a room with desks, chairs, books, paper, and other educational tools or equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Classroom instruction” does not include training conducted on a firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Correctional Training Commission, its officers, and its employees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Course of fire” means a sequence of activities related to the actual discharge of a firearm on a firing line for training or qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Course of fire” does not include classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Day-fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Day-fire” means firearms training or qualification, or both, conducted during normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dawn and dusk.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Day-fire” includes the indoor equivalent or other lighting conditions that simulate normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dawn and dusk.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or, the Deputy Director’s designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Entrance-level” means initial classroom instruction, training, or qualification with a firearm regardless of experience or training with a different type of firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Firearms qualified employee” means an individual who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is subject to regulation by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is authorized by the individual’s employer to use or carry a firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Meets the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Firearm” means a pistol, revolver, or long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Firearm provisional instructor” means an individual certified by the Commission in that instructor classification according to requirements established under COMAR 12.10.06.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Firearms instructor” means an individual certified by the Commission in that instructor classification according to requirements established under COMAR 12.10.06.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Firing line” means those areas and positions from which an individual actually discharges a firearm with live ammunition for training or qualification, or both, as part of a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Firing Line Controller.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firing line controller” means the line instructor or firearms instructor responsible for issuing commands on a firing line during firearms training and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firing line controller” includes a line instructor or firearms instructor actually on the firing line or in a structure overseeing the firearms training and qualification conducted on the firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Handgun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Revolver.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Judgmental or decision training” means instruction and skills development conducted in the classroom, using firearms simulation, or on a firing line, to enable an individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Differentiate between threat levels; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Respond appropriately to an identified threat.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Line Instructor” means an individual certified by the Commission in that instructor classification according to requirements established under COMAR 12.10.06.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Long gun” means a firearm designed to be fired from the shoulder.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Long gun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Type 1 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Type 2 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Type 3 long gun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Type 4 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Optical Sighting Device.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” means a mechanism that assists an individual in sighting a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” does not include an iron sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Pistol” means a handgun that operates semi-automatically:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discharging a single round of ammunition with a pull of the trigger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Clearing the chamber of the spent casing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loading the next round of ammunition in the chamber.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Power” means a measurement used to describe levels of visual magnification, with a number representing the level of magnification above the normal visual range.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Qualification” means proficiency testing by discharging a firearm on a Commission-approved course of fire to receive a score that the Commission measures against established requirements to determine if the individual is authorized to use or carry a specific firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>Reduced Light.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Reduced light” means the normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dusk and dawn.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Reduced light” includes simulated natural outdoor lighting conditions such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Artificial light to simulate natural reduced lighting conditions; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Goggles, headgear, or an apparatus worn to cover the eyes designed to reduce the availability of light to simulate natural reduced lighting conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Revolver” means a handgun that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fires a single round of ammunition with each pull of the trigger; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has a cylinder containing additional rounds of ammunition that rotates to position the next round of ammunition for firing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Strong hand” means the hand:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>On the same side of the body where an individual normally carries a handgun in a holster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That the individual would primarily use to discharge a handgun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Training” means a demonstration or an exercise, in addition to classroom instruction, provided by an individual certified under COMAR 12.10.06, to enhance understanding, proficiency, marksmanship, and other skills related to proper firearm use and tactics such as movement, multiple targets, judgmental or decision training, and use of cover and concealment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Training” may include drills that involve discharging rounds.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Type 1 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Type 2 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use other than as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Type 3 long gun” means a long gun without an optical sighting device, or with an optical device of 4 power or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” means a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun that is designed to discharge a single projectile or multiple projectiles from a single round of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” includes a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun regardless of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Use of an optical sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Weak hand” means the hand that is not considered the strong hand.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="General Requirements — Authorized Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification, and Firing Line Supervision."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements — General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee may not use or carry a firearm unless:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The firearm is approved by the firearms qualified employee’s employer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The firearms qualified employee’s employer authorizes the firearms qualified employee to use or carry the firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The firearms qualified employee successfully completes the applicable firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for the firearm established under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All rounds required to be discharged by this chapter shall be fired with only one finger on the trigger.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a firearm becomes defective or unavailable to a firearms qualified employee during firearms training or qualification, a substitute firearm may be used for the firearms training or qualification if the substitute firearm is the same type, model, manufacture, caliber, and barrel length as the defective or unavailable firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For an individual to be initially authorized to use or carry a firearm, except a firearm for which authorization is provided through conversion under Regulation .09 of this chapter, the individual shall successfully complete entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this chapter for the firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The individual may complete the entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>As a part of entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification required by COMAR 12.10.01; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Independent of the entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification required by COMAR 12.10.01.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Commission firearms training objectives required for the entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification are available from the Commission upon written request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Firing Line Supervision Requirements — General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At least one firearms provisional instructor, line instructor, or firearms instructor shall be present for every five or fewer individuals on the firing line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If more than one firearms provisional instructor, line instructor, or firearms instructor is required to be present, the individual responsible for the firearms training and qualification shall designate a firearms instructor or line instructor to supervise the firing line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If more than 15 individuals are on the firing line:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual responsible for the firearms training and qualification shall assign a firing line controller; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The firing line controller may not be counted as part of the one-to-five ratio required under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If an individual has met the requirements of this chapter to be a firearms qualified employee but has not met the annual firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification under Regulation .08 of this chapter for three or more consecutive years, the individual shall successfully complete the entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification before being authorized to carry or use a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification — Approval and Minimum Hours.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commission Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Written approval by the Commission is required for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An academy or employer of a firearms qualified employee requesting approval shall submit the request to the Commission 20 days before the academy or employer plans to start the firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The minimum hours required for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Only include the actual hours of firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Do not include meals and breaks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification — Handgun."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A firearms qualified employee shall successfully complete the minimum requirements for entrance-level handgun classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this regulation before using or carrying a handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Minimum entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a handgun include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>35 hours of classroom instruction, training, and qualification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under Entrance-Level Handgun Training in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The following activities conducted over a minimum of three separate calendar days:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firearms training exercises; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A course of fire for qualification scoring that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Three successive day-fire courses of fire; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>One reduced light course of fire;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Use of ammunition authorized by the individual's employer, or the ballistic equivalent when firing for qualification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Discharging a minimum of 1,000 rounds of ammunition for firearms training and qualification collectively; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The course of fire requirements outlined in the table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Course of Fire Requirements for Handgun Qualification."> <text>The following are minimum entrance-level, annual, and conversion courses of fire requirements for handgun qualification:</text> <text>Type of Requirement Handgun Day-Fire Required Course ofFire for Qualification HandgunReduced Light RequiredCourse of Fire for Qualification (1) Rounds to be discharged with one finger on the trigger Minimum of 30 rounds on each course of fire Minimum of 30 rounds on the course of fire (2) Minimum passing score 70 percent on each of the three successive courses of fire 70 percent (3) Target description Depiction of human torso or silhouette marked to indicate scoring values in a maximum scoring area of 725 square inches Depiction of human torso or silhouette marked to indicate scoring values in a maximum scoring area of 725 square inches (4) Required percentages of rounds to be fired, and required firing distances A minimum of 10 percent, but not more than 40 percent, of the course of fire rounds shall be discharged at each of the following four range of distances: (a) Less than 5 yards; (b) 5 yards to less than 10 yards; (c) 10 to less than 25 yards; and (d) 25 yards or farther. A minimum of 10 percent, but no more than 40 percent, of the course of fire rounds shall be discharged at each of the following three range of distances: (a) Less than 5 yards; (b) 5 yards to less than 15 yards; and (c) 15 yards or farther (5) Maximum time permitted per round of ammunition fired at specified distances (a) 2 seconds per round when firing at less than 5 yards; (b) 3 seconds per round when firing at 5 yards to less than 10 yards; (c) 4 seconds per round when firing at 10 yards to less than 25 yards; (d) 5 seconds per round when firing at 25 yards, or farther (a) 2 seconds per round when firing at less than 5 yards; (b) 3 seconds per round when firing at 5 yards to less than 15 yards; (c) 4 seconds per round when firing at 15 yards, or farther (6) Maximum time permitted to move from one specified firing position to the next 5 seconds 5 seconds (7) Maximum time permitted for each instance of reloading the handgun during the course of fire Revolver - 17 secondsPistol - 8 seconds Revolver - 17 secondsPistol - 8 seconds (8) Minimum requirements for holding the handgun while discharging rounds during the course of fire (a) Strong hand supported by weak hand; (b) Strong hand with no support; (c) Weak hand supported by strong hand; and (d) Weak hand with no support (a) Strong hand supported by weak hand; (b) Strong hand with no support; (c) Weak hand supported by strong hand; and (d) Weak hand with no support (9) Minimum body positions from which rounds are to be fired during the course of fire (a) Standing; (b) Kneeling; and (c) Two different positions from barricade (a) Standing; and (b) Kneeling (10) Supplemental lighting conditions suggested during course of fire Not Applicable At least one of the following: (a) Flares; (b) Street lights; (c) Vehicle lights; (d) Flashlights; (e) Vehicle emergency lights; or (f) Alternate lighting source</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Entrance-Level Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification — Long Guns."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall successfully complete the minimum requirements for entrance-level long gun classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this regulation before using or carrying a long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The minimum requirements for entrance-level long gun classroom instruction, training, and qualification include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under the column for Entrance-Level Long Gun Training on the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The following total hours of long gun classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, 35 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, 35 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, 14 hours; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 long gun, 7 hours;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Discharging the following number of rounds of ammunition at a target for training and qualification for a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, 150 rounds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, 350 rounds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, 350 rounds; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 long gun, 50 rounds; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Successfully completing qualification requirements on a day-fire course of fire for the specific type of long gun established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following table establishes minimum requirements for entrance-level, annual, and conversion courses of fire for Type 1 through Type 4 long gun qualification:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Automatic Firing Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a long gun is capable of discharging more than a single round of ammunition with a single pull of the trigger, entrance-level long gun qualification requires the individual to discharge additional rounds of ammunition in the automatic mode from a distance of 3 to 10 yards at a separate target.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The number of additional rounds of ammunition for a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun is 5; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 or 3 long gun is 20.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Successful completion requires a minimum score of 80 percent on each target.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Annual Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Requirements — All Firearms.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>During each calendar year, a firearms qualified employee shall successfully complete the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction for each firearm type that the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms training for each firearm that the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms qualification for each firearm that the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annual Firearms Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee shall complete a minimum of two hours of firearms classroom instruction as part of the requirements established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms classroom instruction shall include the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” under Annual Firearms Training in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Commission may accept up to 2 hours of a firearms qualified employee’s annual firearms classroom instruction as part of a firearms qualified employee’s annual in-service training required under COMAR 12.10.01.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Annual Firearms Training and Qualification Requirements — Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Required Firearms Training — Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee shall annually discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition approved by the firearms qualified employee’s employing agency, or the ballistic equivalent, for training with the handgun designated by the firearms qualified employee’s employer for the employee to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Training drills to improve the firearms qualified employee’s skills may be incorporated into a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Training may not include practicing the actual course of fire used for firearms qualification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire for Qualification — Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For each handgun a firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry, with one finger on the trigger the firearms qualified employee shall discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition using ammunition authorized by the firearms qualified employee’s employer, or the ballistic equivalent, on each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>One day-fire course of fire; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>One reduced light course of fire.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms qualified employee annual course of fire for qualification consists of requirements 3—10 in the Course of Fire Requirements for Handgun table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A minimum score of 70 percent is required on both a day-fire and a reduced light course of fire for qualification for each handgun for which annual certification renewal is required for a firearms qualified employee by COMAR 12.10.01.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Annual Firearms Training and Qualification Requirements — Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms training for each long gun a firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry consists of demonstrations to familiarize a firearms qualified employee with the nomenclature, operation, safety, care, and cleaning of the specific long gun type.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire for Annual Long Gun Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During each calendar year, a firearms qualified employee authorized to use or carry a specific type of long gun shall successfully complete the course of fire requirements for qualification for the specific long gun, as described in this subsection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 1 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a firearms qualified employee to successfully complete four courses of fire for qualification, one during each quarter of a calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification table under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 2 and Type 3 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a firearms qualified employee to successfully complete two courses of fire for qualification, one during each half of the calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the Course of Fire Requirements for Long Gun Qualification table under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun Qualification. Annual firearms qualification requires a firearms qualified employee to successfully complete one course of fire for qualification, each calendar year, for the specific type of long gun the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry according to the requirements established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Reporting Firearm Qualification Scores to the Commission. By January 31 of the calendar year immediately following firearms qualification, the employer of a firearms qualified employee shall submit to the Commission the firearms qualified employee’s required firearms qualification score for each firearm the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Failure to Meet Commission Annual Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a firearms qualified employee fails to successfully complete Commission annual firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements for an authorized firearm within a calendar year, the firearms qualified employee’s employer:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall remove the firearm, or authorization to use or carry the firearm if personally owned, from the firearms qualified employee by January 1 of the next calendar year; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not return the firearm to or authorize the firearms qualified employee to use or carry a firearm until the employee successfully completes the appropriate firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failure to Qualify with a Firearm.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee who fails an annual firearms qualification required under Regulation .08 of this chapter shall successfully complete qualification within:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>30 consecutive calendar days of the initial attempt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The same calendar year as the initial attempt.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If a firearms qualified employee does not successfully meet qualification requirements within the period established under §E(2)(a) of this regulation, the firearms qualified employee’s employer shall immediately:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Report to the Commission the firearms qualified employee's failure to qualify;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Require the firearms qualified employee to surrender the firearm to the employer, if it was issued by the employer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Withdraw the firearms qualified employee’s authority to use or carry the firearm for which the employee has not successfully met the qualification requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee may not use or carry a firearm that has been surrendered or for which authority to carry or use has been withdrawn, except during supervised training to meet the firearms qualified employee’s annual firearms training and qualification for the firearm required under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Firearms Conversion — Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A firearms qualified employee who has successfully completed entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a specific type of firearm and is required or requesting to use or carry a firearm of a different type shall successfully complete:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements established under this regulation for the different firearm type; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Entrance-level classroom instruction, training, and qualification established under this chapter for the different firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A firearms qualified employee shall successfully complete firearms conversion requirements under this regulation before being authorized to use or carry a different type of firearm if the firearms qualified employee is currently authorized to use or carry a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Handgun type and is seeking authorization to use or carry a handgun of a different type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, and is seeking authorization to use or carry a Type 2 or 3 long gun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, and is seeking authorization to use or carry a Type 3 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Firearms Conversion Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification for Handgun and Long Gun within the Same Type.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C(2) of this regulation, a firearms qualified employee is not required to complete firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification under this regulation before the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry a handgun or a long gun that is the same type that the firearms qualified employee is currently authorized to use or carry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee is required to complete firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification under this regulation before the firearms qualified employee is authorized to use or carry a handgun or a long gun that is the same type that the firearms qualified employee is currently authorized to use or carry if the firearms qualified employee’s employer determines:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>There is a difference in operation between the firearms; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification are warranted to ensure safe and effective use of the firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Handgun Conversion — Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a firearms qualified employee is required to complete conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification according to §B or C(2) of this regulation, the firearms qualified employee shall successfully complete:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For a different type handgun, the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” for Handgun Conversion Training — Different Type Handgun in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a handgun within the same type, the classroom instruction topics marked with an “X” for Handgun Conversion Training — Within a Handgun Type in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a firearms qualified employee is required to complete firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification according to §B or C(2) of this regulation, with one finger on the trigger the firearms qualified employee shall discharge a minimum of 30 rounds of ammunition for each course of fire required for conversion qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ammunition used for a required course of fire for conversion qualification shall be ammunition that is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Authorized by the firearms qualified employee’s employer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The ballistic equivalent of the ammunition authorized by the firearms qualified employee’s employer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The required course of fire for firearms conversion qualification shall be completed according to requirements 3 through 10 of the table under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The following are minimum requirements for firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for handgun conversion:</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Long Gun Authorization for which Conversion Training is Permitted.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before a firearms qualified employee may participate in firearms conversion classroom instruction, training, and qualification for a long gun, the firearms qualified employee shall currently be authorized to use or carry a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Type 1 long gun, if conversion is for another Type 1 long gun, a type 2 long gun, or a type 3 long gun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Type 2 long gun, if conversion is for another Type 2 long gun or a type 3 long gun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Type 3 long gun, if conversion is for another Type 3 long gun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee converting from one type of long gun to another type of long gun not listed under §E(1) of this regulation shall successfully complete entrance-level firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification for the long gun to which the firearms qualified employee is converting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Long Gun Conversion — Firearms Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Long gun conversion classroom instruction shall, at a minimum, include the Classroom Instruction Topics marked with an “X” under Firearms Conversion Training — Long Gun in the table under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Long gun conversion firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification shall, at a minimum, meet the applicable criteria in the following table:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The course of fire for long gun conversion qualification shall meet the requirements specified for the type of long gun established in the table under Regulation .07A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Crediting Firearms Conversion Classroom Instruction, Training, and Qualification Toward Annual Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A firearms qualified employee’s employer may use the following conversion training toward a firearms qualified employee’s annual firearms classroom instruction, training, and qualification requirements for the specific firearm used in the conversion training conducted in the same calendar year:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One day-fire conversion qualification score; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One reduced light conversion qualification score.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If firearms conversion classroom instruction is less than 14 hours, a firearms qualified employee’s employer may use a maximum of 2 hours of the firearms conversion classroom instruction toward meeting a firearms qualified employee’s annual firearms classroom instruction requirements in the same calendar year the conversion training was conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If firearms conversion classroom instruction is 14 hours or more, a firearms qualified employee’s employer may use a maximum of 6 hours of the firearms conversion classroom instruction toward meeting a firearms qualified employee’s annual firearms classroom instruction requirements for the same calendar year the conversion training was conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Firearms Classroom Instruction Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The table in §B of this regulation establishes minimum required firearms classroom instruction topics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An “X” in the following table indicates that the corresponding firearms classroom instruction topic is required for the specified type of training:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Legal aspects in the use of firearms, at a minimum, shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Rules for the use of deadly force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Alternatives to the use of deadly force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Emotional, mental, and psychological preparation needed for the possibility of a deadly force shooting situation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training on the use of deadly force; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Criminal, civil, and administrative liability for misuse of deadly force.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Safe handling and safe storage of firearms, at a minimum, shall address safe handling and safe storage in the following settings:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At home;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In a correctional or detention facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>On the firing line; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>In the course of official duties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, Title 8, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: October 20, 1997 (24:21 Md. R. 1451)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 repealed and new Regulations .01—.31 adopted effective July 1, 2001 (28:12 Md. R. 1111)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .20 B, C amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1333)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.31 repealed and new Regulations .01—.10 adopted effective January 1, 2013 (39:16 Md. R.1081)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Electronic Control Device Training"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Annual in-service training curriculum” means a course of study approved by the Commission that meets the requirements established for electronic control device classroom instruction, written examination, and practical exercise and is conducted as part of mandated employee in-service training and firearms qualification under COMAR 12.10.01.16.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commission” means the Correctional Training Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Correctional officer” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Correctional unit” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Electronic control device” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-109, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Initial training course curriculum” means a course of study approved by the Commission that meets the requirements established for electronic control device classroom instruction, written examination, and practical exercise that an individual shall successfully complete before the individual may be authorized to carry or use an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Minimum Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes minimum correctional officer training requirements related to the use of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional unit may adopt correctional officer training requirements related to use of an electronic control device in addition to Commission requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A correctional officer may not carry or use an electronic control device as part of the correctional officer's official duties before the correctional officer's correctional unit has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approved each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device used as part of the correctional officer's duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Certified to the Commission, on forms or in a manner determined by the Commission, that the correctional officer has successfully completed Commission training requirements established under this chapter for each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device approved by the correctional unit, which, at a minimum, include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classroom instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A written examination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Practical exercises demonstrating proficiency in the use of the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Determined that the correctional officer has received adequate training demonstrating the ability to safely and effectively use each specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device the correctional officer is authorized to carry or use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Correctional Officer Electronic Control Device Initial Training Course Curriculum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional officer is not required to complete an electronic control device initial training course curriculum under this regulation if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The correctional officer's authorization to use a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device is in effect on September 30, 2009 and the correctional unit has determined the correctional officer has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Received adequate training on the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Demonstrated the ability to safely and effectively use the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The correctional officer has been authorized to carry or use a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device under §A(1) of this regulation and is seeking authorization to carry or use a different manufacturer's model of an electronic control device that the correctional officer's correctional unit has approved and determined:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>There are no significant operational differences between the current and new manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That the correctional officer has:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Received adequate training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Demonstrated the ability to safely and effectively use the new manufacturer's model of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except under §A of this regulation, a correctional officer shall successfully complete a Commission-approved initial training course curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device before the officer is authorized to carry or use a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device as part of the correctional officer's official duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A correctional officer is required to complete an initial training course curriculum if after successfully completing an initial training course curriculum, the correctional officer has not been authorized to carry or use the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 2 years of completing an initial training course curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For 2 or more years and the correctional officer has not met the annual in-service training curriculum requirement for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Initial training course curriculum requirements may be completed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As part of correctional officer entrance-level training under COMAR 12.10.01.09; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Independent of correctional officer entrance-level training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Electronic Control Device Annual In-Service Training Curriculum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional officer authorized to use or carry a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device shall successfully complete annual in-service training curriculum for the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional officer who successfully completes an initial training course curriculum for a specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device during a calendar year is not required to complete an annual in-service training curriculum for the same specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device until the next calendar year.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Electronic Control Device Training Content Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Minimum Commission-Approved Classroom Instruction Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Only a Commission-certified electronic control device instructor may conduct Commission-approved electronic control device classroom training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Initial training course curriculum and annual in-service curriculum electronic control device classroom instruction, at a minimum, shall include the following topics related to the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device for which the correctional officer is to be authorized to carry or use:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Electronic control device:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Nomenclature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Characteristics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Capabilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Limitations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Maintenance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Operational principles and technology; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Proper electronic control device use addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Correctional unit policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency and other protocols;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Judgment and decision making;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Legal considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Physiological and psychological effects;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Target zones;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Side effects and individuals with an elevated risk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>After-care measures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Defensive measures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Potential collateral occurrences; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Safety of transport, storage, and use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A correctional officer shall achieve a minimum passing score of 70 percent on a written examination that tests a correctional officer's comprehension of the topics required under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Minimum Commission-Approved Practical Exercise Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Only a Commission-certified electronic control device instructor may conduct Commission-approved electronic control device practical exercises.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Initial and annual in-service electronic control device practical exercise, at a minimum, requires that a correctional officer demonstrate skills related to the proper use of the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device the correctional officer carries or uses as part of official duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If applicable to the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, a correctional officer, at a minimum, shall demonstrate proficiency related to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Operational and functionality checks of the device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transition between a firearm and other tactical equipment and the electronic control device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Proper carrying and handling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Loading and reloading;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Restraint of an individual subjected to the device; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Discharge, if the device is capable of discharging a projectile.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Discharge Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During an initial training course curriculum with the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, each correctional officer shall discharge the device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>During annual in-service training curriculum with the specific manufacturer's model of an electronic control device, the discharge requirement may be met by the instructor discharging the device to demonstrate to two or more correctional officers, rather than each correctional officer personally discharging the device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 8-208; Public Safety Article §3-207; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 1, 2010 (36:26 Md. R. 1996)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective September 6, 2010 (37:18 Md. R. 1214); January 1, 2013 (39:16 Md. R. 1081)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective December 11, 2014 (41:24 Md. R. 1428)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective February 17, 2014 (41:3 Md. R. 202)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 repealed effective September 2, 2013 (40:17 Md. R. 1420)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Instructor Training and Certification"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Correctional Training Commission or a representative authorized to act on behalf of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Correctional unit” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Course of Fire.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Course of fire” means a sequence of activities related to the actual discharge of a firearm on a firing line for training or qualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Course of fire” does not include firearm classroom instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Day fire” has the meaning stated under COMAR 12.10.04.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Department of Juvenile Services” means the State agency established under Human Services Article, §9-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Deputy Director” means the Deputy Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions, or the Deputy Director’s designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Police and Correctional Training Commissions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Firearm” means a pistol, revolver, or long gun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Firearm Classroom Instruction.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firearm classroom instruction” means training conducted in a traditional educational setting; for example, in a room with desks, chairs, books, paper, and other educational tools or equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firearm classroom instruction” does not include training conducted on a firing line.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Firing line” means an area and position from which an individual actually discharges a firearm with live ammunition for firearms training or qualification, or both, as part of a course of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Firearms Training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Firearms training” means a demonstration or an exercise, in addition to firearm classroom instruction, that is provided:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>By an individual certified under Regulation .11 of this chapter or COMAR 12.04.06 to perform firearm classroom instruction, conduct firearms training or qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>To enhance understanding, proficiency, marksmanship, and other skills related to proper firearm use and tactics, such as movement, multiple targets, judgmental or decision training, and use of cover and concealment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Firearms training” may include drills that involve discharging rounds of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Firearm type” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The following handguns:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Revolver; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The following long guns:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shotgun; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Long gun other than a shotgun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Handgun” includes a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pistol; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Revolver.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Inactive Status.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inactive status” means a situation in which an individual, who continues to be employed by or under the supervision of a correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services, is temporarily relieved of duties with the correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or Department of Juvenile Services for 30 consecutive days or more for:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A medical or administrative reason that prevents the individual from completing Commission-required training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The purpose of suspending Commission-required training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inactive status” does not affect an individual’s instructor certification or eligibility for provisional certification or certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Judgmental or decision training” means instruction and skills development conducted in the classroom, using firearms simulation, or on a firing line, to enable an individual to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Differentiate between threat levels; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Respond appropriately to an identified threat.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Optical Sighting Device.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” means a mechanism that assists an individual in sighting a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Optical sighting device” does not include an iron sight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Pistol” means a handgun that operates semi-automatically:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Discharging a single round of ammunition with a pull of the trigger;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Clearing the chamber of the spent casing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Loading the next round of ammunition in the chamber.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Power” means a measurement used to describe levels of visual magnification, with a number representing the level of magnification above the normal visual range.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Qualification” as used in Regulations .11, .14, and .15 of this chapter means proficiency testing by discharging a firearm on a Commission-approved course of fire to receive a score that the Commission measures against established requirements to determine if the individual meets provisions required under this chapter for certification as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>Reduced Light.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Reduced light” means the normal outdoor lighting conditions that exist between dusk and dawn.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Reduced light” includes simulated natural outdoor lighting conditions such as:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Artificial light; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Goggles, headgear, or an apparatus worn to cover the eyes designed to reduce the availability of light to simulate natural reduced lighting conditions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Revolver” means a handgun that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fires a single round of ammunition with each pull of the trigger; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has a cylinder containing additional rounds of ammunition that rotates to position the next round of ammunition for firing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Term of certification” means the dates during which an individual’s certification for an instructor classification is in effect.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Training authority” means an individual of a correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services who is authorized by the correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services to submit under provisions of this chapter an application for any of the following for another individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal of instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Termination of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Exemption from instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Waiver of certain requirements for instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Training provider” means an entity that has Commission approval to conduct a training course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Type 1 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Type 2 long gun” means a long gun with an optical sighting device greater than 4 power intended for use other than as a counter-sniper firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Type 3 long gun” means a long gun without an optical sighting device, or with an optical device of 4 power or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>Type 4 Long Gun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” means a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun that is designed to discharge a single projectile or multiple projectiles from a single round of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Type 4 long gun” includes a long gun manufactured and sold as a shotgun regardless of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Use of an optical sighting device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Instructor Certification Classifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission provides instructor certification in accordance with this chapter for the following instructor classifications:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Academic Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Academic Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Electronic Control Device Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Line Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Firearms Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification Required.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Unless exempt under Regulation .04 of this chapter, an individual who provides instruction for a Commission-approved training course that is credited toward the Commission’s requirements for mandated employee certification under COMAR 12.10 shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certified by the Commission or the Police Training Commission as an instructor for the type of instruction the individual is providing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In compliance with applicable Commission regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual’s instructor certification for a specific instructor classification limits the individual to providing the type of instruction prescribed for the instructor classification established under Regulation .15 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Selection Standards and Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Selection Standards for Instructor Certification. If an application is submitted to the Commission requesting certification of an individual for an instructor classification, at a minimum, the individual shall meet the following standards:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Possess a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>High school diploma issued by a high school or recognized by the State Board of Education; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>General Education Development (GED) certificate or diploma issued by Maryland or other state, or recognized by the State Board of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be currently employed by or providing instruction under the supervision of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A correctional unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Department of Juvenile Services;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Satisfies requirements of this chapter for the instructor classification for which instructor certification is requested; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Be in compliance with applicable Commission regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Application for Instructor Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual applying for instructor certification shall complete and sign a Commission instructor certification application for the requested instructor classification and submit the completed application to the training authority for the correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or Department of Juvenile Services that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Employs the individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Supervises where the individual provides instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not approve or sign the training authority’s own instructor certification application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a training authority approves an individual making application for instructor certification and determines that the individual requesting certification meets requirements under this chapter for instructor certification for the instructor classification requested, the training authority shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sign the application and submit the application to the Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide, with the application, documentation required by the Commission establishing that the individual requesting certification meets requirements under this chapter for the instructor classification for which certification is requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Instructor Previously Certified by the Police Training Commission. If an application for instructor certification is submitted to the Commission by a training authority for an individual who was previously certified as an instructor by the Police Training Commission no more than three years before the date of the application, the Commission may certify the individual as an instructor for the instructor classification formerly certified by the Police Training Commission, if the individual meets:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The selection standards under this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicable instructor renewal requirements under Regulation .13 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Additional criteria that the Commission may require.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Exemptions from Instructor Certification."> <text>Instructor Certification Exemptions.</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual who provides 3 hours or less of instruction for a Commission-approved training course is exempt from the requirement to have instructor certification required under this chapter if the individual does not provide instruction that is a part of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Defensive tactics training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Electronic control device training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Firearms training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Deputy Director, upon a written request from a training authority or training provider, may exempt the following from the instructor certification requirements under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual currently licensed or certified by the State or a nationally recognized organization, for the purpose of providing instruction in the subject matter related to the discipline in which the individual is licensed or certified;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A faculty member employed by an accredited college or university, for the purpose of providing instruction in the subject matter area for which the faculty member is employed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A currently certified emergency medical care or advanced first aid instructor, for the purpose of providing instruction related to emergency medical care or first aid; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Other individual who the Deputy Director determines to possess specialized skills or expertise for the purpose of providing instruction related to those skills or expertise.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own request for an exemption from instructor certification required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An exemption granted to an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permits the individual receiving the exemption to provide instruction for Commission-approved training for the purpose under §A(2) of this regulation for which the exemption was granted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Expires upon termination of the certification, license, or employment that is the basis for the exemption; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May be permanently revoked or temporarily suspended by the Deputy Director, as provided under Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Time Limits — Extension for Inactive Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following time limits may be extended by the amount of time that equals the length of time an individual is on inactive status:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The time for completion of an applicant’s evaluations prior to submitting an application for certification or renewal of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The time for completion of an applicant’s training program, instructor’s course or instruction prior to submitting an application for provisional certification, certification, or renewal of certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The time of an individual’s term of certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The time for completing a required firearms qualification course of fire.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Reporting Inactive Status to the Commission.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the request of an instructor, the training authority shall report the individual’s inactive status to the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority shall include in the report the date the individual is placed on inactive status and the date the inactive status ends.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Instructor Evaluation Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An evaluation of an individual required by this chapter for an instructor classification shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conducted on a separate occasion from other evaluations of the individual who is being evaluated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conducted by an individual who meets the requirements of this chapter or COMAR 12.04.06;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conducted while the individual being evaluated provides instruction for a course that is approved by the Commission or the Police Training Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Based on the personal observations, for a minimum of one hour, of the individual conducting the evaluation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Recorded, by the individual conducting the evaluation, on a form approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual may not conduct the individual’s own instructor classification evaluation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Commission may consider an unsatisfactory evaluation or commentary by an evaluator as grounds to deny instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Academic Instructor — Training Program, Evaluation Requirements and Waiver of Training Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, the Department of Juvenile Services, or training provider may conduct an Academic Instructor training program if the program is approved by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Not later than 20 working days before the proposed date for the start of an Academic Instructor training program, the correctional unit head, academy training director, Department of Juvenile Services official, or the training provider’s official supervising the Academic Instructor training program shall submit to the Commission the proposed Academic Instructor training program for approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following are minimum Academic Instructor training program requirements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual providing the Academic Instructor training shall be an Academic Instructor certified under this chapter or COMAR 12.04.06;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Academic Instructor training program shall include instruction on the following topics:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An introduction to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The basic concepts of learning and teaching;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The role of training in the criminal justice profession; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Classroom management techniques;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Effective speech techniques;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Preparation and use of audiovisual training aids;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Development of training objectives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Development of testing strategies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Identification of the purpose of a lesson plan and its components; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Practical preparation of mock classroom lesson plans.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An evaluation required for an Academic Instructor training program shall be conducted by an:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Academic Instructor, if the individual’s application is for Academic Instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Instructor who meets the requirements of this chapter to perform evaluations for the instructor classification for which the individual is applying for certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Waiver for an Individual to Complete the Academic Instructor Training Program Requirement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receiving a written application from a training authority, the Deputy Director may waive the requirement for an individual to complete the Academic Instructor training program if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is certified or licensed as an instructor by an agency of government or a non-governmental organization to provide instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is currently a Provisional Instructor for one of the instructor classifications under Regulation .02 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has received at least two acceptable Academic Instructor evaluations conducted in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter and §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own application for a waiver of the Academic Instructor training program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A training authority requesting a waiver of the Academic Instructor training program for an individual shall submit to the Deputy Director:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A completed Commission’s Application for Instructor Certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A written request that the requirement to complete the Academic Instructor training program be waived for the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Academic Instructor training program evaluations for the individual completed in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter and §D of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information the Deputy Director may request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Certification — Academic Provisional Instructor and Academic Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Academic Provisional Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Academic Provisional Instructor when the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has 1 year of employment experience in the public safety community; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Meets the selection standards under Regulation .03A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Academic Instructor. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Academic Instructor when the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A minimum of 2 years employment experience in the public safety community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completed, within 2 years before the date of the application, an approved Academic Instructor training program meeting the requirements of Regulation .07 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Received a minimum of two favorable instructor evaluations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Completed by an individual specified by Regulation .07D of this chapter within 2 years of the date of the application for certification:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conducted in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Conducted while the individual was providing instruction as an Academic Provisional Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Certification and Training Program — Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor and Defensive Tactics Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor Certification. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor if the individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Acquired a minimum of 2 cumulative years of criminal justice related defensive tactics skills experience during the 5-year period immediately before the date of the application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved Defensive Tactics Instructor training program not more than 2 years before the date of the application for Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor Certification. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Defensive Tactics Instructor when the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has successfully completed the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program that meets the requirements under Regulation .07 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except if granted a waiver under §C of this regulation, a Commission-approved Defensive Tactics Instructor training program before the date of the application for Defensive Tactics Instructor certification; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As a Defensive Tactics Provisional Instructor provided a minimum total of 12 hours of defensive tactics classroom and skills instruction under the direction of a Defensive Tactics Instructor that included a minimum of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Four hours of classroom instruction in the concepts and principles of defensive tactics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Eight hours of defensive tactics practical skills instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One satisfactory evaluation for each of the following, in accordance with Regulation .06 of this chapter, performed by a Defensive Tactics Instructor certified under this chapter or COMAR 12.04.06, while the individual was providing defensive tactics:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Classroom instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Skills instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon application by a training authority, the Deputy Director may waive the requirement under §§A(2) and B(2)(b) of this regulation that an individual complete the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program of this regulation if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Successfully completed a program that was a minimum of 35 hours in length and the equivalent of a Defensive Tactics Instructor training program that meets the requirements of §F(1)(c) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provides supporting evidence, such as copies of certifications or course curriculums, to document the applicant’s extensive knowledge and abilities in the skill areas specified in §F(1)(c) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A training authority may not submit the training authority’s own application for a waiver of the requirement to complete the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program required under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Deputy Director may limit the subject matter taught in a Defensive Tactics Training program by an individual who receives certification as a Defensive Tactics Instructor based on a waiver under §C of this regulation of the Defensive Tactics Instructor training program requirement under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor Training Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Defensive Tactics Instructor training program, at a minimum, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be approved by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be a minimum of 35 hours in length; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include the following topics:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Balance, awareness, and self-control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Impact weapons;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Weapon retention;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Disarming;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Vital points of the human anatomy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Control holds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Take-downs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Handcuffing and searching;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Escorting and Transporting an inmate or detainee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Use of force continuum;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xi)"> <text>Multiple adversaries; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(xii)"> <text>Ground-level defenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Successful completion of a Defensive Tactics Instructor training program, at a minimum, requires:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A minimum score of 80 percent on all written examinations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Satisfactory demonstration of practical skill elements required in the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission may approve a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Defensive Tactics Instructor training program that meets the requirements under this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A combination of defensive tactics training program courses that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>As determined by the Deputy Director, satisfactorily address the topics required under §F(1)(c) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is a minimum of 35 hours in length.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Certification — Electronic Control Device Instructor."> <text>A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as an Electronic Control Device Instructor if the individual seeking certification:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Is a correctional officer who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is authorized by the correctional officer’s employing agency to carry or use the specific manufacturer’s model of an electronic control device for which the individual, if granted certification, would provide instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has successfully completed a Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program that meets requirements under Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Is not a correctional officer, but has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved training course for the specific manufacturer’s model of an electronic control device for which the individual, if authorized, would provide instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Been determined by the Deputy Director to be qualified to provide electronic control device instruction based on the individual’s knowledge, skills, and abilities with the specific manufacturer’s model of electronic control device for which the individual, if authorized, would provide instruction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Certification — Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, and Firearms Instructor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Certification Requirements — General. A training authority may submit an application to the Commission for certification of an individual as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor when the individual meets the certification requirements established under this regulation for the particular instructor classification and has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Two or more years employment as a correctional officer or law enforcement officer within the last 5 years, during which employment the individual was authorized to use or carry a firearm for a minimum of 2 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 60 days immediately before the date of the application for instructor certification, successfully completed the qualification course of fire required by §D(5) of this regulation for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification Requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, and Firearms Instructor.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Firearms Provisional Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Within 2 years of the date of the application for Firearms Provisional Instructor, successfully completed classroom instruction, training, and the qualification course of fire required under §§D(2) and (3) of this regulation that was provided by:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A Commission-approved program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The United States Government or Armed Forces;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>National Rifle Association; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A firearms instructor school approved by the Deputy Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Line Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Line Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully completed the requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor certification established under §B(1) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual while providing firearms firing line training and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Provided firearms firing line training and qualification instruction that is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A minimum of 8 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provided for Commission-approved courses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Supervised by a Line Instructor or Firearms Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Provided for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting Line Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Firearms Instructor Certification Requirements. Before an individual may be certified as a Firearms Instructor, the Commission requires, at a minimum, that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets requirements established under §A of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Successfully completed a Commission-approved Academic Instructor training program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual providing firearms classroom instruction during the Academic Instructor training program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Successfully provided at least 4 hours of firearms classroom instruction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Received at least two satisfactory evaluations performed by a Firearms Instructor for the individual while providing firearms firing line training and qualification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Is currently a Commission-certified Line Instructor, or a Commission-certified Firearms Provisional Instructor who has successfully provided firearms firing line training and qualification instruction that has been:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A minimum of 8 hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Provided for a Commission-approved course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Supervised by a Line Instructor or Firearms Instructor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Provided for the firearm type for which the individual is requesting Firearms Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Experience Accepted by the Commission for Training Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may accept documented firearms-related experience toward meeting the minimum training requirements for Firearms Provisional Instructor, Line Instructor, or Firearms Instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Examples of documented firearms-related experience that the Commission may accept include military training or counter sniper training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Classroom Instruction, Firearms Training, and Firearms Qualification Course of Fire Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Firearms classroom instruction and firearms training and qualification course of fire required by this regulation shall be approved by the Commission before being conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The following establishes minimum requirements for classroom instruction and firearms training and qualification course of fire for the certification of instructor classifications under this regulation:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Firearms Provisional Instructor classroom instruction shall meet the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation, and at a minimum include instruction on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firearms safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Firearms nomenclature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Firearms fundamentals and marksmanship;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Firearms cleaning and maintenance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The problem shooter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Target analysis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Ballistics;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Legal issues concerning the use of force;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Deadly force policy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Reduced light discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Emotional, mental, and psychological issues related to critical incidents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Commission policy and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Malfunctions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Exposure to or practical application of, or both:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Designing a course of fire;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Lesson plan development; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Classroom presentations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Firearms training shall meet the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation, and at a minimum, include exposure to and practical application of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firing line operations, that include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Instruction on the firing line; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Instruction from a location overseeing the firing line;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Malfunction drills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Stress training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Judgmental or decision training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Range preparation and cleanup;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Scoring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Target analysis;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Safety; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Marksmanship fundamentals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An individual seeking instructor certification under this regulation shall successfully complete one firearms qualification course of fire that meets the requirements established under §D(2) of this regulation for each firearm type for which the individual is seeking instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An individual seeking instructor certification under this regulation shall successfully meet:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For a handgun, requirements 3 — 9 of the “Handgun Day-Fire Required Course of Fire for Qualification” in the table under COMAR 12.10.04.05;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For a particular type long gun, requirements 3 — 7 of the table under COMAR 12.10.04.07.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Expiration of Instructor Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual’s instructor certification expires:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At the conclusion of the individual’s term of certification established under Regulation .15B of this chapter for the individual’s instructor classification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the individual leaves employment with the correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services on behalf of which the training authority submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the training authority for the correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services that submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification requests that the individual’s instructor certification be terminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual’s term of certification may not expire while the individual is on inactive status.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Renewal of Instructor Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewal of provisional instructor certification for an instructor classification may be granted by the Deputy Director as provided under Regulation .15 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except for provisional instructor, renewal of instructor certification for an instructor classification may be granted by the Commission as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an individual’s instructor certification has been expired for more than 3 years, the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall successfully complete the instructor certification requirements of this chapter for the instructor classification applied for in order to receive certification for that instructor classification; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon approval by the Commission, may receive certification renewal for the expired instructor classification if the individual successfully completes a program of selected aspects of the instructor classification’s certification requirements designated by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an individual’s instructor certification expires because the individual leaves employment or ceases to provide instruction under the supervision of a correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services that submitted the application for the individual’s instructor certification and subsequently is employed by or provides instruction under the supervision of another correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services whose training authority submits an application for renewal of the individual’s instructor certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>More than 90 days before the date that the individual’s term of certification expires, the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual is not required to meet the requirements of Regulation .14 of this chapter to receive the certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Commission shall establish a new term of certification for the individual that does not exceed 12 months from the expiration date of the individual’s most recent term of certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>90 days or less before expiration of the term of certification or 3 years or less after the expiration of the term of certification, the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual shall meet requirements established under Regulation .14 of this chapter to receive renewal of certification for the instructor classification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Certification renewal, if granted, shall be for a new term of certification established under Regulation .15B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If an instructor certification is due to expire or has expired at the conclusion of the term of certification, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Training authority shall submit an application for renewal of the instructor certification to the Commission not sooner than 90 days before the term of certification expires and, if certification has expired, not later than 3 years after the term of certification expired;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual is required to meet the instructor certification requirements under Regulation .14 of this chapter to renew instructor certification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Individual’s instructor certification shall be renewed for a new term of certification established under Regulation .15B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Instructor Certification Renewal Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission may renew an individual’s certification for an instructor classification if the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Individual meets requirements under this chapter for instructor certification renewal and other applicable Commission regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual completes the Commission’s renewal application and submits the completed application to the training authority for the individual’s employer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Training authority for the individual’s employer has reviewed and approved the renewal application and submits the approved application to the Commission within the time established under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A training authority may not review, approve, or submit to the Commission the training authority’s own application for instructor certification renewal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Instructor Certification Renewal Requirements for Instructor Classifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a provisional instructor certification for an instructor classification expires, the individual is not required to meet the requirements of this section to renew the same provisional instructor certification classification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The training authority for a correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services submitting an application for instructor certification or renewal of instructor certification that the Commission last approved during the individual’s most recent term of instructor certification shall affirm that the individual meets the certification requirements specified for the instructor classification under §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Renewal for each instructor classification requires that the individual for which a training authority has submitted an application for instructor certification renewal is recommended for instructor certification renewal by the individual’s correctional unit, academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14, or the Department of Juvenile Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following table provides the minimum requirements for an individual’s certification renewal of the instructor classifications indicated:</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Term of Instructor Certification and Limitations on Instruction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual may not conduct any part of the individual’s own training or instruction required by the Commission to meet instructor certification requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The following table establishes for each instructor classification:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Limitations on instruction that may be provided; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Term of instructor certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Suspension and Revocation of Instructor Certification and Exemptions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Deputy Director, in accordance with this regulation may temporarily suspend or permanently revoke an individual’s instructor certification if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Does not comply with Commission regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Falsifies or fails to maintain reports, forms, rosters, and other records required by the Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Facilitates or condones cheating on an examination, skills exercise, or other aspect of a training provider’s course for which instruction is provided;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Compromises the integrity of a training provider’s training program or course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Misuses the authority granted by the instructor certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fails to provide required instruction or provides instruction that is erroneous or inadequate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Fails to cooperate with Commission audits or inquiries;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Provides false or misleading information to the Commission; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Violates or fails to meet Commission requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the Commission has knowledge that an instructor has allegedly engaged in conduct specified under §A of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide written notice of the allegations to the instructor’s supervising authority at the correctional unit, Department of Juvenile Services, law enforcement agency, training provider, or academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14 or COMAR 12.04.01.10 that employs or supervises the instructor who is the subject of the allegation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure the allegation is thoroughly investigated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conduct a hearing to allow the allegation to be presented and the instructor to respond to the allegation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After reviewing the information resulting from the investigation and conducting a hearing under §B of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall decide if the allegation is supported by fact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the Deputy Director decides the allegation is supported by fact, the Deputy Director may order that the instructor’s certification be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permanently revoked; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Temporarily suspended.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Deputy Director shall submit a written report of findings to support a decision under §C of this regulation and any order under §D of this regulation to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The instructor’s supervising authority at the correctional unit, Department of Juvenile Services, law enforcement agency, training provider, or academy certified under COMAR 12.10.01.14 or COMAR 12.04.01.10 that employs or supervises the instructor who is the subject of the allegation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Correctional Training Commission or Police Training Commission that granted the instructor’s certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The instructor who is the subject of the allegation may appeal the Deputy Director’s decision under §C of this regulation and any order under §D of this regulation to the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Revoking or Suspending an Instructor Certification Exemption.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Deputy Director may permanently revoke or temporarily suspend an exemption from instructor certification granted under Regulation .04 of this chapter if the individual to whom the exemption was granted engages in conduct specified by §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If Deputy Director considers revoking or temporarily suspending an exemption as provided by §G(1) of this regulation, the Deputy Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Comply with the requirements of §B of this regulation, and may order that the exemption be revoked or temporarily suspended as provided by §D of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide a written report on the findings and order under §G(2)(a) of this regulation to the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Individual to whom the exemption was granted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Training authority or training provider that requested the exemption.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An exemption from instructor certification granted under Regulation .04 of this chapter may be revoked or temporarily suspended by the Deputy Director if the Deputy Director determines the individual no longer possesses the specialized skills or expertise to warrant the exemption.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, Title 8, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 1, 2013 (39:16 Md. R. 1081)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended effective May 26, 2014 (41:10 Md. R. 561)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Body-Worn Cameras"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Body-worn cameras (BWC) promote accountability, safety, and transparency by providing an objective and documented record of interactions between correctional and community supervision professionals, and incarcerated individuals, supervised individuals, and members of the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter establishes regulations for correctional officers and community supervision agents, and provides procedures for the training, use, operation, maintenance and storage of BWC recordings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Prior to implementing a BWC program, a correctional unit shall develop and maintain a written policy consistent with regulations of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Activation” means the process a correctional officer or a community supervision agent conducts to begin recording audio and video with a body-worn camera.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Body-Worn Camera (BWC)” has the meaning of the body-worn digital recording device stated in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §10-402, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“BWC equipment” means cameras, docking stations, system consoles, or any other accessories required for the use of the BWC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Community contact” means an interaction by a correctional officer or a community supervision agent with an individual to verify compliance with the conditions of release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Community supervision agent (agent)” means a mandated employee who supervises an individual placed on probation, or released on mandatory supervision, parole, or administrative release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Correctional Officer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Correctional officer” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §8-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Correctional officer” includes a mandated employee who is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A community supervision agent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Under the authority of the Commissioner of Correction, the Commissioner of Pretrial Detention and Services; or a managing official of a local correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Correctional unit” means a unit of State, county, or municipal government that is responsible under a statute, ordinance, or court order for the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Investigation, care, custody, control, or supervision of an incarcerated individual; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Investigation and supervision of an individual placed on probation, or released on parole, administrative release, or mandatory supervision release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Critical incident” means any event or situation that creates a significant risk of disruption to the security or operations of a correctional unit or a significant risk of harm to the physical or mental health, safety or well-being of an individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Evidence management system” is a secure database utilized to store, manage, investigate, and share multiple types of digital data captured from BWCs to establish an evidentiary chain of custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Incarcerated individual” has the meaning as defined in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Maryland Public Information Act (MPIA)” has the meaning stated in General Provisions Article, §§4-101― 4-601, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Qualifying event” means a situation or event where a correctional officer or agent is required to activate their body-worn camera to capture audio and video recordings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Supervised individual” means a person:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Sentenced to probation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Released on parole or administrative release; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Released on mandatory supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Use of force” means the physical or other form of control by mandated employees to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Defend themselves or others; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Restrain, subdue, or overcome resistance from or non-compliance of an individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Program Oversight and Responsibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional unit shall ensure supervisory oversight of the BWC program in compliance with these regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional unit shall ensure correctional officers or agents are wearing and using BWC equipment in accordance with agency policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A correctional unit shall ensure random reviews of recordings are performed to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Confirm procedures are being followed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recognize opportunities for additional training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Identify situations that may require procedural or operational changes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A correctional unit may designate an employee responsible for maintaining BWC systems and performing routine maintenance in accordance with the manufacturer’s guidelines.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional unit shall ensure that correctional officers or agents assigned a BWC receive proper training on BWC use and operation pursuant to these regulations, manufacturer’s guidelines and all applicable laws and policies prior to using a BWC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>BWC training shall include, but is not limited to the following topics:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Agency BWC policy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proper placement of camera;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>When recording is mandatory, prohibited, and discretionary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When recording notification and consent is required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Secure storage, access, review and confidentiality of recordings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Retention, dissemination and release of recordings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Specific protections for reasonable expectation of privacy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Interactions with members of the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Buffering mode; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Equipment operation, care and maintenance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Video and audio recordings from BWCs used for training purposes shall be separately tagged from recordings of official daily operations as described in Regulation .11 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Notification of Recordings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional officer working with only incarcerated individuals and other facility staff is not required to notify any individual in their immediate area that BWC equipment is in use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional officer or agent in the community shall notify supervised individuals and members of the public upon initial community contact that audio and video recordings of communications may be captured by a BWC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A correctional officer or agent is not required to provide notification that audio and video recordings of communications may be captured to an individual who becomes party to the communication after the initial notification has been provided.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="General Operational Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional unit shall determine which correctional officers or agents are responsible for wearing BWCs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In order to wear a BWC, a correctional officer or agent shall be clearly identifiable by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Wearing clothing, a vest, or outer carrier that identifies the wearer as a correctional officer or agent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Prominently displaying an agency issued badge or other official insignia.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Only agency-issued BWC equipment may be used to create recordings pursuant to these regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Prior to the beginning of a shift, a correctional officer or agent shall perform a function test of the BWC in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations and agency policy.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A correctional officer or agent shall immediately notify a supervisor if the BWC is not functioning properly.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>As soon as practicable, a correctional officer or agent shall return the malfunctioning BWC for repair or replacement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The BWC shall be activated as soon as practicable during all qualifying events and shall not be deactivated until the completion of the qualifying event.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A qualifying event is considered complete once all actions required by agency policy have been taken and the incident has ended, or a supervisor has determined the incident to be over.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Qualifying event activations are required regardless of whether a fixed camera system is present in the area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Following the conclusion of a qualifying event as indicated in Regulation .07 of this chapter, a correctional officer or agent shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify supervision of the activation of the BWC prior to the end of shift; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complete any required documentation related to the activation in accordance with a correctional unit’s policy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>At the conclusion of a shift or work assignment, a correctional officer or agent shall upload the BWC recordings into the evidence management system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>After a BWC recording has been docked and uploaded into the evidence management system, the BWC recording shall be reviewed, tagged, and categorized in accordance with agency policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A correctional officer or agent shall document any deviation from regulations of this chapter or a correctional unit’s BWC policy.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Qualifying Events—Mandatory Recording."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A qualifying event requires activation of the BWC as soon as safe and reasonably practicable to do so.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The following constitute qualifying events:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Critical incidents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Use of force situations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interactions with aggressive or agitated individuals; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Community contacts conducted by a correctional officer or agent.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An agency may include other events as qualifying events as long as they are not prohibited under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Prohibited Use of BWCs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except for purposes authorized in Regulation .07 of this chapter, the BWC shall not be activated anywhere there is a reasonable expectation of privacy, including but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Toilets and showers while in use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Strip searches;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Substance use testing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Attorney-client visits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Interactions with clergy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Confidential communication with or treatment by a medical practitioner regarding physical, mental, and dental health;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Courtrooms and court facilities except as permitted by court rules and guidelines of the local Administrative Judge or presiding judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Administrative investigations or hearings regarding personnel matters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Interviews with confidential informants;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Conversations with other employees during non-job related activities, including work breaks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Discussions, meetings, or other official business outside the presence of an incarcerated individual, a supervised individual, or a member of the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In order to safeguard a correctional officer or agent’s privacy, a correctional officer or agent may place a BWC in sleep mode or completely power off the BWC when using locker rooms or restroom facilities.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Discretionary Use of BWCs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A correctional unit may direct correctional officers and agents to activate BWCs when not otherwise prohibited to record:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Witness interviews, pursuant to agency policy on recording witness interviews using a BWC;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Events or circumstances where a correctional officer or agent reasonably determines that BWC recording is necessary to ensure public safety; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Cell searches, clothed frisk searches of employees, visitors, and incarcerated individuals, and facility searches in accordance with a correctional unit’s policy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional officer or agent shall receive consent from an individual being recorded if required by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Following the conclusion of a discretionary use of the BWC, a correctional officer or agent shall follow the procedures outlined in Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Access, Storage, and Retention of BWC Video."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Recordings or photographs made with agency-issued BWC equipment are subject to the Maryland Public Information Act (MPIA).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Pursuant to a correctional unit’s policy, only authorized individuals are permitted to edit, alter, delete, copy, share, or otherwise distribute any BWC recordings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Each correctional unit’s written policy shall include standards and procedures that address:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Security and access control; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Creation of an audit trail and access logs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A BWC recording shall be uploaded and stored in a secured manner consistent with agency policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A BWC recording made under Regulation .07 or .09 of this chapter shall be retained for the later of 3 years or the time required under all applicable laws and agency retention schedules.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Strict digital security procedures shall be established by a correctional unit for storing BWC recordings to prevent unauthorized access, tampering, or deletion.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Dissemination and Release of Recordings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>BWC recordings and related information subject to the MPIA shall be disseminated in accordance with the MPIA.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A correctional unit shall consult with counsel as necessary in responding to a MPIA request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a BWC recording is associated with a criminal investigation, the correctional unit shall consult with a criminal investigative unit or prosecuting attorney prior to release.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 8-211; Courts of Judicial Proceedings Article, §10-402; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 5, 2026 (52:26 Md. R. 1310)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="11" heading="Office of the Secretary"> <chapter num="01" heading="Internal Investigative Unit"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Filing complaints of alleged misconduct with the Internal Investigative Unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Conducting and coordinating investigations undertaken or assigned by the Internal Investigative Unit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Reporting and notification requirements related to investigations undertaken or assigned by the Internal Investigative Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Reporting violations of criminal and Maryland Public Ethics Law, State Government Article, Title 15, Annotated Code of Maryland, by an employee to the Assistant Attorney General for the Department and the Chief Counsel to the Governor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Agency” means an organization, institution, division, or unit established by statute or created by the Secretary within the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Agency head” means the highest authority of an agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Contraband” means any item that an inmate is prohibited from possessing according to law, regulation, or Department, agency or correctional facility policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Controlled dangerous substance (CDS)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Internal Investigative Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Employee.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Employee” means an individual assigned to or employed by the Department in a full-time, part-time, temporary, or contractual position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Employee” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A special appointee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A volunteer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>An intern.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Escape” means any conduct by an inmate that may be charged as an escape under Maryland law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Facility” means a structure or space used, owned, or leased by the Department to conduct Department administrative and operational activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual in the custody or under the supervision of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inmate” includes an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>In pretrial, sentenced, or presentenced (after guilty finding but before sentencing) status actually or constructively confined by the Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>In a Department home detention program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Under the supervision of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Internal Investigative Unit (IIU)” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services Internal Investigative Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Investigator” means a Department employee permanently assigned to or on special assignment to assist the IIU with the responsibilities specified under Correctional Services Article, §10-701(a)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Nonagency Employee.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Nonagency employee” means an individual who, by contract or other lawful arrangement, provides services to an inmate or the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Nonagency employee” includes an employee of the Department of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Scope of IIU Investigative Authority."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director, or a designee, shall investigate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An alleged violation of criminal law committed by an employee while on duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An alleged violation of criminal law committed by an employee while off duty if that violation impacts, or has the potential to impact, negatively on the Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An alleged violation of criminal law committed by an inmate, a visitor, a nonagency employee, or another individual that may affect the safety or security of a Department facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An alleged violation of Maryland Public Ethics Law, State Government Article, Title 15, Annotated Code of Maryland, by an employee or nonagency employee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other alleged violations that have a negative impact on the Department.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director, or a designee, shall perform other duties and investigative responsibilities assigned by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="IIU Responsibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Appointment; Reporting.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary shall appoint the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director shall report directly to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Oversee IIU activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Assign IIU employees to perform administrative and investigative duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Supervise employees permanently assigned to the IIU;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure the confidentiality of all reports, records, and documents related to investigations conducted or assigned by the Director, or a designee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Coordinate, with the Secretary, the release of information regarding investigations conducted or assigned by the Director, or a designee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Serve as the principal contact regarding IIU operational activities with officials of federal, state, and local agencies, other Department investigative entities, and appropriate government organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>If an investigation affects another enforcement agency, consult with the appropriate representative of that agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Develop and maintain procedures to manage IIU operational activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>If appropriate, consult with an agency head concerning an investigation or the potential for public or media interest related to an investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Annually, report on trends, status, and results of investigations and related IIU activities in a manner determined by the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Ensure that an employee on special assignment to the IIU properly reports all investigative activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Require that an investigator permanently assigned to the IIU is certified as a police officer according to requirements under COMAR 12.04.01;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Maintain a record of all complaints received by the IIU; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Maintain a tracking system to monitor activity and disposition of each investigation conducted or assigned by the Director, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Incidents Required to be Reported to the IIU."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided under §B of this regulation, an employee shall immediately notify the Director, or a designee, if the employee is involved in or has knowledge of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An alleged violation by an employee of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The criminal law of the United States, a state, or a political subdivision of a state;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, or an equivalent law of another state, involving the operation of a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or a CDS; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Maryland Public Ethics Law, State Government Article, Title 15, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An alleged violation of the criminal law of the United States, a state, or a political subdivision of a state committed by an inmate, a visitor, a nonagency employee, or other individual that affects the safety or security of a Department facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An allegation of excessive force by an employee or nonagency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The possession or trafficking of contraband by an inmate, employee, or nonagency employee at a Department facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An allegation that an on-duty employee or nonagency employee is under the influence of alcohol or a CDS, including the illegal use of a prescription drug;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The death of an employee or nonagency employee while on duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The death of an off-duty employee or nonagency employee if the manner of death:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is connected to the individual's employment with or services the individual provides to the Department; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Could have a negative effect on the Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The death of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An attempted suicide by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>An escape or attempted escape by an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>An incident where an employee displays or handles a firearm in a careless or unsafe manner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>An incident where an employee discharges a firearm, other than on a firing range;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The arrest of, or service of a criminal summons on, an employee or nonagency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The execution of a search warrant on property owned by or under the control of an employee or nonagency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>An allegation of prohibited social, personal, intimate, or sexual relationship between an inmate and an employee or nonagency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>An allegation of prohibited communication, transaction, association, or relationship, between an employee or nonagency employee and the following acting on behalf of an inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Visitor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Friend;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Relative; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other individual;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>An allegation involving an employee or nonagency employee which, if publicized, would reflect negatively on the Department or State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>An allegation involving an agency head or the agency head's staff, which, if handled by the agency head or the agency head's superior, could pose a conflict of interest.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an allegation required to be reported under §A of this regulation is discovered during a proceeding properly before the Inmate Grievance Office, as part of the administrative remedy procedure, or other similar Department administrative process, the employee responsible for the process:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May notify the Director, or a designee, if, in the employee's judgment, the allegation warrants notifying the IIU; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall notify the Director, or a designee, if, while processing an allegation, another allegation required to be reported under §A of this regulation is discovered that warrants notification according to §B(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Police Authority."> <text>When performing duties associated with the IIU, an investigator who is certified as a police officer according to requirements under COMAR 12.04.01 may exercise the authority of a police officer under Correctional Services Article, §10-701(b) and (c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Authority and Responsibility of an Investigator."> <text>An IIU investigator:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Shall have unrestricted access to all areas of a Department facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In addition to the authority under Regulation .06 of this chapter, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Access Department records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Request assistance from an agency employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request assistance from another law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inspect facilities, vehicles, or equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Require an employee to provide testimonial or physical evidence; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conduct an investigation in an impartial and reasonable manner according to the oath of office and law of the United States and the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be courteous, attentive, and receptive to an individual reporting or providing evidence related to a complaint under investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure the safety and chain of custody for items and evidence received;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Maintain confidentiality of all matters related to investigations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Prepare an investigative report that, at a minimum, contains:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Complete and detailed information regarding the complaint or incident;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A clear account of investigative actions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>All relative information supporting the finding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Agency Heads."> <text>An agency head or a designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Notify the Director or a designee, and if required, local law enforcement, of an allegation required to be reported under Regulation .05 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Relinquish authority for an investigation undertaken by the IIU, including an investigation initially assigned to an agency head, or a designee, that is subsequently assumed by the IIU;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Provide to the IIU investigator unrestricted access to all areas of the agency head's facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Ensure that agency employees cooperate with the IIU investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If requested by the IIU, assign agency employees to assist the IIU investigator and serve as an IIU liaison;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Coordinate agency employee, nonagency employee, and inmate interviews requested by an IIU investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Provide reports, documents, and information requested by an IIU investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Ensure confidentiality of all reports, records, investigative activities, and documents relating to an IIU investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Provide workspace within the facility for use by the IIU personnel during an investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Secure and preserve the scene of an incident until released to an IIU investigator or appropriate law enforcement personnel; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Be accountable for investigations conducted at the agency level ensuring that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Where appropriate, investigative activities are conducted according to requirements for an IIU investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Required reports are completed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Investigative reports are forwarded to the Director, or a designee, for review, filing, and retention.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="IIU Notification Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An employee involved in or with knowledge of an alleged violation under Regulation .05 of this chapter, regardless of whether the employee believes the allegation to be founded, shall immediately file a complaint with the Director, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director, or a designee, receiving notification under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If possible, identify the employee or individual making the complaint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the complaint is made anonymously, record it as anonymous.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director, or a designee, shall receive and handle an anonymous complaint in the same manner as a complaint where the employee or other individual filing the complaint or the victim is identified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An employee filing a complaint under §A of this regulation shall forward a written report of the complaint, in a form determined by the Director, directly to the Director or a designee, by the close of the next workday after filing the complaint with the IIU.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An employee, a nonagency employee, an inmate, a visitor, or anyone on the behalf of these individuals may file a complaint directly to the Director, or a designee, or a law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="IIU Post-Notification Responsibilities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>After a complaint is filed with the IIU, the Director, or a designee, shall evaluate the information provided and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Decide whether an IIU investigator shall investigate the complaint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Refer the complaint for investigation to the appropriate agency head.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall establish a system to record each complaint received and track disposition of each complaint recorded.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Report of Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director, with the approval of the Secretary, shall determine the format and content of a report of investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The IIU is the repository for all reports of investigations conducted by an IIU investigator or assigned through the IIU to an agency head for investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall coordinate release of an investigative report with the Secretary consistent with all laws, rules, regulations, policy, and procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Public Corruption and Misconduct."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an investigation of a complaint under this chapter determines that an employee has committed a violation of a criminal or the Maryland Public Ethics Law, State Government Article, Title 15, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Director, or a designee, shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Chief counsel to the Governor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Assistant attorney general for the Department.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agency head completing an investigation that determines an employee has committed a violation of a criminal law or Maryland Public Ethics Law, State Government Article, Title 15, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall immediately report the findings to the Director, or a designee, who shall make the notifications required under §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §10-701, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: August 28, 2006 (33:17 Md. R. 1437)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Public Information Requests"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>A person shall use the following procedures to inspect or copy public records maintained by the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Agency” means a unit of State government within the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services under Correctional Services Article, §2-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Agency head” means the highest authority in an agency of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Applicant” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Custodian” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Official Custodian.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Official custodian” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Official custodian”, unless otherwise provided by law, is the agency head.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Person” means an individual, corporation, partnership, firm, association, or governmental agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Person in interest” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Personal information” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Public record” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Reasonable fee” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-621(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Sociological data” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Any of the following information concerning any person about whom a record is maintained by the Maryland State Police, the Police Training Commission, or the Correctional Training Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Social security number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Personal address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Personal phone number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Any information obtained by a personal history investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Any information obtained through a doctor's examination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Any score from a GED certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Any transcript or information obtained from a high school, college or other approved educational institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Any information regarding marital status or dependents.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any of the following information concerning any person about whom a record is maintained by the Division of Parole and Probation or the Maryland Parole Commission:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Personal relationships, beliefs, values, etc.;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Identity of dependents and relatives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Description and adequacy of housing facilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Finances including income, assets, liabilities, debt payments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Address, occupation, and school status of family members;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Information concerning the support and custody of children;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Religious preference and attendance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Names of close associates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Evaluation by the agent of adjustment problems and attitudes (including risk and needs assessment information).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any of the following information concerning any person about which a record is maintained by the Patuxent Institution:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An inmate's family or family history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Developmental history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Work history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Sexual development;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Medical or psychiatric history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Military service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Work release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>School release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Parole progress.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Working day” means a day other than Saturday, Sunday, or a State holiday.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Who May Inspect or Copy a Public Record."> <text>A person may inspect or copy a public record unless that inspection is:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An unwarranted invasion of the person in interest's privacy; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Prohibited by law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Requesting to Inspect or Copy a Public Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Written Application. Unless exempt under State Government Article, §10-614(a)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, a person requesting to inspect or copy a public record shall submit a written application to the custodian of the record to be inspected or copied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Contents of Application to Inspect or Copy a Public Record. A person requesting to inspect or copy a public record shall submit a written application that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provides the person's name and address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Identifies the record to be inspected or copied.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The applicant shall direct the application to the custodian of the record to be inspected or copied. If the custodian is unknown, the applicant may direct the request to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Department's Principal Counsel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If an application to inspect or copy a public record is received and the record requested is not under the charge of the receiving custodian, within 10 working days of receipt of the application, the receiving custodian shall notify the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>That the application has been misdirected; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>One of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the proper custodian can be identified:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The name and address of that custodian; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>That the application was forwarded to the proper custodian; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the proper custodian cannot be identified, that the application was forwarded to the Office of the Secretary, where a designee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Identify the proper custodian; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Notify the applicant as required under §D(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Processing an Application to Inspect or Copy a Public Record."> <text>A custodian receiving an application to inspect or copy a public record under that custodian's control:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Shall grant or deny the request within 30 days of receipt of the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unless prohibited by law, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify a person in interest adversely affected by disclosure of a public record that an application to inspect or copy a public record related to the person in interest has been made; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Consider the views of the person in interest before granting a request to inspect or copy that public record; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>With the consent of the applicant, may extend time limits imposed by this regulation up to 30 days.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Inspecting or Copying a Public Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the custodian grants a request, the custodian shall make the record available:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Immediately; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 30 days from the date of the request based on time required to retrieve the public record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Time of Inspection. A custodian shall make a public record available for inspection or copying during the agency's normal working day.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Place of Inspection. A custodian shall require that the public record be inspected or copied at the location where the public record is maintained, unless the custodian determines that another location would better serve the needs of the individual inspecting or copying the public record or of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Availability of Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a requested public record is not immediately available, the custodian shall, within 10 working days of receipt of the request:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Establish a date and time that the public record will be available for inspection or copying.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a requested public record cannot be made available, the custodian shall, within 10 working days of the request:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide the reason the public record cannot be produced.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Reasonable Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before preparing for inspection, copying, or photographing of a public record, a custodian shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Based on §E(3) of this regulation, estimate the cost of providing the record in the form requested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain agreement from the applicant to pay the fee based on the cost under §E(1)(a) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Arrange for payment by the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Under State Government Article, §10-621, Annotated Code of Maryland, the official custodian may charge a reasonable fee to recover costs associated with the search for, preparation of, copying of, and photographing of a public record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Unless otherwise established, the official custodian shall base the fee charged on costs for document searches, copies, printouts, photographs, or certified copies of a public record. The official custodian shall charge:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a Department photocopy machine is used, 50 cents for each page copied;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The actual cost of obtaining each photograph;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>50 cents for each page or photograph certified as a true test copy, which is in addition to charges under §E(3)(a) and (b) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Except for the first 2 hours, for work time used searching, preparing, copying, or photographing a public record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If a copy or photograph of a public record is mailed or delivered to the applicant, for the actual cost of postage or delivery; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>If copying or photographing cannot be performed within the Department, for the actual cost, established by the public or private business providing the service.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The official custodian may not charge a fee if the total cost for providing the public record would be $1 or less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The official custodian may waive or reduce a fee charged under this regulation if the official custodian:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Receives a request for a waiver or reduction of the fee from the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>After considering the applicant's ability to pay the fee and any other factors, determines that a waiver is in the best interest of the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Denial of a Request to Inspect or Copy a Public Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A custodian may deny a request to inspect or copy a public record under State Government Article, §§10-615 —10-619, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a custodian denies a request to inspect or copy a public record, the custodian shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Immediately notify the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 10 working days, provide the applicant with a written statement that provides the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Reason for the decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Legal basis for the decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notice of remedies for review of the denial.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a portion of the public record can be inspected or copied and that portion can be separated from the portion that cannot be inspected or copied, the custodian shall provide the person inspecting or copying the public record the portion that can be inspected or copied.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Review of the Denial."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a custodian denies a request to inspect or copy a public record for a reason other than the record is temporarily unavailable, the applicant may, within 30 days after receipt of the notice of the denial, request an administrative review of that denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the applicant requests an administrative review of the denial, the agency head shall require that the administrative review is conducted according to State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland and COMAR 12.11.04. Under State Government Article, §10-623, Annotated Code of Maryland, a person adversely impacted by a decision under §A of this regulation may file a complaint with the circuit court.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 6; Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 13, 1979 (6:14 Md. R. 1208)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13A amended effective February 4, 1991 (18:2 Md. R. 151)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 6, 2005 (31:26 Md. R. 1863)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: This chapter of regulations pertaining to the entire Department replaced individual chapters adopted by agencies within the department. These chapters, which were repealed, appeared at COMAR 12.04.02, 12.06.11, 12.07.02, 12.09.02, 12.10.02, 12.12.01, 12.13.01, 12.14.02, and 12.15.01.</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="9-1-1 Emergency Telephone System"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Emergency Number Systems Board Authority."> <text>The Emergency Number Systems Board shall coordinate the implementation, enhancement, maintenance, and operation of county or multicounty 9-1-1 systems.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Additional charge” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-301, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Board” means the Emergency Number Systems Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>"9-1-1 system" means a telephone service or any other communication service that meets the planning guidelines under Public Safety Article, §1-306, Annotated Code of Maryland, and automatically connects an individual dialing the digits 9-1-1 to a public safety answering point.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Public safety answering point” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-301, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="The Emergency Number Systems Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Emergency Number Systems Board is under the direction of the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Board membership shall be according to Public Safety Article, §1-305, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board shall meet as necessary, but not less than quarterly each calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Board requires a majority of confirmed members present at a meeting to constitute a quorum.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Board requires a majority vote of members present at a meeting before taking action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Board shall coordinate enhancement of county or multicounty 9-1-1 systems according to provisions under Public Safety Article, §1-306, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Implementation by County or Multicounty Area."> <text>A county or multicounty area shall maintain an enhanced 9-1-1 system that:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Uses the digits 9-1-1 as the published emergency telephone number for access to emergency services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Has public safety answering points that provide 24-hour public access and dispatch service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Provides transfer and referrals to related public safety services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Provides for staffing all public safety answering points with personnel trained as required by this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Provides for equipping all public safety answering points with adequate access to TTY equipment to facilitate use by an individual with a speech or hearing disability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Provides access to services for an individual who does not speak or understand the English language;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>May provide access to local emergency management centers for all public safety answering points;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Permits a county to designate a public safety answering point using cooperative arrangements acceptable to the participating agencies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Permits public safety answering points to transfer or relay emergency calls received requiring services outside of the jurisdiction of the system receiving the call;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Maintains a current master street address guide and communicates updated information to parties responsible for an automatic number identification (ANI) and automatic location identification (ALI) system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Uses telephone equipment and services that provide:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A visual or audible indication, or both, of an incoming call;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The capability for the call taker to monitor a transferred call to ensure that the call is properly transferred;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Annual telephone company monitoring of service to determine the grade of service and, if appropriate, to make recommendations to ensure that not more than one busy signal in every 100 incoming calls during an average busy hour is maintained; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Documentation of the date and time a 9-1-1 call is received; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Has a sufficient number of call takers and equipment to consistently answer incoming calls on a daily average of 10 seconds or less.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Plans for More Than One Public Safety Answering Point in a County."> <text>A county with a plan for more than one public safety answering point in the county shall submit the plan to the Board for consideration subject to the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The county administration submitting the plan and not the individual agency within the county shall receive and distribute funding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The plan shall meet the criteria established under this chapter, unless the Board approves a variation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Minimum Enhanced 9-1-1 System Requirements."> <text>At a minimum, an enhanced 9-1-1 system implemented in Maryland shall include:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Sufficient incoming 9-1-1 lines for each telephone central office to ensure that not more than one in 100 call attempts during the average busy hour is blocked;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Connections to all public safety agencies covered by the system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>24 hour, 7 day operation of the public safety answering point staffed with personnel trained as required under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>First priority to answering 9-1-1 calls;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Electronic recording of all 9-1-1 calls;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Playback capability of all 9-1-1 calls;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Connection to adjacent public safety answering points by private lines when there is a telephone exchange and jurisdictional boundary not covered by selective routing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Security measures sufficient to minimize intentional disruption of the operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Standby emergency electrical power to keep the public safety answering point operating when commercial power fails;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>At least one administrative line for nonemergency calls;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Written operational procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Automatic location identification (ALI), which displays, at the public safety answering point, the address or location of the calling instrument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Automatic number identification (ANI), which displays, at the public safety answering point, the calling telephone number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Central office identification used to identify dedicated lines or trunks from a central office when a public safety answering point serves more than one central office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>A distinct tone, visible signal, or other process for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Alerting the call taker that an incoming 9-1-1 call was disconnected; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Receiving and displaying the telephone number with ANI and ALI information for a disconnected 9-1-1 call, when available;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Providing access to services for an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>With a speech or hearing disability; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Who does not speak or understand the English language; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Other technical advances approved by the Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Minimum Features of a 3-1-1 System."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A county or multicounty system may establish a 3-1-1 system to reduce congestion on the 9-1-1 system operation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>At a minimum, a 3-1-1 system shall include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Switching or programming to direct a 3-1-1 call to a nonemergency answering position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A 3-1-1 answering position that shall be capable of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Immediately transferring an emergency call to a 9-1-1 answering position or an adjoining public safety answering point;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Transferring a nonemergency call to an adjoining jurisdiction or appropriate agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Providing an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>With a speech or hearing disability access to TTY services; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Who does not speak or understand the English language access to alternative communication services; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A 3-1-1 call taker trained to handle nonemergency calls and to transfer emergency calls to a 9-1-1 call taker.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Operational Plan."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A county or multicounty system shall have and maintain a written operational plan for public safety services signed by public safety agencies within the public safety answering point area of responsibility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A public safety agency included in an operational plan under §A of this regulation shall be familiar with the operational procedures of the other public safety agencies included in the same operational plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An operational plan shall provide for uniform methods and procedures to ensure effective interagency communications.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Safeguarding Telephone Circuits by Telephone Companies."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A facility housing 9-1-1 telephone equipment shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be equipped at all exposed terminations, including central office distributing frames, with protective devices that prevent accidental worker contact; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include clearly identified protected terminations to distinguish protected terminations from other circuitry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A protected circuit may not be opened, grounded, short-circuited, or manipulated in any way by a telephone company worker without the local telephone company first obtaining approval for circuit release from the appropriate public safety answering point.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A telephone company shall ensure that telephone company employees who work in facilities associated with the 9-1-1 service are familiar with procedures for safeguarding 9-1-1 system equipment.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Public Safety Answering Point Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A county shall staff a public safety answering point with personnel who can properly process a call from a machine used by an individual who has a speech or hearing impairment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 6 months of hiring a public safety answering point call taker, a county shall train the new call taker using a curriculum adopted or approved by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A county shall provide a public safety answering point call taker with yearly in-service training using a curriculum adopted or approved by the Board. D. Training shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Public safety answering point orientation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Communication skills;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Electronic systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Policies and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Call processing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Dispatch procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Stress management;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Public relations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Administrative duties; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Disaster and major incident training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="9-1-1 Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board shall ensure that collection, maintenance, dispersal, and auditing of 9-1-1 fees is conducted according to Public Safety Article, §§1-308—1-312, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Additional Charges—Local Government.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In addition to the fee charged under Public Safety Article, §1-310, Annotated Code of Maryland, a county with an operational 9-1-1 system under Public Safety Article, §1-304, Annotated Code of Maryland, may, by ordinance or resolution after public hearing, enact or adopt an additional monthly charge not to exceed the limits under Public Safety Article, §1-311, Annotated Code of Maryland, to be applied to current bills, within that county, for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Switched local exchange access service; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Wireless telephone service or other 9-1-1 accessible service.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A county authorizing an additional charge under §B of this regulation and maintaining an enhanced 9-1-1 system shall be subject to an annual Board-authorized independent audit of authorized 9-1-1 expenditures pursuant to Public Safety Article, §1-312, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Equipment Which Qualifies for Funding or Reimbursement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Equipment that qualifies for purchase with funds from the 9-1-1 Trust Fund includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Equipment for connecting and outswitching 9-1-1 calls within a telephone central office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Trunking facilities from the central office to a public safety answering point;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Equipment to connect 9-1-1 calls to the appropriate public safety agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Equipment for a 3-1-1 system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Equipment necessary to constitute an enhanced 9-1-1 system shall be used for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Automatic number identification (ANI);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Automatic location identification (ALI); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Other technical equipment the Board may require.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Computer aided dispatch equipment is not a part of a 9-1-1 system, except when the Board determines that an interface is necessary to properly process 9-1-1 calls.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Submission of 9-1-1 Plan."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A county requesting reimbursement from the 9-1-1 Trust Fund for mandated equipment, 9-1-1 enhancements, or technological advancements shall submit the request to the Board for approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A county shall submit a plan, request, report, or question to the Chairman, Emergency Number Systems Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Request for Reimbursement from the 9-1-1 Trust Fund."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A county shall submit a request for reimbursement from the 9-1-1 Trust Fund to the Board in a format and according to procedures established by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Reimbursement Processing.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A county public safety answering point director or a 9-1-1 administrator shall submit a written or electronic request for reimbursement to the Board so that it is received at least 2 weeks before a Board meeting at which it is to be considered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The county's public safety answering point director or 9-1-1 administrator, or a designee, shall attend the meeting at which the request is to be considered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board shall review the request and, if approved, encumber funds up to the amount of the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The county shall ensure that the county's procurement laws and policies are followed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Variations or Waivers of Regulations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon request by a county, the Board may grant a waiver or variance of the regulations contained in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A county may submit a written or electronic request for waiver or variance to the Board that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Number of persons affected;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Impact of a variance or waiver;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Alternative methods;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Technical difficulties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Cost.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The information for each of the areas cited in §B of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The best interests of the affected parties, the applicant, and the Emergency Number Systems Board.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An affected party shall have the right to present, either in writing or through oral testimony, information which may bear on the Board's final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Processing a Request for Waiver or Variance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a written request for waiver or variance, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Within 10 days of receipt of the request, direct a letter to the applicant, which shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Acknowledge receipt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Notify the applicant that additional information may be submitted, within 30 days, for the Board to consider during the review; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review the documents or conduct a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Board elects to review the documents, the review shall be conducted at a regular Board meeting within 60 days after the expiration of the 30-day period granted to the applicant to submit additional information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Board elects to conduct a hearing, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the applicant and affected parties of the hearing at least 10 days before the hearing and provide the hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Time; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Location; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conduct the hearing according to State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="9-1-1 System Violations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board may instruct the State Comptroller to withhold funds from a county for 9-1-1 system expenditures for a violation under:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Public Safety Article, §1-312, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The regulations in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Withholding Funds.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the Board decides to withhold funds, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Identify, in writing, the reason or reasons for withholding funds;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record the reason or reasons in the minutes of the meeting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notify the county that the county has 30 days from the date of notification to respond in writing to the Board; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Notify the State Comptroller to hold funds, in that county's account within the 9-1-1 Trust Fund, until the Board advises the Comptroller that the funds may be released.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Funds held by the Comptroller under this section may not accrue interest for a county.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interest income earned on funds held by the Comptroller under this regulation shall be diverted to the 9-1-1 Trust Fund.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board shall notify the Secretary of action taken under §A or B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Decisions of the Board."> <text>After the Board conducts a hearing or a review of a request under this chapter, the Board shall ensure that the Board's decision is:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In writing and stated in the record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Accompanied by findings of fact and conclusions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Provided to the applicant with a copy of the written record containing the information noted under §§A and B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, Title 1, Subtitle 3, Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.12 adopted as an emergency provision effective June 2, 1980 (7:12 Md. R. 1128); adopted permanently effective October 11, 1980 (7:20 Md. R. 1884) (Originally Promulgated as COMAR 12.11.02)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03F amended effective May 15, 1981 (8:10 Md. R. 878)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A amended effective August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09-1 adopted effective August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09-1B amended effective July 13, 1986 (13:14 Md. R. 1635)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11A amended effective August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .13 and .14 adopted effective August 2, 1982 (9:15 Md. R. 1515)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective September 16, 1991 (18:18 Md. R. 2008)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 1996 (22:24 Md. R. 1899)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective July 15, 1996 (23:14 Md. R. 1010)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective February 24, 1997 (24:4 Md. R. 293)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07D amended effective July 15, 1996 (23:14 Md. R. 1010)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10B amended effective July 15, 1996 (23:14 Md. R. 1010)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14D amended effective July 15, 1996 (23:14 Md. R. 1010)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective March 9, 1998 (25:5 Md. R. 370)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12A amended effective July 27, 1998 (25:15 Md. R. 1191)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective October 8, 2007 (34:20 Md. R. 1740)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="General Hearing Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter applies to proceedings before agencies of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services if an issue concerning the legal rights, duties, statutory entitlements or privileges of a party is required by law or constitutional right to be determined by a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Personnel grievance hearings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conferences;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Informal investigations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Proceedings before agencies that have adopted regulations governing that agency's hearings; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other proceedings in which hearings are not required by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Agency” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.11.02.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Agency head” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.11.02.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Contested case” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Department” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.11.02.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Party.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Party” means a person, an agency, or another entity involved in the contested case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Party” includes any other person, agency or legal entity which may be substantially affected by the outcome of the contested case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Presiding officer” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-202(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Presiding Officer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The agency head or designee of the agency involved; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual specifically designated by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall have authority over the proceedings related to examining witnesses, admissibility of evidence, and other activities that are part of the hearing process under State Government Article, §§10-210—10-221, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notice of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agency shall provide each party an opportunity to be heard in a contested case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall provide each party written notice of a hearing mailed not less than 10 days before the date of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The presiding officer shall include in the notification of a hearing the information required under State Government Article, §10-208, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Postponement of Hearings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer may postpone a hearing upon written request by any party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Postponements may be granted for reasons satisfactory to the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The presiding officer shall notify each party of the postponement and the new hearing date.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Hearing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A party may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Appear in person to the extent permitted by law; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be represented by an attorney licensed to practice law in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a party or the party's attorney does not appear for the hearing and the presiding officer gave notice as required, the presiding officer may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Postpone the hearing under Regulation .05 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proceed upon the evidence and testimony submitted by those present.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Testimony and Evidence. The presiding officer shall conduct the hearing as it relates to testimony and evidence according to the rules under State Government Article, §§10-213 and 10-214, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Testimony shall be under oath. The oath shall be: “Do you solemnly promise and affirm under the penalties of perjury that the testimony you are about to give in the matter now pending before the agency shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth?”</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Records and Transcripts."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer shall require that a record is made of each hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The record shall include the information required under State Government Article, §10-218, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The presiding officer shall use electronic equipment or a stenographer to record a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The presiding officer shall have a transcript of all or part of the oral proceedings prepared upon the request of, and the advance payment of the cost by, a party.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Post Hearing Memoranda or Briefs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Following the hearing, the presiding officer may allow or require memoranda or briefs on the issues of fact and law involved in the contested case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Memoranda or briefs shall be filed in the form, with the number of copies, and at the time directed by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Decisions and Orders."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The presiding officer shall use a preponderance of evidence as the standard of proof, unless the standard of clear and convincing evidence is required by regulation or statute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prepare the final decision in writing or state it in the record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the final decision is in writing, forward a copy to each party or to the party's attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Include findings of fact and conclusions of law, separately stated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Include procedures and time limits for filing exceptions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the final decision maker in a contested case does not personally preside over the original hearing, the final decision for a contested case shall be made under State Government Article, §10-216, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Reconsideration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Request for Reconsideration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each party may request reconsideration of a final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The party shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Direct the request to the presiding officer who made the decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>File the request within 10 days after receipt of the final decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>State the grounds for reconsideration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The presiding officer deciding the case shall determine to grant or deny the request, in whole or in part, within 30 days of receipt of a request for reconsideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A request for reconsideration may not stay a final decision and may not stay the time for filing an appeal from the final decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If reconsideration is granted, the presiding officer shall issue an order providing for reconsideration and staying the decision under reconsideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A presiding officer may conduct a hearing under this chapter to consider further evidence or argument upon the matters being reconsidered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After reconsideration, the presiding officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Issue a written order affirming, modifying, or rescinding the original decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Immediately forward a copy of the order to each party or each party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Appeals."> <text>Each party aggrieved by a final decision is entitled to judicial review under State Government Article, §§10-222 and 10-222.1, Annotated Code of Maryland, or as otherwise provided by law.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Stays Pending Judicial Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Request for Stay.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A party seeking judicial review of a final decision may request a stay of the decision pending judicial review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A party making a request for a stay shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>File the request with the agency within 15 days of the date of the decision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include the reason for the stay;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Include a copy of the petition of appeal filed in the court having jurisdiction or a statement of the grounds for judicial review; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Serve a copy of the request on each party to the contested case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request for a stay may not extend the time for filing an appeal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The presiding officer may grant or deny a request for a stay with or without a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The presiding officer shall issue a written order granting or denying the stay, in whole or in part, and shall forward a copy of the order to each party or each party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Civil Enforcement."> <text>A party to a contested case may seek civil enforcement of an administrative order by filing a petition in the appropriate circuit court.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2; Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 12, 2004 (31:7 Md. R. 585)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Correction or Amendment of Personal Records"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>These regulations establish procedures for a person in interest to request the correction or amendment of a personal record maintained by the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations do not apply to criminal history record information defined under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Procedures for correction or amendment of criminal history record information are provided under Criminal Procedure Article, §§10-223—10-226, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.15.01.07.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Custodian” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Personal record” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-624(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Person in interest” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Public record” has the meaning stated in State Government Article, §10-611(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Requesting Correction or Amendment of a Personal Record."> <text>A person in interest requesting to correct or amend a personal record shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Make the request in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Identify the personal record to be corrected or amended;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>State the precise correction or amendment requested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>State the reason for the correction or amendment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Direct the request to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The custodian of the record; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the custodian is unknown, the Executive Director of the Human Resources Division for the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Response to a Request to Correct or Amend a Personal Record."> <text>Within 30 days of receipt of the request for correction or amendment, the custodian of the record shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Make the requested correction or amendment and inform the person in interest, in writing, of the action; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inform the person in interest, in writing, that the requested correction or amendment will not be acted on because:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The person making the request is not a person in interest;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The record to be corrected or amended is not a personal record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The personal record requested to be corrected or amended is correct; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Of any other reason that is authorized by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Disagreement with Refusal to Correct or Amend a Personal Record."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the custodian refuses a requested correction or amendment of a personal record, the person in interest may file with the head of the agency that has authority over the personal record a concise statement of the reasons for disagreeing with the agency's refusal to make the correction or amendment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The person in interest filing a statement under §A of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>File the statement in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the statement on one side of 81/2 x 11 inches paper; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Limit the statement to a maximum of five pages.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a custodian discloses, to a third party, information from a personal record related to a statement filed under §A of this regulation, the custodian shall provide the third party a copy of that statement.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Administrative Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person in interest may request an administrative review by filing a written request with the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services, if the person in interest has been denied:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An amendment or correction of a record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The right to file a statement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The right to have a statement forwarded to a third party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for review shall be filed within 30 days of the date the person in interest is advised of the agency's action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall require that an administrative review under §A of this regulation be conducted under State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.11.04.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 6, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: August 13, 1984 (11:16 Md. R. 1393)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective July 15, 1996 (23:14 Md. R. 1010)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective October 11, 2004 (31:20 Md. R. 1485)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Performance of Duty-Related Death Benefits"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Benefits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Death Benefit Eligibility — General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary, under Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland, may award a death benefit to the surviving spouse, child, dependent parent, or estate of an individual who, after January 1, 2006, died as a result of the performance of duty as a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Law enforcement officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Correctional officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Volunteer or career firefighter or rescue squad member;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>State Fire Marshal or Deputy State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Public safety aviation employee; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Subject to limitations in State Government Article, §1-202(j), Annotated Code of Maryland, hazardous material response team employee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Secretary, under Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland, may award a death benefit to the surviving spouse, child, dependent parent, or estate of Maryland resident who, after January 1, 2006, was a member of the United States military serving in the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict and died in the performance of duties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During active military service in the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>As a result of an injury sustained during active military service in the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A death benefit awarded under this chapter is subject to deductions for taxes debt or penalty owed by a decedent to a federal, state, or local government agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Funeral Expenses Eligibility — General. The Secretary, under Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland, may award reasonable funeral expenses to the surviving spouse, child, parent, or estate of an individual specified under §A(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Children” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Correctional officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Dependent parent” has the meaning stated under §152 of the Internal Revenue Code of the United States.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Employee” means an individual eligible for duty-related death benefits under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Individual serving in the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Law enforcement officer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Performance of Duties.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Performance of duties” has, in the case of an individual under §A(1)(c)—(f) under Regulation .01 of this chapter, the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Performance of duties” means, in the case of an individual under §A(1)(a) and (b) under Regulation .01 of this chapter, the individual was:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Actively participating in an official law enforcement or correctional responsibility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Going to or from an official law enforcement or correctional responsibility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Performing other duties necessary to the performance of an official law enforcement or correctional responsibility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Performance of duties” means, in the case of an individual under §A(2) under Regulation .01 of this chapter, the individual was actively participating in an official United States military responsibility in Afghanistan or Iraq.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“State Fire Marshal” means a sworn member of the Office of the State Fire Marshal as described in Public Safety Article, Title 6, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Benefit Payment Priority."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Death Benefit. When a death benefit is authorized, payment shall be made in the following priority order:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Full payment to the surviving spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If there is no surviving spouse, full payment divided equally among surviving children;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If there is no surviving child, full payment to a surviving dependent parent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If there is no surviving dependent parent, full payment to the estate of the decedent.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Funeral Expenses. When funeral expenses are authorized, payment shall be made in the following priority order:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Full payment to the surviving spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If there is no surviving spouse, full payment to the surviving child;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If there are no surviving child, full payment to a surviving parent; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If there is no surviving parent, full payment to the estate of the decedent.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notification of Benefits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>For the purpose of informing individuals who may be entitled to benefits under this chapter, the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) shall work with the Maryland Department of Veteran Affairs, other State and local government agencies and private agencies the Department determines to be appropriate, to communicate the availability of, eligibility criteria for, and application process for a benefit under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Department, with the approval of the Secretary, may establish an agreement with the Maryland Department of Veteran Affairs or other State or local government agency for the purpose of communicating the availability of, eligibility criteria for, and application process for a benefit under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Executive Director, Human Resources Services Division for the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Executive Director),or a designee, shall take reasonable steps to notify a potential recipient of the death benefit under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When the Executive Director receives information concerning the death of an eligible decedent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>After 1 year from the date of death of an eligible decedent, if no application for the death benefit for the eligible decedent is received.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Benefits Coordinator."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Executive Director, or a designee, shall ensure that statutory and regulatory requirements for administration of benefits under this chapter are met.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Executive Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Create and maintain forms necessary to apply for, process a request for, and award a benefit under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To the degree possible, establish a network to identify and notify a surviving spouse, child, dependent parent, or estate potentially eligible to receive a benefit under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Accept a request for, process a request for, and award to an eligible recipient a benefit under this chapter according to statutory and regulatory requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Establish and maintain records related to a request for, processing a request for, and awarding a benefit according to an approved retention schedule.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Applying for Death Benefit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except for provisions under §B of this regulation, an individual applying for the death benefit under this chapter shall apply to the Executive Director in writing on forms approved by the Executive Director and provide the Executive Director with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the survivor is the spouse of a decedent eligible for the death benefit:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A copy of the decedent’s death certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A copy of the decedent’s and survivor’s marriage certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A copy of the report documenting the circumstances of the decedent’s death;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An official written statement from the agency employing the decedent that the decedent died in the performance of duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If applicable, a copy of the autopsy report; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The name, address, and Social Security number of the survivor eligible to receive the death benefit payment;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the surviving child or a legal guardian or authorized representative for the surviving child is applying:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The items under §A(1)(a) and (c)—(e) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A copy of the birth certificate of the surviving child;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the surviving child is mentally or physically incapable of personal support or a legal guardian or authorized representative for the child is applying:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Those items under §A(2)(a) and (b) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A statement from a physician concerning the disability of the surviving child; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the surviving dependent parent is applying:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The items under §A(1)(a) and (c)—(f) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A copy of the birth certificate of the decedent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A copy of the decedent's most recent federal or State income tax return showing dependency of the parent.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except for provisions under §A of this regulation, an individual or agency applying for a death benefit for a Maryland individual serving in the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict under this chapter shall provide:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The appropriate information required under §A(1), A(2), A(3), or A(4) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An official report from the U. S. military verifying the decedent died while in the performance of duties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict while on active U. S. military service in Afghanistan or Iraq; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>From an injury sustained while on active U. S. military service in Afghanistan or Iraq during the Afghanistan or Iraq conflict.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Additional documentation or information may be required because of unusual or exceptional circumstances.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The information in §§A and B of this regulation shall be sent to the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services, Human Resources Services Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An application for the death benefit under this regulation shall be submitted to the Executive Director within 3 years of the death of the decedent’s death.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Applying for Funeral Expenses."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual applying for funeral expenses under this chapter shall apply to the Executive Director in writing on forms approved by the Executive Director and provide the Executive Director with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documentation that may include requirements for information established under Regulation .06 of this chapter to verify that the individual applying for funeral expenses under this chapter is eligible for the benefit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A detailed summary of funeral expenses for a decedent representing the total cost of the funeral with invoices supporting the funeral expenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual applying for funeral expenses under this chapter shall forward the required information to the Executive Director.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An aggrieved individual may appeal a decision concerning a benefit under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An appeal of an action under this chapter shall be in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Public Safety Article, §1-202; State Government Article, §9-943; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 18, 1988 (15:8 Md. R. 1015)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective April 22, 1996 (23:8 Md. R. 607)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01A amended effective April 2, 1990 (17:6 Md. R. 742)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective April 22, 1996 (23:8 Md. R. 607)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective December 22, 2003 (30:25 Md. R. 1850)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 13, 2015 (42:7 Md. R. 571)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Psychological Screening—Mandated Positions"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for psychological screening of an applicant for employment in, or reinstatement to, a mandated position with the Department.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Applicant.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Applicant” means an individual seeking employment with the Department in a mandated position who is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Initially entering State employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Currently employed by the State and seeking employment in a designated mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Applicant” includes an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Requesting reinstatement to a mandated position with the Department after the individual has been separated from the Department for more than 3 years; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Being reinstated to a mandated position with the Department as ordered by an administrative body or court if the individual has not been actively performing duties and responsibilities of the mandated position for more than 3 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Appointing authority” has the meaning stated in State Personnel and Pensions Article, §1-101(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Evaluation instrument” means a professionally developed test and protocol used by personnel managers in many fields to assess applicants for employment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Licensed Mental Health Care Professional.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Licensed mental health care professional” means an individual duly licensed, registered, or certified according to State requirements to work in the mental health field.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Licensed mental health care professional” includes, but is not limited to, a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Psychiatrist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Psychologist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Social worker;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Professional counselor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Psychiatric nurse.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Mandated position” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.10.01.01B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Psychological screening” means a process by which a licensed mental health care professional uses an evaluation instrument and, if appropriate, a personal interview to determine whether an applicant is mentally or emotionally suitable to perform the duties and responsibilities of a certain mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Requirement for Psychological Screening."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant for employment in a mandated position designated by the Department as requiring psychological screening shall participate in the Department's psychological screening process if the applicant is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Initially entering State employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Currently employed by the State and seeking employment in a designated mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Requesting reinstatement to a mandated position after separation from the Department for more than 3 years; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Being reinstated to a mandated position as ordered by an administrative body or court if the applicant has not been actively performing duties and responsibilities of the mandated position for more than 3 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Before an applicant under §A of this regulation participates in psychological screening, the appointing authority, or a designee, shall, at a minimum, ensure that the applicant has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Met the selection standards under COMAR 12.10.01 for the mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Met the requirements for a background investigation and criminal history record check under COMAR 12.10.01; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If applying under §A(1) or (2) of this regulation, received a conditional offer of employment for the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The manager of the Employee Health Services Unit shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Establish and maintain a list of mandated positions that require psychological screening; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Distribute the current list and any updates to each Department appointing authority, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Scheduling Psychological Screening."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the applicant accepts a conditional offer of employment or is being reinstated after separation or pursuant to an order by an administrative body or court and is otherwise eligible for employment in a mandated position, the appointing authority, or a designee, shall ensure that the applicant is scheduled for psychological screening by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completing a psychological screening worksheet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forwarding the completed worksheet to the Department's Employee Health Services Unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a request for psychological screening, the Employee Health Services Unit shall schedule the psychological screening and notify the appointing authority, or a designee, of the following concerning the scheduled psychological screening:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Time; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Location.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receiving notice of the scheduled psychological screening, the appointing authority, or a designee, shall notify the applicant in writing:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Of the information under §B of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>That the applicant shall produce photographic identification at the time of the psychological screening; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Of procedures for rescheduling a psychological screening under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Except for the provisions under Regulation .05 of this chapter, if an applicant scheduled for psychological screening does not appear for the psychological screening as notified under §C of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The conditional offer of employment is automatically withdrawn or the reinstatement process is discontinued; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant is subject to the conditions under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Rescheduling a Psychological Screening."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Procedure for Rescheduling.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department's Employee Health Services Unit may reschedule a psychological screening if there is a conflict between an applicant's schedule and the schedule established for the psychological screening.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An applicant requesting to reschedule a psychological screening shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make the request in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Include in the written request reasons to support rescheduling the psychological screening; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Forward the written request to the Department's Employee Health Services Unit with a copy to the appointing authority, or a designee, making notification under Regulation .04C of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Department's Employee Health Services Unit determines that the conflict is valid, the Department's Employee Health Services Unit shall reschedule the psychological screening according to the procedures under Regulation .04 of this chapter for scheduling a psychological screening.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Unless the applicant requesting to reschedule the psychological screening receives notification of a rescheduled psychological screening, the applicant shall appear for the psychological screening as originally notified under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an applicant does not appear as notified for a rescheduled psychological screening, the licensed mental health care professional shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Department's Employee Health Services Unit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The appointing authority requesting the psychological screening.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An appointing authority receiving notification under §B of this regulation shall notify the applicant, in writing, of the conditions under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Scoring a Psychological Screening Evaluation Instrument."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Department shall use an evaluation instrument to conduct psychological screening.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Once an applicant completes the psychological screening, the licensed mental health care professional shall forward the completed evaluation instrument to the individual designated by the Department's Employee Health Services Unit to score the evaluation instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within 5 days of scoring the evaluation instrument, the person scoring the evaluation instrument shall forward the scored evaluation instrument to the licensed mental health care professional who conducted the psychological screening.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Reviewing a Scored Psychological Screening Evaluation Instrument."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receiving a scored evaluation instrument under Regulation .06 of this chapter, a licensed mental health care professional shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review the scored evaluation instrument; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Advise the appointing authority, in writing, of one of the following recommendations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The applicant is suitable for employment in the mandated position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That further evaluation of the applicant is required before a recommendation can be made regarding suitability for employment in the mandated position; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The applicant is not suitable for employment in the mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the licensed mental health care professional recommends that the applicant requires further evaluation, the licensed mental health care professional shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Schedule the applicant for a personal interview with the licensed mental health care professional;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the applicant and the appointing authority requesting the psychological screening, in writing, of the date, time, and location of the personal interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Include in the notification under §B(2) of this regulation the provisions for rescheduling the personal interview according to the procedures under Regulation .05 of this chapter for rescheduling a psychological screening;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Obtain and review the applicant's background investigation material;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Conduct the personal interview; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Following the personal interview, notify the appointing authority requesting the psychological screening, in writing, of the recommendation as to the applicant's suitability for employment in the mandated position under §A(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the applicant does not appear for the original or a rescheduled personal interview:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The licensed mental health care professional shall notify the appointing authority, or a designee, requesting the psychological screening; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The appointing authority, or a designee, notified under §C(1) of this regulation shall notify the applicant, in writing, of the conditions under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Reapplication."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an applicant does not appear for a rescheduled psychological screening or personal interview, the appointing authority may not consider the applicant for employment in the mandated position with the Department for 1 year from the date of the last application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If, following the review of a scored evaluation instrument under Regulation .07 of this chapter, the licensed mental health care professional does not recommend the applicant as suitable for employment in the mandated position, an appointing authority may not consider the applicant for employment in a mandated position with the Department for 3 years from the date of the most recent application for employment in a mandated position.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Confidentiality of Psychological Screening Information."> <text>An appointing authority, or a designee, shall maintain the results of, and other information related to, a psychological screening in a manner that ensures confidentiality and compliance with the legal requirements for the retention of employment medical records.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="08" heading="State Fire, Rescue, and Ambulance Fund Administration" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 11, 1994 (21:7 Md. R. 531)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective November 26, 2001 (28:23 Md. R. 2054)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="09" heading="Inmate Welfare Fund"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>These regulations provide policy and procedures for administration of inmate welfare funds at Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) correctional and detention facilities.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Commissary.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Commissary” means a contractual service operation from which an inmate may purchase food, health items, and other sundry merchandise to enhance the inmate’s health and welfare needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Commissary” does not include a cafeteria or lunchroom.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Inmate” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Inmate’ includes an individual referred to as a:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Resident; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Detainee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Emergency” has the meaning stated in COMAR 21.01.02.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Emergency procurement” means the acquisition of goods or services under COMAR 21.05.06.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Inmate welfare fund” means a fund used to benefit the general inmate population that is derived primarily from commissions from vendors who provide:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Commissary services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Vending machines services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Managing official” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §1-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Funding Administration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each Department correctional or detention facility shall establish and maintain an inmate welfare fund according to this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Inmate Welfare Fund Board (Board) shall oversee inmate welfare fund administrative activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Board membership shall consist of the following Department personnel:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secretary (Chairman);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Deputy Secretary for Operations (DSO);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Deputy Secretary for Administration (DSA);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Commissioner of Correction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Commissioner of Pretrial Detention and Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Director of Patuxent Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Assistant Attorney General assigned to the Department (Principal Counsel);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Chief Financial Officer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Director of Procurement Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Board, at a minimum, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Review existing and proposed cost allocations for Department inmate-related programs to determine the use of inmate welfare funds in the subsequent budget year;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Identify and quantify priority projects to be supported with inmate welfare funding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Identify the type of expenditures that require Board approval;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Identify the type of expenditures and the dollar amount delegated to Operations that may be disbursed without Board approval;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Determine the amount each Department correctional and detention facility’s inmate welfare fund is obligated to contribute to Department inmate-related programs; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Prepare a year-end report that identifies all inmate welfare fund revenues and expenditures by type and dollar amount for the previous fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Board, at a minimum, shall meet twice each fiscal year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Deputy Secretary for Operations shall provide administrative support staff for the Board who shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Schedule meetings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Document Board discussions and decisions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>File and maintain records of discussions and decisions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Perform other duties related to Board activities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Inmate Welfare Fund Expenditures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inmate welfare funds are reserved for the following Department programs and services:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate Grievance Office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Priority inmate-related projects.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each managing official shall have the authority to approve inmate welfare fund expenditures authorized by the Board under Regulation .03 of this chapter, if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility maintains adequate inmate welfare funds to make the required contribution to Department-related programs listed under §A of this regulation before the end of each fiscal year; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The available balance of the facility inmate welfare fund does not drop below zero after the expenditure is made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before a managing official uses inmate welfare funds to procure goods or services that have not been authorized by the Board, the managing official shall obtain authorization from the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A request to the Board under §C of this regulation shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The facility to which the expenditure is to be charged;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A description of the item to be purchased;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The total amount of the proposed expenditure with detailed cost information as appropriate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Justification for the proposed expenditure; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The current inmate welfare fund account balance at the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A copy of the Board’s approval of a request submitted under §C of this regulation shall be attached to the related purchase order.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Interest Earned on Inmate Welfare Funds."> <text>If applicable, interest earned on inmate welfare fund money, except for operating expenses, shall be deposited in the inmate welfare fund.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 10-502, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: August 15, 1994 (21:16 Md. R. 1384)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective August 16, 2004 (31:16 Md. R. 1256)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective March 2, 2015 (42:4 Md. R. 434)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended as an emergency provision effective September 23, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772);</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">emergency status expired 1/1/2014</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective March 2, 2015 (42:4 Md. R. 434); October 9, 2017 (44:20 Md. R. 946)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended as an emergency provision effective September 23, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772);</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective March 2, 2015 (42:4 Md. R. 434); October 9, 2017 (44:20 Md. R. 946)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended as an emergency provision effective September 23, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772);</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective March 2, 2015 (42:4 Md. R. 434)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A, D amended effective October 9, 2017 (44:20 Md. R. 946)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 adopted as an emergency provision effective September 23, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772);</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 adopted effective March 2, 2015 (42:4 Md. R. 434)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="10" heading="Private Home Detention Monitoring Agencies"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish requirements for the licensing and operation of private home detention monitoring agencies.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Approved location” means the monitored individual's residence and any location designated by the court where the monitored individual is permitted to be.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Central Repository” means the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Continuously signaling” means a type of electronic monitoring that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Uses a transmitter affixed to a monitored individual, a receiver and dialer, telephone, and host computer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>When used in proper combination:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Continuously detects whether the monitored individual is at the approved location, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Detects and notifies a private home detention monitor of the time that the monitored individual leaves the approved location.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Escape” means an act in which a monitored individual violates any restriction on movement imposed under the terms of a home detention order or agreement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Home detention” means a system of monitoring that requires a monitor to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verify the activities of a monitored individual while in the community; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Determine the monitored individual's presence at an approved location, using either:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Continuously signaling, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Satellite monitoring.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“License” means a certificate issued by the Secretary authorizing the licensee to operate a business that provides monitoring services for a fee to a monitored individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Licensee” means a person who has been issued a license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Monitor” means a private home detention monitor as defined in §B(12) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Monitored individual” means an individual who is under a court order that requires monitoring by a private home detention monitoring agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Monitoring” means the activities by which a private home detention monitoring agency determines the location or activities, or both, of a monitored individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Monitoring agency” means a private home detention monitoring agency as defined in §B(13) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Private home detention monitor” means an employee or owner of a monitoring agency who performs, within the State, the activities by which a private home detention monitoring agency determines the location or activities, or both, of a monitored individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Private home detention monitoring agency” means a person conducting a business that provides home detention for a fee to a monitored individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Satellite monitoring” means a type of electronic monitoring that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Uses a transmitter affixed to a monitored individual, wireless and land line communication devices, and host computer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>When used in proper combination:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Continuously detects the location of the monitored individual, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Detects and notifies a private home detention monitor of the monitored individual's location at all times.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Statement attesting to good character and reputation” means a notarized statement made under oath by a reputable citizen, having no financial or other interest in a private home detention monitoring agency, who resides in the county of residence of the subject individual, attesting to the good character and reputation of the subject individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Working day” means a day other than Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="License Required."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private home detention monitoring agency may not operate in the State without a license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The license is not transferable to any other person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The licensee shall obtain a branch office license certificate from the Secretary for each of its branch offices.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The license or renewal license certificate shall be prominently displayed in each office and branch office of the licensee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Initial Licensing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Initial Application for License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant shall submit an application for a license on a form provided by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the applicant is an individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The applicant shall be 18 years old or older; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The application shall be signed under oath by the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the applicant is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity, the application shall be signed under oath by each partner, director, and officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The applicant shall submit with the application:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A nonrefundable application fee in the amount of $500;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Proof of general liability insurance covering all activities of the applicant in an amount not less than $100,000;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A bond that is conditioned on the faithful and honest conduct of the applicant and runs to the State of Maryland for the benefit of any person injured by any wrongful act of the applicant that is willful or malicious, in an amount not less than $2,500;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Proof of application for State and national criminal history records checks, on a form provided by the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Three statements attesting to good character and reputation, for each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The applicant, if the applicant is an individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Each partner, director, and officer of the applicant, if the applicant is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Each private home detention monitor employed or listed on the application to be employed by the applicant;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A statement, on a form provided by the Secretary, that training in the monitoring agency's policies, procedures, and electronic monitoring equipment has been provided to each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The applicant, if the applicant is an individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A partner, director, or officer of the applicant, if the applicant is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Each private home detention monitor employed or listed on the application to be employed by the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A statement on a form provided by the Secretary, that the applicant has the demonstrable ability to provide either satellite monitoring or continuously signaling electronic monitoring.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 45 days of receipt of an initial application, the Secretary shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Return an incomplete application, with instructions for completion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grant the application and issue a license to the applicant; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Initiate a complaint and issue a notice for denial of a license under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An initial license is valid for 2 years from the date issued, unless earlier suspended or revoked.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Renewal Licensing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>At least 2 months before the expiration of a license, the Secretary shall send by U.S. mail to the licensee, at the licensee's last known address, a renewal application, and a notice that states:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The date the current license expires;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The amount of the renewal application fee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>That the renewal application must be received by the Secretary at least 21 days before expiration of the current license to avoid a lapse in licensure and the imposition of late fees; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>That a false statement on the renewal application is cause for license denial or revocation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Renewal Application.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A licensee shall submit a renewal application on a form provided by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the licensee is an individual, the renewal application shall be signed under oath by that individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the licensee is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity, the renewal application shall be signed under oath by each partner, director, and officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The licensee shall submit with the renewal application:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A nonrefundable renewal application fee of $100;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Proof of general liability insurance covering all activities of the licensee in an amount not less than $100,000;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A bond that is conditioned on the faithful and honest conduct of the licensee and runs to the State of Maryland for the benefit of a person injured by any wrongful act of the licensee that is willful or malicious, in an amount not less than $2,500;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Certification, on a form provided by the Secretary, together with supporting documentation, that the monitoring agency has paid all withholding taxes, Social Security taxes, and other governmental obligations as an employer for the preceding 2 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A certificate of compliance issued by the Workers' Compensation Commission or the policy or binder number of workers' compensation insurance, as provided by Labor and Employment Article, §9-105, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A receipt from the State Comptroller's Office, or other documentation authorized by the Secretary, showing that the monitoring agency has paid State income tax liabilities for the preceding 2 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A late fee of $10 per day if the application is not received by the Secretary at least 21 days before expiration of the current license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A statement, on a form provided by the Secretary, that training in the monitoring agency's policies, procedures, and equipment has been provided to each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The licensee, if the licensee is an individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A partner, director, or officer of the applicant, if the applicant is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Each private home detention monitor employed or listed on the renewal application to be employed by the licensee; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A statement, on a form provided by the Secretary, that the applicant has the demonstrable ability to provide either satellite monitoring or continuously signaling electronic monitoring.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within 21 days of receipt of a renewal application, the Secretary shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Return an incomplete renewal application, with instructions for completion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Grant the renewal application, and issue a renewal license; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Initiate a complaint and issue a notice for denial of a renewal license under Regulation .10B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If a complete renewal application is received by the Secretary at least 14 days before the expiration of a license, and if a renewal license is not issued before the expiration of the current license, the current license shall continue to be in effect until either:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The renewal application is granted and a renewal license is issued; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The renewal application is denied, and the time for seeking judicial review of the denial has expired.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A renewal license is valid for 2 years from the date of expiration of the current license, unless suspended or revoked.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Continuing Obligations of Licensee."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A licensee shall maintain an office in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A licensee shall keep in an office in the State all files or other records that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Are made in the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Relate to individuals monitored by the licensee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Notice of Addition or Deletion of Branch Office or Change of Address.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A licensee shall submit, within 21 days, written notice to the Secretary of the addition or deletion of a branch office, or a change of address of an office of the licensee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The notice shall be accompanied by a photocopy of the relevant license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any license superseded by an amended license shall be returned to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A licensee shall submit, within 5 working days, written notice to the Secretary of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The departure of a partner, director, officer, or monitor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The arrest or conviction of a partner, director, officer, or monitor for a misdemeanor or felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The cancellation or forfeiture of the insurance or bond required by this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A change in the telephone or pager number by which the licensee may be reached during business and nonbusiness hours;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The loss or destruction of a license; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Knowledge that a previous statement made to the Secretary by the licensee in an application, notice, communication, or document is false or misleading.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Before a licensee adds a partner, director, or officer, or employs a monitor, the licensee shall submit to the Secretary, on a form provided by the Secretary, information and documentation pertaining to that individual that is required as part of the initial application for license in Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A licensee shall maintain a daily count of the number of monitored individuals enrolled with the monitoring agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>By the 15th day of each month, a licensee shall submit to the Secretary a report, on a form provided by the Secretary that includes, but is not limited to, the following information for the preceding calendar month:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals being monitored on the first day of the month, categorized by the type of electronic monitoring used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals for whom monitoring was initiated during the month, categorized by the type of electronic monitoring used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals for whom monitoring was ended during the month, categorized by the type of electronic monitoring used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals being monitored on the last day of the month, categorized by the type of electronic monitoring used and county served;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals who violated the court order or program rules, and the number of monitored individuals removed from monitoring for a violation, categorized by the type of monitoring used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The number of instances for which the licensee was required to provide notification in accordance with Business Occupations and Professions Article, §20-401, Annotated Code of Maryland for a monitored individual who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violates a condition of home detention monitoring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Tampers with home detention monitoring equipment or fails to maintain home detention monitoring equipment as required by a court order; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Enters an area that the monitored individual was expressly prohibited from entering as a condition of pretrial release or probation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The number of instances for which the licensee provided notification as set forth in §G(6) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The number of monitored individuals who, in violation of a condition of release to private home detention, received a new criminal charge or conviction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>For each monitored individual indicated in §G(8) of this regulation, provide:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The full name of the monitored individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The monitored individual’s supervising judicial jurisdiction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written explanation of the condition violated by the monitored individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The date the court was notified of the violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A licensee shall submit to the Secretary documentation, as may be requested during an audit or investigation, to substantiate compliance with this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A licensee shall maintain on a continuous basis:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Appropriate permits and licenses required to do business in areas which are zoned to permit the operation of the business;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Corporate and tax records required by the laws of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>General liability insurance in an amount not less than $100,000;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A surety bond of not less than $2,500; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Training consisting of education in the monitoring agency's policies and procedures, and instruction in the use of electronic monitoring equipment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The monitoring agency licensee shall receive training in the use of electronic monitoring equipment from the manufacturer or its authorized representative.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Criminal History Records Check."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before the submission of an initial application for a license and the addition of a partner, director, officer, or monitor, the following individuals shall apply to the Central Repository for State and national criminal history records checks:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant, if the applicant is an individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each partner, director, and officer of the applicant, if the applicant is a corporation, partnership, business trust, limited liability company, or other entity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Each private home detention monitor employed or listed on the application to be employed by the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Each added partner, director, officer, or monitor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual applying for State and national criminal history records checks shall submit to the Central Repository:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completed forms required by the Director of the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Two sets of legible fingerprints taken at a State or local law enforcement office in the State or other location approved by the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The mandatory processing fee required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The fee required by the Criminal Justice Information System as authorized by Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221(b)(7), Annotated Code of Maryland, for a State criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the Secretary of the receipt of an application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Process the State and national criminal history records checks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Provide to the Secretary a conviction only criminal history records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Send to the subject individual by U.S. mail a printed statement listing a finding of a felony conviction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Finding of a Felony Conviction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A finding of a felony conviction may be contested by the subject individual by submitting to the Director of the Central Repository, within 30 days of the date of the printed statement, a written request for a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a written request for a hearing is received by the Director of the Central Repository within 30 days of the date of the printed statement, the matter shall proceed in accordance with COMAR 12.15.03.10. Notwithstanding any provision in COMAR 12.15.03.10, a failure by the subject individual to appear at a scheduled hearing shall result in dismissal of the proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a written request for a hearing is not received by the Director of the Central Repository within 30 working days of the date of the printed statement, or if the Director of the Central Repository does not make a final determination that the subject individual has no felony conviction, the individual is ineligible to be a monitor. If the subject individual is a partner, director, officer, applicant, or licensee, the applicant or licensee is ineligible for a license and this ineligibility may be the basis for a complaint initiating a proceeding for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Denial of a license application; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Suspension or revocation of a license.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards for Electronic Monitoring."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A monitoring agency using continuously signaling equipment to monitor an individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maintain equipment in good working order that is capable of monitoring 24 hours a day using a transmitter affixed to a monitored individual, a receiver and dialer, telephone, and host computer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inform the monitored individual about the use of the equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Test the equipment before use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure the proper installation of the equipment on the monitored individual and, if applicable, at the individual's approved location as ordered by the court; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Electronically monitor the monitored individual at an approved location, except for a time specified by the court order or a time of an approved activity, or both.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A monitoring agency using satellite monitoring equipment to monitor an individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maintain equipment capable of tracking a monitored individual 24 hours a day using global positioning satellite, cellular, or wireless technology;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inform the monitored individual about the use of the equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Test the equipment before use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure the proper installation of the equipment on the monitored individual and, if applicable, at the monitored individual's approved location.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Standards of Operation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Within 6 months of initial licensing, the licensee shall have and enforce the following written policies and procedures:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the orientation of a monitored individual before the activation of monitoring equipment, which shall include instructions regarding the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Equipment use and care,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Expectations for others at the approved location,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Rules and regulations of the monitoring agency,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Internal complaint process,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Access to case records by the monitored individual, attorneys, and the court,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Emergency situations,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A change in the monitored individual's schedule,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The process for the termination of monitoring, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Notification that a violation of the home detention order or agreement may be considered an escape and subject to prosecution and imprisonment, which includes the requirement that the monitored individual sign an acknowledgement of this notification;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the enrollment of a newly received individual in the monitoring agency, which includes provisions for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of a legal document noting the conditions and stipulations ordered by the court,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A system of identification of the monitored individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Collection of personal data pertaining to the monitored individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Approval by the leaseholder or owner of the approved location,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Approval by the owner of the required telephone service,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Verification of the monitored individual's approved location,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Notification to the court that the monitored individual is enrolled in the monitoring agency's program, specifying the type of electronic monitoring to be used, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Installation of appropriate electronic monitoring equipment on the monitored individual or at the monitored individual's approved location, or both, if required;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A written policy and procedure for establishing the monitored individual's schedule as ordered or permitted by the court, including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establishment of the initial schedule signed and dated by the monitored individual and the monitor who prepared it,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Modification of the schedule to allow for court-approved activities,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A temporary court-approved change, initialed by the monitor making the change, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Review of the schedule with the monitored individual at least monthly, signed and dated by the monitored individual and the monitor;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing fees, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Establishing the fee to be charged to a monitored individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Collection of fees,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Action to be taken against a monitored individual who is in arrears, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Recording of fee payments received;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the monitoring of an individual which includes provisions for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Enough monitors on duty so that the number of individuals being monitored does not pose a threat to public safety, but not less than one monitor on duty and one on call and available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Drug or alcohol testing, or both, of a monitored individual as ordered by the court,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>In-person contact by a monitor as ordered by the court, but not less than monthly,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Circumstances for a monitor's visit to the monitored individual's approved location,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Verification of the monitored individual's attendance at, and status of, employment or a court-ordered activity, or both, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Immediate notification to the local law enforcement agency, and next working day notification to the court that ordered home detention, the State's attorney and the supervising probation agent, if applicable, when a monitored individual is determined to have escaped;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A written policy and procedure for the verification of the monitored individual's participation in court-ordered work and other community activities, including provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Documentation of scheduled activities, which shall be provided not less than every other week, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Documentation of unscheduled activities, which shall be provided as soon as possible, but not later than the next working day;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A written policy and procedure on the transportation of a monitored individual by a monitor in a vehicle that is properly licensed and insured for that purpose, or a policy prohibiting a monitor from transporting a monitored individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the termination of monitoring an individual, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of identity,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authorization to discharge the monitored individual, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notification to the court and to affected agencies and individuals as required by law or ordered by the court;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>In accordance with Business Occupations and Professions Article, §20-401, Annotated Code of Maryland, a written policy and procedure governing when a monitor is required to notify the court, the designated law enforcement agency, and the Division of Parole and Probation if private home detention monitoring is a condition of probation, when a monitored individual has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violated a condition of home detention monitoring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Tampered with home detention monitoring equipment or failed to maintain home detention monitoring equipment as required by a court order; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Entered an area that the monitored individual is expressly prohibited from entering as a condition of pretrial release or probation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A written policy and procedure that includes provisions for a backup source of power, the resumption of monitoring, and notification to the appropriate authority, detailing plans for the following emergencies at the monitored individual's approved location:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Power outage,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Loss of telephone service,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fire,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Flood,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Malfunction of equipment, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Other emergencies;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A written policy and procedure detailing contingency plans for the monitoring agency's operation, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Power outage or loss of telephone service,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Death, serious illness, incapacitation, or personal emergency of a monitor,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Financial hardship or insolvency of the monitoring agency,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Movement of monitoring equipment or the transfer of monitoring services if the monitoring agency's office becomes unusable,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Prompt notification to the government agency responsible for supervising the monitored individual, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Prompt notification to the court that ordered the monitoring;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>A written policy prohibiting discrimination against a monitored individual with regard to programs, services, or activities on the basis of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Race,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Religion,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>National origin,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Gender, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Disability;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that reasonable accommodations are made for an individual with a disability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that, at orientation and before monitoring starts, a monitored individual is given written information describing the program and the expectations for a monitored individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>A written policy prohibiting a monitored individual from supervising, monitoring, controlling, or exerting or assuming authority over another monitored individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>A written policy ensuring the right of a monitored individual to choose a monitoring agency unless otherwise ordered by the court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring access by a monitored individual to information pertaining to the individual's monitoring if the individual is referred to the court for a program violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that a monitored individual does not have unauthorized access to files, computers, and computer records of the monitoring agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring the confidentiality of, and methods of authorized access to, a case record by the monitored individual, a person in interest, and an individual or agency making a formal request, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Identification of an individual authorized to approve access,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of materials subject to disclosure and restriction in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A form used by a monitored individual for consenting to the release of information, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of access decisions;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>A written policy and procedure establishing a case record for a monitored individual, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage in a manner which prevents unauthorized access by a monitored individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specification of file content and order,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A signature and date on documents and entries,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Daily back-up of, and date and author's identity on, electronic documents, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Establishment of a records retention schedule with documentation of dispositions;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring the maintenance of payment records showing receipts of payments of fees;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that electronic or paper records of the monitoring of a monitored individual are available:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To an appropriate authority as soon as possible, but in not more than 2 working days,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For at least 3 years after the monitored individual completes the monitoring program or until the next audit by the Maryland Commission on Correctional Standards, whichever is later;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for the retention of a monitored individual's case record for not less than 3 years after the completion of monitoring services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that the monitoring agency office is secure when not occupied;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, accountability, storage, and use of electronic monitoring equipment, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage, making equipment inaccessible to a monitored individual,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Visual inspection, not less than once per month, of equipment worn by the monitored individual to determine its condition,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A master listing and inventory,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Availability of at least one complete backup unit for every 25 units in use,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Responses to system malfunctions,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Restricted password access to authorized staff of base station hardware, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Maintenance and cleaning of equipment;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that an agreement with a contractor for monitoring services includes provisions for compliance with this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>A written policy and procedure prohibiting certain relationships with a monitored individual, including, but not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A monitoring agency or employee associating with an individual monitored by that agency, except in a professional relationship that will support the goals of the program,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A monitoring agency or employee entering into another business relationship with a monitored individual or monitored individual's family during the monitoring,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A monitoring agency or employee employing a monitored individual for at least 1 year after the termination of the monitoring, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A monitoring agency or employee engaging in criminal conduct or violating these standards; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that a monitoring agency or employee maintains confidentiality of records and information regarding a monitored individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The licensee shall conduct an annual review of policies and procedures and orientation materials and ensure their availability to staff.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Penalties and Sanctions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary may deny an application for a license, suspend or revoke a license, or reprimand a licensee, for reasons including, but not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant or licensee commits any act or fails to act as specified in Business Occupations and Professions Article, §20-314, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant or licensee violates any federal, State, or local law or regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The applicant or licensee fails to perform any order of the court pertaining to a monitored individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any partner, director, officer, or monitor of an applicant or licensee is not of good character and reputation for reasons including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Conviction of a felony,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conviction of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Violation of the laws or regulations governing monitoring agencies;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The applicant or licensee provides to the Secretary a false or misleading statement or document;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The applicant or licensee fails to meet the minimum standards of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The applicant or licensee, or any employee of the applicant or licensee, has a relationship with a monitored individual that could reasonably result in reduced public confidence in the integrity of private home detention monitoring.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Procedures for Denying a License to an Applicant, Suspending or Revoking a License, or Reprimanding a Licensee.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A complaint shall be initiated by the Secretary or made to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A complaint shall be in writing, signed by the complainant, and shall state the facts on which the complaint is based.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A complaint to the Secretary shall be made under oath by the complainant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>On receipt of a complaint, the Secretary shall investigate the complaint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>At the conclusion of the investigation, the Secretary shall determine whether there is a reasonable basis for grounds for denial of a license or other penalty. If there is no reasonable basis, the complaint shall be dismissed by the Secretary with notice to the complainant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Notice of Action To Be Taken.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>On the basis of the allegation of a complaint which is not dismissed under this regulation, the Secretary shall determine the appropriate action and shall send by U.S. mail a notice to the applicant or licensee that action shall be taken unless the applicant or licensee submits, within 30 days of the date of the notice, a written request for a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The notice shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A copy of the complaint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A reference to a pertinent law or regulation, or both;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The action to be taken; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A copy of COMAR 12.11.04.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If a written request for a hearing is not received by the Secretary within 30 days of the date of the notice, the Secretary shall take the action specified in the notice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If a written request for a hearing is received by the Secretary within 30 days of the date of the notice, the matter shall proceed in accordance with COMAR 12.11.04.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 20; Correctional Services Article, §§2-109 and 11-726, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.11 adopted as an emergency provision effective June 29, 1999 (26:16 Md. R. 1239); emergency status extended at 27:1 Md. R. 73; emergency status expired June 30, 2000 (Emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.10 adopted effective August 7, 2000 (27:15 Md. R. 1401)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06G amended effective May 27, 2024 (51:10 Md. R. 528); March 30, 2026 (53:6 Md. R. 291)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A amended effective March 30, 2026 (53:6 Md. R. 291)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="11" heading="Visiting Individuals Confined in a Correctional Facility" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.15 adopted as an emergency provision effective August 26, 2013 (40:19 Md. R. 1542); emergency status extended to June 30, 2014 (41:2 Md. R. 89); emergency status expired June 30, 2014</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="12" heading="Patuxent Institution"> <chapter num="01" heading="General Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Mission."> <text>The mission of Patuxent Institution is to reduce the rate of reincarceration by providing appropriate clinical assessment and treatment services within a secure environment to both mentally disordered or physically impaired inmates of the Division of Correction. Comprehensive and systemic habilitative opportunities shall be provided to assist inmates to become economically competitive, socially productive, and law-abiding citizens. In meeting this mandate, due regard to the safety of the public, correctional staff, and the inmate population shall be of paramount importance.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Purpose and Philosophy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The purpose of the Institution is to provide efficient and adequate programs and services for treatment with the goal of rehabilitation of eligible persons. This shall include a range of program alternatives indicated by the current state of knowledge to be appropriate and effective for the population being served. As an integral part of its program an effective research and development effort will be established and maintained to evaluate and recommend improvements on an ongoing basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Programs, Services, and Goals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In keeping with the purpose and philosophy, the Institution will provide a range of programs and services including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmate evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Community supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Research;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Program evaluation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Professional training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Institution's operations will be guided by the following policy-relevant goals:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Respond to the identified needs of eligible persons, employ the best affordable methods of mental health care, and provide the highest possible quality of care that will enable eligible persons to return to the community as productive, law-abiding citizens;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide a full range of mental health services responsive to the needs of eligible persons, and provide continuity of care by moving these persons among programs as their needs change;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide full protection of the rights of eligible persons within legal mandates and Departmental policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Provide for long-term service needs in the environment which provides the most appropriate level of security necessary to meet the eligible person's needs while protecting the public safety.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Board of Review” means the Patuxent Institution Board of Review, created by Correctional Services Article, §4-205, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Chronically mentally disordered” means exhibiting a recurrent pattern of major psychiatric illness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Chronic youthful offender” means an individual who has been tried in accordance with Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-804(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and who exhibits a persistent pattern of conduct, typically manifested before the age of 18, in which the basic rights of others and other age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated. The behavior pattern typically is present in the home, at school, with peers, and in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Conditional release” means any leave, work release, school release, or parole status granted to an eligible person by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of Patuxent Institution or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction, which may include the Patuxent Institution D.C. Building, or any other housing units as designated by the Secretary during an emergency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Eligible person” means a Division inmate who has met the criteria for eligibility specified in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.03.05.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Emotional imbalance” means a diagnosable and treatable mental disorder, which includes but is not limited to the disorders defined in §B(2) and (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Evaluation team” means the team of Patuxent staff that evaluates Division inmates to determine whether they are eligible persons, and includes at a minimum a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Social worker or behavioral scientist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Psychologist; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Psychiatrist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Institution” means Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Intellectual deficiency” means impaired intellectual functioning for which treatment may be ameliorative, and includes but is not limited to mental retardation, as defined in §B(14) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Mentally retarded” means exhibiting significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning, accompanied by significant deficits or impairments in adaptive functioning, with onset before the age of 18.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Noneligible person” means a Division inmate who does not meet the criteria for eligibility as specified in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.03.05, or an eligible person who no longer meets these criteria.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Prerelease status” means leaves, work release, school release, or any other type of out-of-institution status granted to an eligible person, except parole, as authorized by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Prescreening” means the preliminary assessment conducted by the Division to determine whether a Division inmate is eligible to be referred to the Institution for evaluation, as specified in COMAR 12.12.02.01 or .02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Treatment team” means a unit of treatment personnel, which includes a psychiatrist, psychologists, and social workers. There are four treatment teams (or treatment units) at the Institution. Each inmate is assigned to a specific treatment unit, and the inmate will usually remain with the same unit throughout the inmate's stay at the Institution. The treatment unit is responsible for the inmates assigned to their unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Victim” means a person who suffers personal physical injury or death, or, if the victim is deceased, a designated family member, as set forth in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(i), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Warden” means the Warden of Patuxent Institution or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Annotation: Former COMAR 12.12.01 “Public Information Requests” under Subtitle 12 “Emergency Management and Civil Defense Agency” adopted effective January 7, 1982 (8:26 Md. R. 2106) was repealed September 24, 1984 (11:19 Md. R. 1667)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Prescreening for Referral"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General Referral Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To be eligible for referral to the Institution for evaluation, Division inmates shall meet both of the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Have at least 3 years remaining on their sentences of criminal imprisonment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Have not been evaluated by the Institution, or admitted to the Institution as an eligible person, within the preceding 3 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The following Division inmates are excluded from eligibility for referral to the Institution for evaluation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>With the exception of inmates incarcerated for crimes committed on or before July 1, 1987, inmates serving two or more sentences of imprisonment for life under the provisions of Criminal Law Article, Title 2, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With the exception of inmates incarcerated for crimes committed on or before July 1, 1987, inmates serving one or more sentences of imprisonment for life when a court or jury has found, beyond a reasonable doubt, that one or more aggravating circumstances existed under the provisions of Criminal Law Article, §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>With the exception of inmates incarcerated for crimes committed on or before March 20, 1989, inmates convicted of murder in the first degree, rape in the first degree, or a sexual offense in the first degree, unless the sentencing judge, at the time of sentencing or in the exercise of the judge's revisory power under the Maryland Rules, recommends to the Commissioner that the inmate be referred to the Institution for evaluation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmates who have unresolved interstate or federal detainers, or pending charges.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Special Populations Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall give special consideration to the referral of inmates who meet the criteria specified in Regulation .01 of this chapter, and who also meet one or more of the following special populations criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Chronically mentally disordered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Chronic youthful offenders who meet the criteria of Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-804(e), Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Mentally retarded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>With the approval of the Secretary, the Director shall establish guidelines for the Division to use in making the determination specified in §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The chief psychologist or classification team of a Division facility shall make the determination specified in §A, using the guidelines developed by the Director under §B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Recommendation for Referral."> <text>All Division inmates who meet the referral criteria set forth in Regulation .01 or .02 of this chapter may be recommended to the Commissioner for referral for evaluation under the provisions set forth in Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Referrals for Evaluation from the Division of Correction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following persons may recommend to the Commissioner that an inmate, who meets the criteria specified in Regulation .01 or .02 of this chapter, be referred to the Institution for evaluation as to whether or not the inmate is an eligible person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The sentencing judge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The State's Attorney of the jurisdiction in which the inmate was last convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A member of the Commissioner's staff, including the chief psychologist or classification team of a Division facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An inmate, by self-referral.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall maintain a list of Division inmates eligible to be referred to the Institution for evaluation. The Commissioner's list shall be submitted monthly to the Director.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Evaluation Process"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General."> <text>The Institution, in accordance with the availability of current program vacancies, shall assign an evaluation team to determine the eligibility of Division inmates referred by the Commissioner. The Institution shall maintain a list of Division inmates who have been evaluated and found to be eligible for Institution programs when vacancies occur.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Evaluation Team."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A minimum of three members of the evaluation team shall examine the referred inmate at either a Division of Correction facility or at the Institution. The members of the evaluation team who examine the inmate shall include a social worker or a behavioral scientist, a psychologist, and a psychiatrist. The selection of the location for the examination shall be at the discretion of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The evaluation team shall meet at the Institution to determine whether the Division inmate is an eligible person, according to the criteria specified in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Records Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the examination is to be conducted at a Division of Correction facility, the records needed by the evaluation team shall be assembled by the Division as specified below:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The following documents from the base file:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Copy of commitment order,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Admission summary,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Copy of sentencing guidelines,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigation, parole, probation, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate, or documentation that none exist,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Police reports and other relevant information concerning the crime for which the inmate was most recently convicted and the sentence imposed upon that conviction,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>State's version of the crime,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Prior criminal and juvenile history and all relevant records concerning it,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Disciplinary record, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Correspondence from judges and State's Attorneys relating to their referral and recommendation of inmates to the Institution;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>School records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's prior medical history, including any relevant medical and hospital records and reports and the inmate's medical file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's prior mental health history, including the inmate's psychological file, previous psychological or psychiatric evaluations, record of psychiatric medications, progress notes, and records of any previous psychiatric, drug abuse, or alcohol abuse treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>All other relevant information, records, and reports concerning the inmate's social, physical, or mental condition and history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the examination is to be conducted at the Institution, the Division shall ensure that all of the records specified in §A of this regulation accompany the Division inmate to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Resources."> <text>The evaluation team shall be provided the workspace and resources necessary to carry out the examination.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Eligibility Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A Division inmate shall be considered an eligible person if the evaluation team reaches all of the following conclusions:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate meets all of the referral criteria specified in COMAR 12.12.02.01 or .02;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate has an emotional imbalance or intellectual deficiency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate can be expected to benefit from current programs and services provided at the Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate can be better habilitated through the Institution's programs and services than by other incarceration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In making the determination required by §A of this regulation, the evaluation team may consider the following information concerning the Division inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Age;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The nature of the offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Current sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Prior criminal history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Disciplinary record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Clinical criteria, as approved by the Director and the Secretary, to be used by the evaluation team in selecting candidates for vacancies in the roster of a specific program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Findings."> <text>After its review, the evaluation team shall develop a list of inmates in the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Eligible persons, who may be admitted to the Institution when program vacancies occur; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Noneligible persons, who may not be admitted to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Written Reports."> <text>The evaluation team shall deliver a report to the Director recommending whether the inmate is an eligible person or a noneligible person. The report shall support the team's findings with respect to each of the criteria set forth in Correctional Services Article, §2-113, Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Inmate Transfers"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Interstate Corrections Compact” means the statute enabling a state to contract for the transfer of an inmate in the state to another state for confinement, treatment, and rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Member state” means a state which has enacted legislation to implement the Interstate Corrections Compact, and which has a contractual agreement with Maryland for the purpose of transferring inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Voluntary transfer” means the return to the Division of an inmate referred to the Institution for evaluation, or of an eligible person admitted to the Institution for treatment, when the Division inmate or eligible person has made a request in writing to leave the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Voluntary Transfer to the Division of Correction."> <text>All Division inmates referred to the Institution for evaluation, and all eligible persons committed to the Institution for treatment, have the right to transfer from the Institution to the Division by written request. Voluntary transfers are governed by the following rules:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A referred inmate or eligible person may request transfer at any time after arrival at the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of the request the Commissioner shall, within 90 days from the date of receipt, arrange for the inmate's transfer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After transfer the inmate is not eligible to return to the Institution for 3 years from the date of transfer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Involuntary Transfer to the Division of Correction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the evaluation team concludes that the inmate is not an eligible person, the Director shall notify the Commissioner and send the Commissioner a copy of the team's report. Within 30 days after that notice, the inmate shall be delivered to the appropriate correctional facility designated by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the Board of Review determines that an eligible person is no longer eligible to remain in the Institution's program, the Director shall notify the Commissioner and send the Commissioner a copy of the evaluation team's report. Within 90 days after that notice, the inmate shall be delivered to the appropriate correctional facility designated by the Commissioner.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After transfer the inmate is not eligible to return to the Institution for 3 years from the date of transfer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Interstate Corrections Compact Transfer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an inmate desires to transfer to another member state, the inmate shall be instructed to request a voluntary transfer from the Institution to the Division, and the provisions of Regulation .02 of this chapter shall apply.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Institution shall notify the Division of the inmate's desire to transfer to another member state pursuant to the Division's Interstate Corrections Compact procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Treatment Programs and Assessment During Treatment"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Inmate progress review” means the system by which eligible persons are assigned to Institution jobs, receive Institution job security classification, and are assigned to levels in the graded tier system. These assignments are based on an evaluation of the security risk posed by the eligible person and on the eligible person's progress in Institution programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Progress review committee” means the team of staff members who are responsible for assigning eligible persons to Institution jobs, job security classifications, and levels in the graded tier system. There are four progress review committees at the Institution, one for each treatment unit. Each committee is composed of all treatment staff from the respective unit, a custody supervisor appointed by the Warden, and a member of the Education Department appointed by the Institution's Director of Education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall develop specifically defined treatment programs to enable the Institution to comply with its mission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In designing these treatment programs, the Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identify specific clinical disorders to be treated and researched at the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specify a comprehensive assessment methodology that will enable the Institution to identify potentially treatable inmates suffering from a diagnosable clinical disorder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Develop a specific treatment program for each clinical disorder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Develop an appropriate mechanism to monitor, measure, and assess the efficacy of each program, through a plan of continuing program evaluation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Develop a mechanism for quality assurance that provides for the periodic review and revision of each program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Treatment Programming."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each treatment program developed by the Director for a specific clinical disorder or disorders shall be governed by a set of clinical guidelines, which shall include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A description of the clinical disorder or disorders to be treated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The current professional standards of practice for the treatment of the clinical disorder or disorders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The specific treatment methods to be applied at the Institution in treating the clinical disorder or disorders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The specific outcome measures for determining the effectiveness of the treatment in each case.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The treatment unit shall develop an individualized treatment plan for each eligible person, and the treatment plan shall be approved by the Associate Director for Treatment. The treatment plan shall identify the eligible person's clinical disorder, and the specific therapeutic interventions to be used to ameliorate the disorder.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Assessment During Treatment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The treatment assessment shall begin at the time a Division inmate is found to be an eligible person and transferred to the Institution for treatment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The treatment assessment shall include comprehensive clinical reports, individual treatment plans, progress notes, and any other information prepared by the staff for the eligible person's annual consideration by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Assessments shall be ongoing, and with the approval of the Board of Review, an eligible person may be continued in treatment or returned to the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Inmate Progress Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The progress review committee for each treatment unit shall review and decide the disposition of tier level demotions and promotions, job assignments, and job security classifications for each eligible person assigned to the treatment unit. Decisions of the progress review committee shall be by majority vote of the voting members of the committee present at the meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each decision of a progress review committee that results in a change, positive or negative, in an eligible person's tier level, job assignment, or job security classification shall be documented by recording the vote, supporting rationale, and dissenting rationale on a progress review results form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An affected eligible person shall be given a brief written statement setting forth the committee's decision, with a statement of reasons in support of the decision, without reflecting the vote of each committee member.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Assignment of Job Security Level."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Institution is a maximum security correctional facility operated by the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services. An eligible person in the Institution's program is assigned a security level for the purposes of job assignment only. For all other purposes, an eligible person in the Institution's program is considered to be a maximum security inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Job Security Levels.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The job security levels available to eligible persons are described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maximum. Eligible persons with this job security level shall be restricted to jobs done completely within the interior of the Institution's buildings. This classification shall automatically apply to all new arrivals to the Institution and shall remain in effect until revised by the proper action of the progress review committee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Close. Eligible persons with this job security level shall be restricted to jobs that do not require the eligible person to work outside the Institution's perimeter. Only eligible persons on third or fourth level tiers shall be granted close security unless otherwise authorized by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Status. Eligible persons with this job security level shall be allowed to work in jobs that require the eligible person to be outside of the Institution's perimeter under supervision. Only eligible persons granted prerelease status by the Board of Review shall be allowed the job security level of status, and these eligible persons shall automatically receive the job security level of status upon the Board of Review's grant of prerelease status to the eligible person. Eligible persons on prerelease status shall retain the job security level of status while they remain housed in the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The progress review committee shall consider the following factors in deciding whether to assign an eligible person to a specific job security level:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Eligible person's need for supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Adjustment in the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Length of sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Nature of the eligible person's offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Progress in treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Therapeutic requirements of the eligible person.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Board of Review"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Composition and Qualifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board of Review shall have nine members including four institutional members and five public members. Of the five public members, one shall be a member of a victim's rights organization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The four institutional members of the Board of Review shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Associate Director, Warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Associate Director, Treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Associate Director, Behavioral Science, who shall serve as Executive Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The five public members of the Board of Review shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be members of the general public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of the Senate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Serve a term of 4 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Be paid as provided in the State budget.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Chairman of the Board of Review shall be appointed by the Governor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Powers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>During its annual review of each eligible person, the Board of Review shall consider the eligible person's response to treatment and decide whether the eligible person may continue in treatment or be returned to the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In addition, the Board of Review may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Grant, revoke, extend, or change the conditions governing the status of an eligible person, including eligible persons on leave, work release, and school release status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Revoke, extend, or modify the conditions governing the status of a paroled eligible person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Recommend to the original sentencing court that a paroled eligible person be released from supervision, and the remaining sentence be suspended or vacated, after the paroled eligible person has successfully completed 3 years on parole without violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Recommend to the Secretary parole for eligible persons serving nonlife sentences for crimes committed after March 20, 1989;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Recommend to the Governor parole for eligible persons serving life sentences for crimes committed after July 1, 1982 and on or before March 20, 1989;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Recommend to the Secretary and the Governor parole for eligible persons serving life sentences for crimes committed after March 20, 1989;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Grant parole to eligible persons serving nonlife sentences for crimes committed on or before March 20, 1989, and to eligible persons serving life sentences for crimes committed on or before July 1, 1982;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Ratify the issuance of retake warrants for eligible persons on prerelease status and parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Order the return to the Institution of an eligible person on prerelease status or parole, for the purposes of a special appearance before the Board;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Decide grievances of an eligible person on prerelease status or parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Decide matters without a hearing concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Compassionate leaves for eligible persons on prerelease or parole status,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Leave schedules and dates for eligible persons on prerelease or parole status, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Requests from eligible persons on prerelease status or parole;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Recommend interstate compact agreements for paroled eligible persons with other jurisdictions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Conduct annual reviews of the status of each eligible person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Recommend policies to the Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Consider only those matters approved by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The unit treatment teams shall make recommendations for changes in an eligible person's status to the Director, and upon the approval of the Director these recommendations shall be forwarded to the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Hearings."> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct hearings as required by law or these regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Meetings and Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board of Review shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Meet not less than once per month and may meet more often as needed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct executive sessions during its regular meetings to discuss issues relating to eligible persons and policy matters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conduct an administrative session not less than once per year to discuss broader policy issues; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Hold informal hearings in all matters, except as provided elsewhere in this subtitle.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Board of Review meetings are closed to the public, unless the Board of Review has approved the attendance of a member of the public.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Quorum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A quorum of the Board of Review consists of seven members, three of whom shall be public members.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An eligible person may only be released into the community on prerelease status, or recommended to the Secretary or the Governor for parole status, if the decision has been approved by a quorum of the Board of Review, as defined in §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All other decisions of the Board of Review require a simple majority of the members present.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Secretary's Authority."> <text>Under the provisions of Correctional Services Article, §2-113, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Secretary may exercise discretion or perform any power, duty, responsibility, or function of the Institution.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-205 and 4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Leave, Work Release, and School Release"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>Eligible persons may be granted the privilege of leaving confinement during necessary and reasonable hours for the purposes of leave, working at gainful private or public employment, or attending school as part of a school release program. These programs may also include, under appropriate conditions, release for the purpose of seeking employment or schooling. Leave, work release, and school release are considered prerelease programs intended to prepare eligible persons for parole, mandatory supervision, or expiration of sentence. An eligible person does not have any right to be granted leave, work release, or school release. Leave, work release, and school release are privileges to be granted or revoked at the discretion of the Board of Review.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Leave.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Accompanied day leave” means a leave in which the prerelease inmate is accompanied into the community by an Institution staff member, usually a member of the treatment team, for the purpose of becoming familiar with the community resources, or to find employment, or to accomplish a basic task of community reentry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Compassionate leave” means a leave for a prerelease inmate authorized only for the purpose of visiting a member of the immediate family who is seriously ill or attending the funeral of a member of the family.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Holiday leave” means a special leave which follows a holiday schedule approved by the Board of Review and consists of 5 days and 4 nights at an approved place in the community. The usual holiday periods are: Washington's Birthday, Easter, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Thanksgiving, and Christmas. Prerelease inmates who have monthly leave status are eligible for holiday leave, which may be granted instead of, but not in addition to, any other leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>“Monthly leave” means a leave in which the prerelease inmate may be granted up to 3 days and 2 nights of leave to an approved place in the community once a month. The usual hours of the leave are from 7:30 a.m. on the first day to 9 p.m. on the last day.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>“Unaccompanied day leave” means a leave in which the prerelease inmate may depart the Institution at 7:30 a.m. and return by 9 p.m. The prerelease inmate shall have a specific destination which has been approved by the unit. A prerelease inmate on day leave status may have two leaves a month, which must be separated by at least 5 days unless authorized by the Director. The hours of the leave may be changed if necessary and if approved by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Level” means the system of treatment tiers through which an inmate may progress while confined to the Institution for treatment. There are four treatment tier levels, with level 1 having the most restrictions and the least inmate privileges, and level four having the least restrictions and the most inmate privileges and responsibilities. Inmates are promoted through the treatment tiers on the basis of their behavior within the Institution and their progress in treatment. Inmates are only eligible to be considered for the prerelease program if they are on level 4.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Parole” means a conditional release from the Institution, after a portion of the sentence has been served in confinement, to serve the balance of the sentence under supervision in the community. Parole is a privilege and not a right.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“School release” means conditional leave from the Institution for participation in an education program offered in the community and deemed beneficial to the treatment of the prerelease inmate, and not detrimental to the public. School release is a part of the Institution's treatment program to prepare the prerelease inmate for survival in the community upon parole, mandatory supervision, or expiration of sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Work release” means a conditional leave from the Institution for participation in an employment program offered in the community and deemed beneficial to the treatment of the prerelease inmate, and not detrimental to the public. Work release is a part of the Institution's treatment program to prepare the prerelease inmate for survival in the community upon parole, mandatory supervision, or expiration of sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="General."> <text>The Board of Review has the power to grant, revoke, or modify an inmate's prerelease status.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Public Safety Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for any form of prerelease status, the Board of Review shall consider the following public safety criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The compatibility of the release of the inmate on leave, work release, or school release with the safety and welfare of society;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of the inmate's sentence and the amount of time served on the current term of imprisonment to date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The nature of the crime for which the inmate is currently incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The circumstances surrounding the crime for which the inmate is currently incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The determination that leave, work release, or school release would not depreciate the seriousness of the inmate's crime, promote disrespect for the law, or have an adverse effect on Institution discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The existence of any unresolved out-of-State or federal detainers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Any reports or recommendations made by the inmate's victim or victims, or a representative designated by the victim;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Any reports or recommendations made by the sentencing judge, State's Attorney, or a professional medical consultant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Any other factors or information which the Board of Review may find relevant in assessing the risk to public safety which may be posed by placing the inmate on prerelease status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(1) of this regulation, the Board shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal and juvenile record, and prior incarceration, parole, and probation records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's past use of narcotics, other controlled dangerous substances, or alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's family status and family stability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A recent assessment of the inmate's propensity toward violence conducted by a mental health practitioner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Any reports or recommendations made by the Institution treatment or custody staff concerning the likelihood that the inmate will remain at liberty without violating local, State, or federal laws or the terms and conditions governing the inmate's prerelease status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The adequacy of the inmate's leave, school, or work release plan, which shall include information concerning employment plans, occupational skills, and job potential.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Progress-in-Treatment Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for prerelease status, the Board of Review shall consider the following progress-in-treatment criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's overall progress in treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's overall behavior and adjustment while incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether prerelease status would assist in the inmate's treatment by enhancing the inmate's ability to lead a law-abiding life;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Whether the inmate has successfully functioned in any previous prerelease status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Any other factors or information which the Board of Review considers relevant in assessing the inmate's progress in treatment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(1) of this regulation, the Board of Review shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The reports or recommendations of the Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's adjustment on level 4;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether the inmate's treatment level history demonstrates progressive responsibility in moving from level 1 to level 4;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's participation in Institution treatment programs and self-help programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Whether the inmate has demonstrated emotional maturity and insight into his or her problems, as assessed through the reports or recommendations of the Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The inmate's ability and readiness to assume obligations and undertake responsibilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The inmate's educational, vocational, and other training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(2) of this regulation, the Board of Review shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's Institution disciplinary record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's current attitude towards discipline and other authority, as assessed through the reports or recommendations of Institution treatment and custody staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct a hearing to determine the appropriateness of granting or revoking leave, work release, or school release. Hearings shall consider the recommendations of the inmate's unit treatment team.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A record shall be maintained of the hearing noting the date, the vote of the Board of Review, and the outcome of the proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct hearings at the Institution in accordance with a preestablished schedule.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Procedure for Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A leave, work release, or school release hearing is an interview of the inmate by the Board of Review. Attendance shall be restricted to authorized Institution staff, except that other interested persons, including victims, may attend with the approval of the Board of Review. The hearing is private and shall be held in an informal manner, allowing the opportunity to give free expression to an inmate's views and feelings relating to the case. Formal presentations by an attorney, relatives, victims, and other interested persons are not permitted at the hearing. Attorneys, relatives, victims, and other interested persons may submit information in writing for the Board of Review's consideration before the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Detailed reports shall be furnished by those familiar with the inmate to assist the Board of Review in its deliberations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The unit treatment team or work release supervisor from the treatment unit assigned to the inmate shall attend all hearings concerning that inmate. The inmate's work release supervisor or other unit member having knowledge of relevant facts shall be available to provide new information which may have developed since the date of the reports furnished to the Board of Review and to assist in answering questions which may arise concerning the inmate or Institution policy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Granting Leave, Work Release, and School Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Leave, work release, or school release may not be granted unless approved by the affirmative vote of a quorum of the Board of Review, as defined in COMAR 12.12.06.05A.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Victim Comment, Victim Notification, and Police Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall give the inmate's victim a reasonable opportunity to comment in writing before the Board of Review decides whether to grant leave, work release, or school release to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The victim may designate, in writing to the Board of Review, the name and address of a representative, who is a resident of the State, to receive notice for the victim that the inmate will be considered for leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review shall delete the victim's address and telephone number before examination of any document by the inmate or the inmate's representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the victim cannot be located, the judge holding jurisdiction over the inmate's sentence may be contacted for comment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the victim of its decision regarding leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the police department possessing jurisdiction over the locality in which an inmate's crime was originally committed whenever an inmate has been approved for leave, work release, or school release status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the inmate of its decision regarding placement on leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a waiver of extradition form is completed by an inmate before authorizing an inmate for leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A member of the inmate's unit treatment team shall ensure that the waiver of extradition form is filed in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Governing Rules.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before starting a leave, work release, or school release program, the inmate shall sign an agreement that affirms the inmate's understanding of the regulations governing the leave, work release, or school release programs. These regulations are as found in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not go outside the limits of the State without the written permission of the Institution Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not commit any act which would be a violation of any federal law, State law, or municipal ordinance, and shall conform to all rules of conduct imposed by the Institution or an authorized representative of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release shall report back to the Institution at the time specified on the pass, or wherever and whenever an authorized representative of the Institution may direct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not own, possess, use, buy, sell, or have under his or her control any firearm or weapon of any description.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not enter into any contract to engage in business, borrow money, enter into any installment contract, incur any debt, or acquire ownership of any motor vehicle without first having obtained written permission from the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not unlawfully possess, use, buy, sell, or have under his or her control any narcotic drug, controlled dangerous substance, or related paraphernalia.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release shall submit to any test or search that is prescribed by the Institution or its authorized representative to detect the usage of alcohol or controlled dangerous substances, or the possession of contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>If work release has been granted by the Board of Review, and the court has ordered restitution as part of the sentence or as a condition of probation, the Board of Review shall require the inmate to make restitution payments.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not engage in conduct that would pose a threat to public safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release may not drink any intoxicating beverage.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release shall have a pass in his or her possession at all times while outside the confines of the Institution and shall notify the Institution in case of emergency or to resolve questions of identity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The inmate on leave shall request approval from the Board of Review to withdraw additional funds from his or her financial accounts for his or her personal needs and to defray the cost of transportation to and from the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release shall deposit all wages in the Institution's business office on a weekly basis, unless otherwise specified, together with an attached voucher indicating the number of hours worked, hourly wages, deductions, and number of days worked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>The inmate on leave shall strictly adhere to the times and geographical locations specified on the inmate's leave itinerary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Work release or school release inmates shall use their time outside the Institution for purposes of work or attending school. Work or school attendance is regularly supervised by the Institution. Employers or school supervisors are requested to call the Institution if the inmate does not report as scheduled. In appropriate cases, inmates on work release or school release may be granted leaves for purposes other than work or school attendance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Inmates on leave status are not permitted to use their leaves for the purposes of engaging in employment. This does not prohibit the authorized search for employment in preparation for work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Unless otherwise indicated, a work release or school release inmate shall report to the community supervision clinic for supervision as scheduled.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Housing of Inmates Granted Work Release or School Release Privileges."> <text>The Institution shall designate facilities for the housing of inmates granted work release or school release privileges.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Monitoring and Supervision of Leave, Work Release, and School Release Participants."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Every participant in the prerelease program shall be monitored and supervised in the community to assure the continued safety of the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Associate Director for Treatment and the administrator of the reentry facility shall develop and implement a plan for community supervision of participants in the work release and school release programs. The plan shall be approved by the Director, and shall include procedures for work or school site visits, home visits, and documentation and reporting of any prerelease violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following shall be responsible for managing the community monitoring program and shall see that the personnel performing the monitoring tasks meet the requirements of the plan developed pursuant to §B of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For the leave program, the unit treatment team chairman shall be the responsible manager;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the work release and school release program, the administrator of the reentry facility shall be the responsible party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A disapproval decision for leave of an inmate by the unit treatment team is subject to appeal to the Board of Review by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate who is successfully participating in the work release or school release program may be eligible for a 1-day leave. To be eligible, the inmate shall have the recommendation of the inmate's direct supervisor in the work release or school release program, meet all the leave regulations specified in Regulation .06F of this chapter, and have the approval of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An inmate released from confinement on leave or a work release or school release program who commits a major violation as delineated in Correctional Services Article, §4-306(c), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.09.03A, shall be subject to the penalties provided.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Disposition of Earnings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General. Inmates employed in the community under a work release or school release program shall surrender to the Institution their total earnings less payroll deductions required by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Institution shall deduct from these earnings, in the following order of priority, an amount determined to be the cost to the State of providing the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Food, lodging, and clothing for the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The actual and necessary food, travel, and other expenses of the inmate when released from actual confinement under the program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The amount which the inmate may be legally obligated to pay for the support of the inmate's dependents; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The amount ordered to be paid by the court as restitution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>School release inmates receiving a stipend or other monies not subject to payroll deductions are not subject to room, board, clothing, and travel fees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Any balance remaining of the inmate's earnings after these deductions and payments shall be credited to the inmate's account and shall be paid to the inmate upon obtaining parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate shall use, on a weekly basis, adequate funds from a work release or school release account to defray the cost of transportation, meals, and sundries on a schedule approved by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Request for Additional Funds.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may request approval from the Board of Review to withdraw additional funds for personal needs from the inmate's work release or school release account.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate shall be provided adequate funds from the inmate's work release or school release account to meet the inmate's needs, and to assure that the inmate will have the financial means to return to the Institution. The Board of Review shall indicate the specific amount to be provided.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-303, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="08" heading="Parole"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Adjudicated Federal Detainer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” means a detainer based on an offense for which the inmate has been tried, convicted, sentenced, and committed to the custody of the U.S. Attorney General.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” does not mean a detainer based on an untried indictment, information, or complaint, or a detainer of federal parole or federal probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Medical parole” means a parole granted to an inmate because of a diagnosed serious medical condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Parole” means a conditional release from the Institution, after a portion of the sentence has been served in confinement, to serve the balance of the sentence under supervision in the community. Parole is a privilege and not a right. Parole may be revoked in accordance with the procedures described in COMAR 12.12.12.03.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Parole may not be recommended unless approved by the affirmative vote of a quorum of the Board of Review, as defined in COMAR 12.12.06.05A.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board of Review has the exclusive power to recommend an inmate for parole to the Secretary or the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Date Crime Committed.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The required approval for parole status depends on the date that the crime for which an inmate is incarcerated was committed, and whether an inmate is serving a life or nonlife sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmates Serving Life Sentences.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If an inmate's crime was committed on or before July 1, 1982, the inmate may be paroled by the approval of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an inmate's crime was committed after July 1, 1982 and on or before March 20, 1989, the inmate may be paroled by the recommendation of the Board of Review and the approval of the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If an inmate's crime was committed after March 20, 1989, the inmate may be paroled by the recommendation of the Board of Review and the approval of the Secretary and the Governor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmates Serving Nonlife Sentences.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the inmate's crime was committed on or before March 20, 1989, the inmate may be paroled by the approval of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If an inmate's crime was committed after March 20, 1989, the inmate may be paroled by the recommendation of the Board of Review and the approval of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Victim Comment, Victim Notification, and Police Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall give the inmate's victim a reasonable opportunity to comment in writing before the Board of Review decides whether to grant parole to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The victim may designate, in writing to the Board of Review, the name and address of a representative, who is a resident of the State, to receive notice for the victim that the inmate will be considered for parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the victim cannot be located, the judge holding jurisdiction over the inmate's sentence may be contacted for comment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Board of Review shall delete the victim's address and telephone number before examination of any document by the inmate or the inmate's representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the victim of its decision regarding parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the police department possessing jurisdiction over the locality in which an inmate's crime was originally committed whenever an inmate has been released on parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the inmate of its decision regarding placement on parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Board of Review has the power to revoke, extend, or modify an inmate's parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Board of Review has the authority to return the paroled inmate to the Institution if the paroled inmate's progress in the community is considered to pose a risk to public safety or pose a risk to the paroled inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The Board of Review may impose special conditions on paroled inmates.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Length of Sentence and Time Served Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for parole, if the inmate has been incarcerated for a crime committed after March 20, 1989, the Board of Review shall consider the length of the inmate's sentence and the amount of time served on the current term of imprisonment to date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate incarcerated for a crime committed after March 20, 1989, who has been sentenced to life imprisonment for rape in the first degree, a sexual offense in the first degree, or murder in the first degree is not eligible for parole until the inmate has served 15 years of the sentence, or the equivalent of 15 years when considering allowances for diminution of the period of confinement provided for by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate incarcerated for a crime committed after March 20, 1989, who has been sentenced to life imprisonment under Criminal Law Article, §2-304, Annotated Code of Maryland, is not eligible for parole until the inmate has served 25 years of the sentence, or the equivalent of 25 years when considering allowances for diminution of the period of confinement provided for by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate incarcerated for a crime committed on or before March 20, 1989, is eligible for parole at any time. The Board of Review may consider the length of the inmate's sentence and the amount of time served on the sentence to date in considering whether to grant or recommend parole.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Progress on Work Release or School Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for parole, the Board of Review shall determine whether the inmate has performed successfully on work release or school release. Letters from employers, friends, family members, and others, which describe the inmate's adjustment on work release or school release, shall be permitted to go to the Board of Review for the purpose of parole consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In determining successful performance on work release or school release, the Board of Review shall consider an inmate's progress based upon the public safety criteria and progress-in-treatment criteria specified in COMAR 12.12.07.04 and .05.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>To make these determinations concerning parole, the Board of Review shall also consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Whether the inmate has successfully participated in a substance abuse program while on work release or school release, if appropriate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Whether the inmate has continued to demonstrate emotional maturity and insight, as assessed through the reports and recommendations of Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's ability and readiness to assume obligations and to undertake responsibilities to live in the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's community resources, and the stability of the family that will assist the inmate to return to the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The inmate's physical health; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Any other factors or information which the Board of Review may find relevant to the inmate's consideration for parole.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Medical Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The criteria for medical parole consideration are that the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate is imminently terminal, or has a condition which would indicate that continued imprisonment would serve no useful purpose, for example, an irreversible coma; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate's release would not unduly jeopardize public safety.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Contents of Medical Parole Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that all documents forming the basis for a medical parole request are submitted to the Board of Review. If a quorum of the Board of Review recommends the inmate for a medical parole, the recommendation shall be submitted to the Secretary for consideration when the inmate is serving a nonlife sentence, and to the Secretary and the Governor when the inmate is serving a life sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To initiate consideration for a medical parole, the inmate's unit treatment team shall send a summary of the inmate's incarceration record since admission to the Director. The summary shall include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>History of program participation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Special housing requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Reasons for the recommendation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An aftercare treatment plan for the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A statement by the attending physician which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Diagnosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Prognosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Inpatient or outpatient status, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Criteria justification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review may reject a recommendation for medical parole that has been submitted by the Director. The Board of Review's decision to deny a medical parole is final.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Parole to Adjudicated Federal Detainer."> <text>An inmate with an adjudicated federal detainer shall be subject to the same procedures and criteria in being considered for parole to meet the detainer as an inmate who does not have an adjudicated federal detainer.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Granting of Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before starting a parole program, the inmate shall sign an agreement that affirms the inmate's understanding of the regulations governing parole, as set forth in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The regulations outlined in COMAR 12.12.07.06F(1)--(10) shall also apply to parolees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The parolee shall make a reasonable effort to remain gainfully employed or otherwise occupied, as directed by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The parolee may not change his or her place of residence or employment without first having obtained the permission of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The inmate may not be released on parole until the order of parole is presented and acknowledged by the inmate's signature. An inmate shall be released on parole as soon as practical after a favorable decision, unless:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review has specified a deferred release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The investigation of the community resources of the inmate to be paroled indicates that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The parolee is likely to be unemployed upon release, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The parolee is without a satisfactory home plan; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The parole plan has not been approved by the Board of Review as specified in Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The order of parole shall bear the signature or facsimile of the signature of a member of the Board of Review and the official seal of the Board of Review. Another member of the Board of Review shall attest the signature.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Board of Review may, for the safety and welfare of the inmate on parole and for the safety of the public, impose reasonable special conditions to be complied with before release on parole.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Parole Release Plan."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A parole release plan shall be completed and submitted before the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Elements in a release plan include, but are not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The name of the parolee's employer or evidence of other legitimate means of financial support;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The location at which the parolee will reside; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The nature of any community services necessary to meet the special needs of the parolee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Modification of Release Plan.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate's parole release plan previously approved by the Board of Review may only be altered or changed by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Board of Review may, from time to time, and upon good cause, change or modify the conditions of an inmate's parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>In case of modification, the parolee shall be given the opportunity to show cause why a condition should not be changed, added, or modified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The parolee may request a hearing before the Board of Review to discuss the modification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Monitoring and Supervision of Parolees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each parolee shall be seen by an assigned parole supervisor or designee for parole supervision in accordance with the terms of parole established by the Board of Review. Every contact with a parolee shall be documented by the supervisor or the designee. Contact shall include both scheduled and unscheduled meetings, and meetings may take place in the field, home, place of employment, and any other place assigned.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Schedule of Meetings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall establish a schedule of required supervisory meetings between parolees and their parole supervisors and shall make adherence to that schedule a written condition of parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>First-year parolees shall meet with their parole supervisor a minimum of once each week.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Second-year parolees shall meet with their parole supervisor a minimum of once every 2 weeks.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Third-year parolees shall meet with their parole supervisor a minimum of once each month.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Recommendations for a change in a parolee's supervision schedule shall be presented to the Board of Review for final approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The parolee shall be seen at a Board-approved designated location in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The supervisor or designee shall prepare a written report of every scheduled or unscheduled contact with a parolee, including unkept appointments, and shall make that report a part of the parolee's official record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A parolee, when seen, shall present proof that the parolee is maintaining steady employment, attending substance abuse group meetings if appropriate, and living at a specified address. This information will be verified and documented.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A parolee shall give a random urine specimen as required by the parolee's supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A parolee shall discuss the problems or the progress that the parolee is having in the community and the types of relationships that the parolee may be establishing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A parolee may be subject to a search for contraband during the parolee's visit by the parole supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Periodic job checks and home checks shall be made by the parole supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A parolee functioning on Interstate Compact or paroled to meet a detainer shall be monitored at least yearly by a designated employee of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>A parolee shall be employed or enrolled in school, and have a legitimate means of financial support. If unemployed or unemployable, the parolee shall have a legitimate means of financial support while on parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>When paroled, an inmate shall receive all current funds in the inmate's active and reserve accounts, which have been maintained at the Institution. If paroled from work release, the inmate shall receive 100 percent of their work release account upon being paroled, less the deductions specified in COMAR 12.12.07.09B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>A parolee shall be counseled concerning the benefits of establishing savings accounts at financial institutions in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>A parolee who needs financial assistance shall be referred to appropriate community agencies and assisted in the application processes of the community agencies by a parole supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-305, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="09" heading="Major Violations and Penalties for Eligible Persons on Conditional Release"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>For the purpose of maintaining order, discipline, and security, the Institution establishes rules of behavior which it expects eligible persons to obey and sanctions that may be imposed for violation of these rules. The purpose of any sanction shall be to aid in the maintenance of order, discipline, and security within the Institution or within the community, to punish the offender, and to deter future misbehavior.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Conditional release” means any of the forms of release status, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(5).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Disciplinary Committee” means the panel of three Institution staff members whose purpose is to conduct hearings and impose penalties for eligible persons who violate the Institution's rules. The panel is composed of one custody supervisor, one treatment staff member, and one member of the education department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Escape” means when an eligible person leaves the confines of the Institution by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Breaching the Institution's security perimeter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Failing to return from an authorized prerelease status, that is, work release, school release, or day or overnight leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Escaping from escort officers while outside the confines of the Institution; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Absconding from parole supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Incident report” means a less severe disciplinary action that is disposed of informally. Incident reports are not appealable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Notice of infraction” means the official document that charges an eligible person with violating an Institution rule.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Parole violator” means a paroled eligible person who has failed to comply with any of the conditions of his or her parole agreement, or who has committed a new offense while paroled.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Specification of Major Violations."> <text>Major violations of Institution rules shall include:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Escape from parole, work release, school release, or leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Failure to return from parole, work release, school release, or leave within 1 hour of the time due, unless the failure to return was due to causes beyond the control of the eligible person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Commission of a new offense, other than a minor traffic violation, while on parole, work release, school release, or leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Commission of a major violation of the Institution's disciplinary rules, which shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Altering, destroying, or damaging any item valued at $50 or over,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Arson,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Attempting to commit any major violation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Creating a disturbance,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Hoarding authorized medication,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Interfering with or obstructing a staff member from performing the staff member's duties,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Possession of a weapon,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Possession of implements reasonably expected to be used in an escape,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Refusing a direct order when the refusal jeopardizes the security or order of the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Rioting or inciting a riot,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Any sexual acts involving others, or directed towards others, within the Institution or the reentry facility,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Soliciting, conspiring, being an accessory to, or aiding and abetting the commission of a major violation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Soliciting or attempting to influence an employee to jeopardize the security of the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Tampering with or misusing any communication system in such a way as to jeopardize the security of the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Throwing excrement,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Unauthorized possession, sale, use, passing, or receiving of drugs, controlled dangerous substances, alcohol, or drug paraphernalia,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Assault or battery, or both, on an inmate, staff member, correctional officer, visitor, or any other person,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Threatening another inmate, staff member, correctional officer, visitor, or any other person, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>Unauthorized physical contact with another inmate, staff member, correctional officer, or visitor;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Violation of any parole, work release, school release, or leave rule not categorized as a minor violation under the regulations of the Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Use of any controlled dangerous substance if the eligible person is not entitled to use the controlled dangerous substance under the laws of this State.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Disciplinary Procedures Pertaining to Major Violations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall ensure that major violations are disposed of formally, in accordance with established procedures concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The status of the alleged violator pending formal disposition, that is, the determination of the need for temporary segregation from the general population;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The timely serving of the notice of infraction to the alleged violator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notice to the alleged violator that he or she has the right to representation by a staff member, or an eligible person, who volunteers to represent the alleged violator; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Notice to the alleged violator that he or she has the right to call witnesses on his or her behalf.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 24 hours of the alleged major violation, the Warden shall review the circumstances of the alleged violation and approve or disapprove the decision to place the alleged violator on temporary segregation, and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Forward the notice of infraction to the Disciplinary Committee for a hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Reduce the notice of infraction to an incident report, notify the eligible person and reporting staff member in writing of the action taken, and if the eligible person does not consent to have the notice of infraction reduced to an incident report, the matter shall proceed to a hearing pursuant to §B(3) of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Return the notice of infraction to the reporting staff member for correction of inaccuracies or inadequacies, clarification of statements, or substantiation of charges, if these deficiencies are noted, and forward the revised notice of infraction to the Disciplinary Committee for a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that all Disciplinary Committee hearings are conducted in accordance with established procedures concerning:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The timeliness of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The alleged violator's right to appear before the Disciplinary Committee for a hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The alleged violator's right to waive the right to appear at the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Disciplinary Committee's right to conduct a hearing in absentia and render a decision, upon receipt of the alleged violator's waiver of the right to appear or documented refusal to appear;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to be advised of the charge or charges against him or her;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to enter a plea;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to cross-examine each witness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to testify on his or her own behalf;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator not to testify on his or her own behalf, without inference of guilt;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The right to be represented by a staff member or an eligible person who volunteers to represent the alleged violator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to present the testimony of his or her witnesses, provided that the chairman of the Disciplinary Committee determines that the witnesses' testimony may be relevant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator or his or her representative to examine any real evidence, at the discretion of the chairman, provided it would not endanger the security of the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to request a postponement of the proceedings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>The right of the alleged violator to be informed of the Disciplinary Committee's factual findings, the disposition, and the reasons for the decision, and to receive a copy of the findings and disposition; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>The right of the violator to appeal the decision of the Disciplinary Committee to the Director within 48 hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>All proceedings before the Disciplinary Committee shall be recorded on audio recording tape and stored by the Institution for a period of 1 year from the date of the disciplinary hearing, unless the Institution has received notice of an appeal of the disciplinary result to the Inmate Grievance Commission or notice of a pending action in a court of law. If notice has been received, the tape shall be preserved pending a final decision in the forum or forums in which action is pending.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Authority of the Disciplinary Committee."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An eligible person is entitled to a hearing by the Disciplinary Committee if the eligible person has been charged with an Institution violation and fails to consent to the notice of infraction being reduced to an incident report.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a Disciplinary Committee hearing results in a finding of guilt, the Committee may impose penalties on the eligible person as it deems appropriate under the circumstances, with the exception of the removal of the eligible person from the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Removal from the Institution."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board of Review will review all eligible persons with conditional release status who have been found guilty of charges heard by the Disciplinary Committee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §C of this regulation, an eligible person incarcerated for a crime committed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On or before March 20, 1989, who commits a major violation while on parole, work release, school release, or leave shall be confined to the Institution and shall be ineligible for work release, school release, or leave for a period of 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>After March 20, 1989, who commits a major violation while on parole, work release, school release, or leave shall be confined to the Institution and shall be ineligible for parole, work release, school release, or leave for a period of 6 months.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the Board of Review or the Secretary determines that a major violation was severe enough to warrant removing an eligible person from the Institution, the eligible person may be removed from the Institution and returned to the Division to serve the remainder of his or her original sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If an eligible person commits a second major violation while on parole, work release, school release, or leave, the person shall be removed from the Institution and returned to the Division to serve the remainder of his or her original sentence.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Corrective Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="10" heading="Escape Procedures and Notification of Escape from the Institution"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Escape” means when an eligible person leaves the confines of the Institution by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Breaching the Institution's security perimeter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Failing to return from an authorized prerelease status, that is, work release, school release, or day or overnight leave;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Escaping from escort officers while outside the confines of the Institution; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Absconding from parole supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“FBI” means the Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Jessup Regional Emergency Warning System” means the mechanism through which the Jessup community and Jessup area correctional facilities are notified of escapes, the apprehension of escapees, and mass disturbances that have occurred in Jessup area correctional facilities. This mechanism includes a siren alarm, and a recorded telephone message concerning the incident. The telephone number through which the public may access the recorded message is 410-799-1136.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Notification of Escapes from the Institution."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Institution recognizes that secure confinement and sound security are the primary responsibilities of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an inmate escapes from the custody of the Institution or the reentry facility, the Director or officer in charge of the Institution at the time of the escape shall ensure that the following notifications are made upon receiving information of an escape:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Baltimore City Police Department, Central District;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Baltimore City Police Department, Fugitive Squad;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Baltimore City Jail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Baltimore County Police Department, Major Case Squad;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Baltimore County Police Department, Investigative Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Baltimore County Police Department, Headquarters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>FBI, Fugitive Squad;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Maryland State Police, Waterloo Barracks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Maryland State Police, Criminal Justice Information Systems/Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Howard County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Anne Arundel County Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Division of Correction Investigative Unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In the event of an escape, the apprehension of an escapee, or a mass disturbance in the Institution, the Institution shall activate the Jessup Regional Emergency Warning System without delay.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Institution shall notify the Investigation Unit of the Department if an inmate escapes, or attempts to escape, and it is suspected that an Institution employee or volunteer is involved in the escape or attempted escape through:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The commission of a criminal offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Neglect of duty; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Violation of another Institution regulation that is applicable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If an inmate escapes while under escort and away from the Institution, the Director shall ensure that the local police jurisdiction or precinct where the escape occurred is notified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If an Institution escapee has a detainer for a sentence, concurrent or consecutive, and whether operative or not, the Director shall ensure that the jurisdiction which filed the detainer is notified of the escape within 24 hours of the escape. The Director shall ensure that the Institution sends a copy of the inmate escape work sheet, which references the detainer, to the concerned jurisdiction by transmittal letter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a copy of the inmate escape work sheet is placed in the inmate's base file and commitment file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Office of the Secretary is notified in accordance with established procedures for reporting a serious incident.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>In accordance with the provisions of Criminal Procedure Article, §11-1002, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Director shall ensure that the inmate's victim is notified, if the victim has filed a written request to be informed in the event that the inmate escapes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a telephone notification of an escape to the agencies listed in §B of this regulation is followed by written confirmation and an escape retake warrant.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Escape Retake Warrant Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When it has been confirmed that an inmate has escaped, the Director shall ensure that an escape retake warrant is issued. The Director shall ensure that the original warrant is mailed, using first class mail, and that a copy of the warrant is hand delivered, to the Maryland State Police, Waterloo Barracks.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the following documents accompany the original escape warrant to the Maryland State Police Headquarters, Warrant Unit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Original copy of waiver of extradition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Copy of inmate escape work sheet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Other documents as requested by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the mailing of the original escape retake warrant is delayed for more than 24 hours, the Director shall ensure that the documents listed in §B of this regulation are mailed to the Maryland State Police Headquarters, Warrant Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following persons are authorized to issue an escape retake warrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assistant Warden; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Institution shift commander.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Retake Warrant Control Log.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall establish procedures to maintain a control log, which shall include each escape retake warrant issued by the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The control log shall include the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Escape retake warrant number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date and time of issuance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Name and title of the authorized issuer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Name and Institution commitment number of the escapee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Date of the escape; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Date the escape retake warrant was mailed to the Maryland State Police Headquarters.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that all retake warrant numbers are accounted for within the control log.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that the control log is accessible to appropriate staff in the event of a police inquiry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Institution is specified as the point of return, and that the Institution's telephone number is listed, on each escape retake warrant issued.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Director shall ensure that copies of the escape retake warrant are distributed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate base file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate commitment file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Office of the State's Attorney for the jurisdiction from which the escape occurred.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Return of an Escapee to the Institution."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall coordinate the return of an escapee from another state with the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate who escapes from the reentry facility shall be returned to the Institution upon apprehension.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the appropriate Institution adjustment action is taken against an inmate upon an inmate's return from escape.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When an escapee is returned to the custody of the Institution, the Director shall ensure that a letter notifying the Maryland State Police of the inmate's return is prepared, with copies provided to the agencies listed in Regulation .02B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The notification of return from escape may be completed on a monthly basis. The Director shall ensure that the notification of return from escape includes the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Name of the returned escapee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Institution commitment number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date of the escaped inmate's return to the custody of the Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Escape retake warrant number.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the inmate's victim is notified of the inmate's return to custody from escape, if the victim has filed a written request to be informed in the event that the inmate escapes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Director shall ensure that appropriate information is prepared for the State's Attorney's Office, regarding an inmate's return from escape, and forwarded by cover letter to the State's Attorney. The Director shall ensure that procedures are established to ensure that a copy of the letter sent to the State's Attorney is also sent to the Office of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a copy of a cancelled escape retake warrant is placed in the inmate's commitment file.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="11" heading="Safety"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish a requirement for development of fire safety plans and a vehicle safety program for the Institution, including State Use Industries.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Evacuation” means to move inmates and staff from a threatened area of fire or hazard of fire.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Fire plan” means the plan of evacuation, security, first aid, and firefighting for the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Fire safety” means policy and procedure which ensures the Institution's safety from fire hazards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Fleet safety coordinator” means a person who is the assigned representative in each motor vehicle safety activity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Motor vehicle” means a device which transports a person or property.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“State vehicle” means a motor vehicle titled or leased to the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Support agency” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A utility company;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An emergency medical service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Division of Correction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Another agency which may assist the Institution in case of fire; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>An organization, business, or firm involved by a grant or contract.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Fire Plan Elements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden develops procedures to establish a fire plan in conjunction with the Fire Marshal of the locality.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden appoints a fire safety officer who has completed a qualified fire safety program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the fire plan includes the following elements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inspection by the fire safety officer of the Institution on a monthly basis with required documentation sent to the Warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Annual review and revision as needed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Availability of the plan to staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Posting of the fire plan in designated areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Establishment of teams to conduct firefighting, evacuation, security, and first aid;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fire stations for individual extinguishers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Teams for each extinguishing device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Conduct of quarterly fire drills which meet the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Under varying conditions,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On a staggered basis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>On random days,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>At random times, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>On all shifts;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Evacuation procedures associated with the conduct of a fire drill which considers security requirements and public safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Establishment of an ongoing relationship with the local fire department to ensure:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Understanding of community emergency service capabilities by Institution administration and staff, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ongoing communication and coordination;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Provision for good housekeeping standards within the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Requirement for constant vigilance by staff to detect and eliminate fire hazards;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Development of a master list of each Institution fire extinguisher which includes the following provisions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Monitoring extinguisher charge levels,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Recharging or filling of an extinguisher, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Replacement of an extinguisher which is being repaired with a fully charged, operational extinguisher;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Testing of each alarm system by the fire safety officer on a quarterly basis with requirement for maintenance of appropriate documentation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Immediate notification of any fire of significance to the Office of the Secretary and when the fire department is summoned to the Institution, the Warden shall ensure that Office of the Secretary personnel are notified in the following manner:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Assistant Secretary during normal business hours, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Department Public Information Officer during hours other than those set for normal business;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Establishment of a contingency plan, coordinated with all participants, for transferring inmates to alternate facilities under emergency conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Mandatory training requirements for each employee to ensure understanding of the fire safety plan; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Establishment of a list of support agencies which will be reviewed and updated annually.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that each employee acknowledges awareness of the Institution fire plan for the employee's place of employment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall ensure that when a fire or other emergency occurs within the Institution and the estimate of damage exceeds $1,000, the Warden submits a written report to the Office of the Secretary and the Maryland State Treasurer, Insurance Division, within 5 working days.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall reasonably ensure that each inmate is made aware of the Institution's fire response plan for inmates.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Conduct of Fire Drills."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When a fire drill is conducted, the Director shall ensure that the entire inmate population is not evacuated at one time. Sections of the Institution may be evacuated to other sections of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Warden may simulate fire drill evacuations under conditions in which evacuation would not jeopardize Institution safety and control.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Vehicle Safety and Preventive Maintenance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall ensure that procedures for establishment of a vehicle safety program are based on requirements contained in the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maryland State Vehicle Fleet Policies and Procedures as published by the Department of Budget and Fiscal Planning; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Governor's State Fleet Safety Committee Handbook.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a fleet safety coordinator is designated for the Institution. The Director shall ensure that the fleet safety coordinator implements requirements included within the Governor's State Fleet Safety Committee Handbook.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden establishes a preventive maintenance program for each vehicle.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Emergency Preparedness Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall develop and implement an emergency preparedness program for major emergencies which may affect the safety and security of the Institution. The program shall include procedures for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Establishment of command responsibility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Isolation, containment, and control of the emergency situation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reestablishment of normal operational order following resolution of the emergency situation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An emergency preparedness program shall ensure the personal safety for each of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Visitors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Civilian and security staff; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the occurrence of a major emergency included within the emergency preparedness plan is documented in accordance with Institution regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the emergency preparedness program plan is coordinated with, and communicated to, allied agencies which may be called upon for assistance during Institution emergency conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall ensure that Institution staff receive training on the emergency preparedness program plan.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Inmate Transportation and Escort Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When a group of inmates is being transported, and one or more of the inmates in the group is not on conditional release status, the Warden shall ensure that the shift commander:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Transports the inmates in a secured vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Determines the number of correctional officers assigned to escort duty and authorizes the appropriate weapons to be carried;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Restrains the inmates in accordance with Institution directives; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Assigns to escort duty at least one correctional officer of the same sex as the inmates being transported.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When transporting a group of inmates that includes only inmates on conditional release status, the shift commander may transport the inmates without restraints, using on-duty staff other than correctional officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Warden shall ensure that a correctional officer assigned to escort duty:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is qualified in the use of firearms, trained and experienced in transporting inmates, familiar with good security practices, and possesses an appropriate vehicle operator's permit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provides supervision to a probationary correctional officer who is assigned to escort duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Obtains from the Institution control center an escort identification card for an inmate to be transported, and returns the card to the Institution control center when the inmate is returned to the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensures that restraint devices remain on an inmate while in a courtroom unless the presiding judge or magistrate orders otherwise;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Obtains a written receipt for an inmate who is left in the custody of a law enforcement or other authorized agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>While escorting an inmate being treated at or admitted to an outside medical facility:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notifies medical facility security personnel when an inmate arrives at a medical facility,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Ensures that restraint devices remain on an inmate while in a medical facility, unless a health care provider, due to medical circumstances, directs otherwise,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Maintains an inmate in view at all times, unless an inmate's medical treatment makes this impossible, in which case the officer shall assume a position as close to the inmate as possible,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Ensures that an inmate only receives items which have been approved by the Institution or medical facility staff,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Ensures that an inmate is allowed to make a telephone call only when the Warden or designee has granted specific written permission,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Ensures that a visit an inmate receives is in accordance with COMAR 12.12.18, Institution directives, and medical facility policies concerning clinical and security issues, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Ensures that an inmate is allowed only in an authorized area of a medical facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="12" heading="Revocation of Status"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following term has the meaning indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Term Defined. “Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Revocation of Leave, Work Release, or School Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At any time after approval of leave, work release, or school release has been granted, it may be suspended or revoked for any reason by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Board of Review shall issue a warrant for the return to custody of an inmate who has escaped from leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct a hearing in compliance with the procedures specified in these regulations to determine the facts of the case. The hearing shall be held at the Board of Review's next regularly scheduled meeting. The inmate shall be given written notice of the hearing a minimum of 1 week in advance. The written notice shall advise the inmate of the allegations against the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>After the hearing, the Board of Review shall render a decision consistent with these regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Inmates suspended or revoked from leave, work release, or school release shall be granted all credit toward the diminution of their sentences as deemed appropriate by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any person may present information and evidence establishing reasonable suspicion that a prerelease status inmate has committed a major violation of that inmate's conditions for status. Based on the establishment of a reasonable suspicion, the inmate shall be confined to the Institution and appear before the Board of Review for a status hearing. The hearing shall be held and the inmate given notice as described in §A(3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the evidence presented to the Board of Review substantiates that a major violation was committed by the prerelease status inmate, the inmate shall be confined to the Institution and shall be ineligible for work release, school release, or leave status for a minimum of 6 months.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the Board of Review or the Secretary determines that a major violation was severe enough to warrant removing a prerelease status inmate from the Institution, the inmate shall be removed from the Institution and returned to the Division to serve the remainder of the original sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a prerelease status inmate commits a second major violation while on work release, school release, or leave, the inmate shall be removed from the Institution and returned to the Division to serve the remainder of the original sentence.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Parole Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Warrants. It shall be the duty of the reentry facility supervising staff member to make application to the Warden for a warrant of parole violation, in every case when there is reasonable suspicion to believe that the paroled inmate is a violator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Preliminary Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An alleged parole violator shall receive a preliminary hearing before a hearing examiner upon return to the Institution. The purpose of the preliminary hearing is to determine whether probable cause exists to believe that the paroled inmate violated parole and to determine the disposition of the paroled inmate pending a formal parole revocation hearing before the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An alleged parole violator shall have the following rights at a preliminary parole revocation hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The right to call witnesses on the paroled inmate's behalf;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The right to present documentary evidence on the paroled inmate's behalf;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The right to question adverse witnesses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The right to remain silent regarding any untried criminal charge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The right to request a postponement of the preliminary hearing for good cause.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The impartial hearing examiner shall be an employee of the Institution who has not been involved with the supervision of the alleged parole violator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Findings.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the hearing examiner finds no probable cause to believe that the alleged parole violator violated the parole agreement, the hearing examiner shall order that the paroled inmate be released on parole status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the hearing examiner finds that probable cause does exist to believe that the alleged parole violator violated parole, the paroled inmate shall be confined to the Institution pending a formal parole revocation hearing before the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Revocation Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A quorum of the Board of Review, as defined in COMAR 12.12.06.05A, is authorized to conduct these hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Scheduling.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A parole revocation hearing shall be held within 90 days of the conclusion of the preliminary hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Board of Review may, for good cause shown, postpone a parole revocation hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A paroled inmate is entitled to counsel of his or her choice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The parole supervisor shall be present at the hearing to report on the activities of the paroled inmate and the circumstances of the alleged violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A paroled inmate shall have the same rights as listed in §B(2) of this regulation, and shall be given written notice of the hearing a minimum of 1 week in advance. The written notice shall advise the paroled inmate of the facts and circumstances constituting the alleged violation or violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Burden of Proof.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Board of Review shall assure that all decisions are based upon a preponderance of the evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Institution shall bear the burden of proof.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Findings.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Board of Review shall provide an inmate with a written statement of the evidence relied on and the reasons for revoking or not revoking parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the Board of Review finds that no violation occurred, the paroled inmate shall be returned to parole status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>If the Board of Review finds that a violation has in fact occurred, the Board of Review may take whatever action it considers appropriate consistent with Correctional Services Article, Title 4, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.09.06.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>All parole revocation hearings shall be recorded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Revocation of Eligible Person Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Under the authority of Correctional Services Article, Title 4, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Board of Review is empowered to revoke an inmate's eligible person status upon finding that the inmate no longer meets the criteria outlined in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.03.05.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Revocation Procedure.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The revocation procedure shall be as described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The treatment unit shall state their reasons for recommending that the inmate's eligible person status be revoked. The treatment unit's report shall confirm that the inmate no longer responds favorably to the programs and services provided at the Institution and the reason that the inmate can no longer be better habilitated through these programs and services than by other incarceration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Procedures delineated in COMAR 12.12.04.02A, concerning voluntary transfers, apply to revocation of eligible person status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="13" heading="Mandatory Supervision and Release Upon Expiration of Sentence"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Mandatory supervision” means the release of an inmate from the Institution to the supervision of the Division of Parole and Probation, on the date that the inmate has served the equivalent of his or her full sentence minus allowances for diminution of the period of confinement or sentence provided for by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Maximum Expiration Date.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Maximum expiration date” means the date computed by adding an inmate's total sentence length to the beginning date of the first sentence with the earliest start date which is part of the inmate's then current term of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Maximum expiration date” includes adjustments for time out of custody without credit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Release by expiration of sentence” means the release of an inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Whose only sentences are for offenses committed before July 1, 1970, and who has served the term or terms of confinement to which the inmate was sentenced less the diminution of confinement deductions provided for in Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, and Title 11, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Who has actually served the day for day maximum term or terms of confinement to which the inmate was sentenced.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Total sentence length” means the period covered by the inmate's then current term of confinement excluding time out of custody without credit. If the inmate is serving a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Single sentence, it is the period of confinement under that sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Combination of concurrent sentences, it is the period of confinement between the earliest starting date of those sentences and the latest expiration date of those sentences;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Combination of consecutive sentences, it is the period of confinement between the starting date of the first consecutive sentence and the expiration date of the last consecutive sentence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Combination of concurrent and consecutive sentences, it is the period of confinement between the earliest starting date of the sentences and the last expiration date of the sentences.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General."> <text>An inmate shall be released and transferred from the Institution in accordance with normal procedures established by law.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Diminution of Confinement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each inmate admitted to the Institution is entitled to a diminution of the period of commitment or total sentence length, up to a maximum allowable deduction of 15 days per calendar month, in accordance with the provisions of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate shall be allowed an initial deduction from the period of commitment or sentence, subject to the inmate's future good conduct. This deduction shall be calculated at the rate of 5 days for each calendar month, and on a prorated basis for any portion of a calendar month, within the period between the first day of commitment to the custody of the Commissioner and the inmate's maximum expiration date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>For each calendar month during which an inmate has manifested exceptional industry, application, and skill in the performance of industrial, agricultural, or administrative tasks assigned to the inmate, the inmate may be allowed an additional deduction of 5 days from the period of the commitment or sentence. These deductions shall commence on the first day that the task is performed and shall be made on a prorated basis for any portion of a calendar month during which the inmate performed the task.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>For each calendar month during which an inmate has manifested satisfactory industry, application, and progress in vocational or other educational and training courses, the inmate may be allowed an additional deduction of 5 days from the period of the commitment or sentence. These deductions shall commence on the first day that the inmate participates in these courses and shall be made on a prorated basis for any portion of a calendar month during which the inmate participated in the course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Projects and Programs.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For each calendar month, or any portion of a calendar month, commencing on the first day of assignment, during which the inmate has manifested satisfactory industry, application, and progress in special selected work projects, or other special programs, the inmate may be allowed an additional deduction of days, not exceeding 5 in number, from the period of the commitment or sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director, with the approval of the Secretary and based on the Institution's current policy and procedure, may establish a list of projects and programs that qualify for special projects credit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Diminution credits may be awarded for projects or programs under §E(2) of this regulation which include, but need not be limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prison industry assignments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Education programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Work details;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Work release employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Rehabilitation programs including, but not limited to, programs addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Substance abuse; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Criminal behavior.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The maximum allowable deduction under the combined operation of §§C and D in any calendar month is 5 days.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>For any major violation of the Institution's rules a portion or all of the deductions allowed under §§B and E may be revoked. The Institution may restore any portion of the deductions revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If an inmate is released under mandatory supervision on sentences for offenses occurring on or after July 1, 1989, and the mandatory supervision is later revoked, the inmate may not earn any new diminution of confinement credits as otherwise provided for under Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Restoration of Revoked Diminution Credit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Good conduct credit, as described in Regulation .03B of this chapter, and special projects credit, as described in Regulation .03E of this chapter, may be restored by the Director if it has been revoked. The Director may consider restoring revoked diminution credit upon receiving the recommendation for restoration, and supporting documentation described in §J of this regulation, from the inmate's unit treatment team chairman.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A unit treatment team chairman may recommend restoration of revoked diminution credit for an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has been infraction free for the preceding 6 months;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is not serving a disciplinary segregation sentence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has not been released from disciplinary segregation within the preceding 6 months.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A unit treatment team chairman has complete discretion to recommend restoration of revoked diminution credit, and an inmate who meets the criteria in §B of this regulation has no expectation of approval for restoration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the amount of diminution credit restored does not exceed 50 percent of the total amount that has been revoked, if the inmate has been convicted of an infraction within the past 12 months.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a decision to restore revoked diminution credit is based upon all aspects of the inmate's behavior and Institution adjustment after revocation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director's responsibility under this regulation may not be delegated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Director shall ensure that by the tenth day of each month, the records supervisor forwards to each unit treatment team chairman a list of inmates from their unit who, if the maximum possible amount of the revoked diminution credit for which the inmate is eligible were restored, would reach mandatory supervision or maximum expiration dates within 90 days. The records supervisor shall ensure that the list includes the inmate's name, Institution number, and total number of diminution credits revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The records supervisor shall forward a copy of each list to the Director and the Warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Eligibility for Restoration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 5 working days of the receipt of the information specified in §G of this regulation, the unit treatment team chairman shall determine an inmate's eligibility for restoration of revoked diminution credits.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an inmate is ineligible for restoration, the unit treatment team chairman shall document the reason or reasons on the progress sheet in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the inmate is eligible for restoration, the unit treatment team chairman shall prepare the supporting documentation described in §J of this regulation for submission to the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A unit treatment team chairman considering an inmate for restoration of revoked diminution credits shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Affirmatively establish whether the inmate meets the eligibility requirements of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recommend that restoration of revoked diminution credits be approved or disapproved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Specify the number of days to be restored in any recommendation for restoration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Notify the inmate of the recommendation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Document the rationale for the recommendation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The Director's decision to disapprove a unit treatment team chairman's recommendation for restoration is final.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>If the Director approves the restoration of credit, the unit treatment team chairman shall forward a copy of the Director's approval to the records supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>The records supervisor shall deduct the restored credit from the mandatory supervision release date on the inmate's diminution of confinement record.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Notification for Mandatory Supervision."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Inmate Records Supervisor shall notify the Division of Parole and Probation of any inmates to be placed on mandatory supervision at least 1 week before the scheduled release date. Notification shall also be sent to the inmate, the Parole Commission, the Parole and Probation reporting office, the victim if the victim has filed a written request to be informed, the inmate's base file, and the inmate's commitment jacket.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The inmate placed on mandatory supervision shall be subject to all laws, rules, regulations, and conditions applicable to parolees and shall remain under the supervision of the Division of Parole and Probation until the expiration of the maximum term or terms for which the inmate was sentenced.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This regulation does not prevent delivery of inmates to any state or federal authority otherwise entitled to their custody by detainer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Notification for Inmates Released Upon Expiration of Sentence."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the inmate records supervisor provides notification of an inmate released by expiration of sentence to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Victim, if the victim has filed a written request to be informed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate base file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmate commitment jacket.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This regulation does not prevent delivery of an inmate to another state or federal authority otherwise entitled to the authority's custody by detainer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate released as a result of expiration of sentence is not within the supervision of the Maryland Parole Commission and is not required to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sign a mandatory supervision release certificate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Report to a parole and probation intake unit for processing and supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If an inmate is to be released through expiration of sentence, the Director shall notify the Commissioner 30 days before the inmate's release.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-304, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03E amended effective February 12, 2007 (34:3 Md. R. 300)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="14" heading="Citizens Advisory Board"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General."> <text>The Governor shall appoint a Citizens Advisory Board, based on recommendations of the Secretary, to advise the Director and the Secretary with respect to the operation and programs of the Institution.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-207 and 4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="15" heading="Annual Report"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose and Content."> <text>The purpose of the annual report is to transmit the following information to the Secretary and to the Governor:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The information described in Correctional Services Article, §4-203, Annotated Code of Maryland, which includes expenses, receipts, disbursements, condition and progress of the Institution, number of prisoners, their age, sex, color, place of birth, place of conviction, offense, term of confinement, escapes, pardons, and discharges, accompanied by such remarks and suggestions as may be necessary to the advancement of the interests of the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The information described in Correctional Services Article, §4-203, Annotated Code of Maryland, which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The total number of eligible and noneligible persons evaluated at the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The decisions of the Board of Review to grant leave to eligible persons,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The total number of rearrests, reconvictions, reincarcerations, and parole violations of persons formerly incarcerated at the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The total number of eligible persons incarcerated at the Institution who are returned to the Division for major violations of the Institution's disciplinary rules, and the type of major violation, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Information on education programs and community reentry activities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Submission."> <text>The Director is responsible for completing the annual report. The Director shall submit the annual report to the Secretary and to the Governor by the end of October of each year.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-203 and 4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="16" heading="Reentry Facility"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Contraband” means an item as defined in Criminal Law Article, §9-410(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Reentry facility” means a community-based facility or any other facility operated by the Institution for eligible persons on work release, school release, or parole from the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Visitors to the Reentry Facility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Visitors to the reentry facility shall conform to the facility's rules pertaining to searches and property checks for contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the visit is denied and the visitor refuses to leave the reentry facility, the police of the jurisdiction in which the facility is located shall be notified and the visitor shall be treated as a trespasser in accordance with Criminal Law Article, §6-409, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="17" heading="Special Activities"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Citizen participant” means a person who provides a service on an irregular and infrequent basis, not exceeding 6 visits per year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Coordinator” means a volunteer services coordinator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Employee volunteer” means a person who is employed by the Institution and who provides a service on personal time to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“FBI Criminal History Record Information” means the primary method by which criminal history information is reported.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Lay Volunteer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Lay volunteer” means a person who volunteers on that person's personal time to provide services on a regular or frequent basis. The volunteer may be associated with a group, such as a civic, fraternal or services organization, or church.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Lay volunteer” does not mean a student intern, volunteer professional, or citizen participant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Maryland CCH IDENT/INDEX and Criminal History Record Information” means the computerized Criminal History Identification Index.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Material/monetary donor” means a person or group that provides material or monetary donations to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Reasonable suspicion” means the apparent state of facts or circumstances which would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe that a violation has been committed, is in the process of being committed, or may be committed by a specific individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Registered volunteer” means a volunteer who has completed the screening and orientation procedures, and has obtained the authorized approval necessary to make regular visits to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Student intern” means a student from a post-high school educational institution who, for credit and under the supervision of that person's school, performs services on a regular or frequent basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Volunteer” means a citizen who provides a service or donation to the Institution or its inmates without receiving direct compensation from the Institution and who has been identified as a volunteer through the procedures described in Regulation .03G of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Volunteer Professional.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Volunteer professional” means a person who represents another agency in providing a service on a regular or frequent basis and is paid by that agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Volunteer professional” does not mean personnel from the Department of Education, or contractual personnel who provide substance abuse treatment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Volunteer services” means planned activities which aid staff in promoting inmate adjustment and which utilize citizens as the major resource.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Recreational, Cultural, and Community Activities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall develop, implement, and maintain a recreational program for the inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that an inmate is given the opportunity to participate in as many recreational activities as possible, considering Institution security and control needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A volunteer may be used at the Institution for the recreation program, under the supervision of the recreation staff, and in conjunction with the volunteer services program requirements and security regulations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director may develop procedures for inmate participation in a community league when consistent with established Institution policy and security requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The unit treatment teams shall also be responsible for reviewing community activities and securing permission for inmates with appropriate leave status to attend community functions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Staff members involved with inmate recreation programs may consult with community-based interest groups to provide liaison services for programs, and to ensure community and Institution interaction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Volunteer Services."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The members of the public are encouraged to participate in inmate volunteer activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Coordinator, serving under the supervision of the Warden, shall be responsible for the coordination of all volunteer activities, volunteer groups, and religious education classes within the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Institution encourages the activities of self-help and self-improvement groups consistent with the rules, regulations, and operational capabilities of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A Volunteer Advisory Committee shall assist the Coordinator. A Volunteer Advisory Committee shall include one representative and alternate of each of the volunteer activities scheduled at the Institution quarterly or more frequently. Committee members shall be approved by and serve at the pleasure of the Director. The Director may appoint a volunteer representative at the recommendation of the Coordinator, the Chaplain, or the Warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Volunteer activities shall be scheduled at least 1 week in advance for regularly scheduled weekly activities and 60 days in advance for special events or programs. Notification shall include identification of all volunteers scheduled to enter the Institution and all equipment or materials necessary for the function. Cancellation of any program shall be made at the earliest possible time by notifying the shift commander and all departments involved in the scheduled function.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Volunteer Services Program Management.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Warden and the Coordinator shall develop annual goal statements based on needs assessment results and direction from the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each registered volunteer shall have a written assignment description prepared by the Coordinator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Warden and the Coordinator shall recruit volunteers from all cultural and socioeconomic segments of the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Warden shall ensure that gifts, contributions, and donations to the Institution are accepted and processed per Department of Budget and Fiscal Planning Procurement Regulation 02.01.08.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Selection.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Coordinator shall ensure that each volunteer applicant is screened using the following methods:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Personal interview;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Completion of application for volunteer service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Investigation of credentials, if credentials are germane to volunteer services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Criminal history investigation using, at a minimum, the following screens:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maryland CCH IDENT/INDEX and Criminal History Record Information,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>FBI check using transaction codes CCH and CCF,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>OBSCIS II,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Motor vehicle records, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Fingerprinting followed by submission of prints to the FBI for identification, at the Warden's discretion.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A citizen participant, an employee volunteer, or a material or monetary donor may receive a less stringent screening at the discretion of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A person with a criminal record or a former inmate, whether previously incarcerated, or on supervised parole or supervised probation, may be accepted as a registered volunteer with the approval of the Director, with the following stipulations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The person may not be selected for service other than as a citizen participant until 1 year has elapsed after termination of supervision by closure or abatement through any criminal justice agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The person may not have been arrested since termination from supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A person who has had a condition of supervision requiring drug abuse treatment shall also provide as a reference the name of his or her most recent parole or probation agent, or his or her substance abuse treatment counselor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An employee volunteer shall sign an agreement to volunteer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The application of any volunteer applicant who is rejected by the Warden, along with the rationale for rejection, shall be forwarded to the Director for a final determination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Volunteer Orientation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A registered volunteer shall receive standardized orientation and shall sign required documents stating that orientation has been received.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Orientation shall be conducted by the Coordinator and shall include, at a minimum:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Basic rules and regulations which affect a volunteer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A description of Institution programs and operations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A citizen participant may receive a more cursory orientation at the discretion of the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A volunteer will begin providing services only after receiving orientation and shall be assigned a staff supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Coordinator shall provide special skills training as needed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A supervisor of a volunteer shall work cooperatively with the Coordinator to ensure adequate supervision of volunteer efforts.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Volunteer Access to the Institution.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign a volunteer log as provided by the Institution upon entering and leaving the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Search Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A volunteer is subject to routine search procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign authorization for a clothed body search. Refusal to consent to a clothed body search shall result in denial of access to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A volunteer shall sign an authorization for a strip search if the Warden has determined that reasonable suspicion exists. Refusal to consent to a strip search shall result in denial of access to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Suspension and Discharge of Volunteers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Coordinator shall implement appropriate action if a volunteer is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Arrested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Violates Institution rules; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has not performed responsibilities in accordance with the assignment description or the expectations of the supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The action may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Suspension; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Discharge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In the event of discharge, the Coordinator shall advise the volunteer of the reason or reasons for the discharge and conduct an exit interview.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The name of a volunteer who is discharged for unsatisfactory behavior, with the specific rationale for discharge, shall be forwarded to the Warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The volunteer may appeal the decision in writing, to the Director, within 30 days from receiving notice.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Coordinator's Responsibilities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The coordinator shall ensure that a volunteer receives formal and informal recognition for that person's contributions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Coordinator shall ensure that each inmate receives information about volunteer services at Institution orientation sessions and that bulletins describing volunteer services are posted throughout the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Coordinator shall be responsible for assessing the promotion of productive relationships among staff and volunteers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Coordinator shall maintain a file for each volunteer, to contain at least the following documents:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Volunteer application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Volunteer assignment description;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Acknowledgement of orientation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Volunteer exit notice; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Program notes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Coordinator shall ensure that the Director has approved major modifications to existing Institution volunteer programs and new program initiatives before implementation by the Coordinator.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Chaplaincy Services."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Policy.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It is the policy of the Institution that an inmate shall have absolute freedom of religious belief.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within security and program limitations, the Director shall ensure that each inmate has reasonable opportunity to exercise his or her religious beliefs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that each religion receives equal status and protection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A chaplaincy service, in conjunction with other Institution programs and activities, presents the opportunity for an inmate to make incarceration a productive period of personal change and growth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Inmate participation in religious programming is voluntary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that religious services are conducted by chaplains or approved volunteer clergy and are available to the general inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Religious activities are subject to supervision by Institution security staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Abstention from Offered Food Items.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate shall be permitted to abstain from regularly offered food items that the inmate believes to be prohibited by the inmate's religion.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A 7-day menu shall be posted on each side of the food serving line in a menu box with a glass front. Pork items shall be marked by an asterisk. Foods which are a nutritionally equivalent substitute shall be provided on the food line for inmates who require a pork-free diet.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Ceremonial Food Packages. When consistent with the operational capabilities of the Institution, food packages of a ceremonial nature shall be admitted during religious holidays. These packages shall be provided free of charge to the Institution in a factory-sealed container, and shall be subject to inspection and approval by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Inmate Request to Marry."> <text>Patuxent Institution shall comply with provisions under COMAR 12.02.21 if an inmate at Patuxent Institution requests to marry.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective April 11, 2016 (43:7 Md. R. 451)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="18" heading="Visits to Inmates"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Certified religious visitor” means a person who is certified by the applicable religious authority to minister to members of that body, and who has been processed according to relevant Institution directives to visit individually with a specific inmate on a regular, occasional, or one-time-only basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Contact visit” means a visit which permits limited physical contact between the inmate and the visitor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Contraband” means an item as defined under Criminal Law Article, §9-410(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Frisk search” means running the hands across clothing worn to detect any hidden objects.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Special visit” means a visit authorized as an exception to normal visiting procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Visitor” means a person entering the institution who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is on an inmate's visiting list; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has obtained approval as a special visitor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall establish:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The number of visits which an inmate may receive;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of a visit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The number of visitors authorized during one visit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall consider the following standards when establishing the procedures in §A of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Institution schedule;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Visiting space;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Security considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Staff requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate's Institution status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden establishes procedures governing visits to inmates in outside hospitals and the Institution's infirmary, which shall include provisions to ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each visit conforms with custody requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Appropriate health or mental health personnel approval is obtained to confirm that the inmate is medically or mentally able to conduct the visit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden designates a visiting area which meets reasonable conditions for a visit to take place and satisfies Institution security requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate may refuse to see a visitor.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Types of Visits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Contact Visits. The Director shall ensure that the Warden allows a contact visit unless a contact visit is prohibited by Institution regulations or security concerns. The specific kind and amount of contact shall be based on security and treatment considerations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Noncontact Visits. The Director shall ensure that the Warden designates a visiting area for a noncontact visit and establishes procedures for its use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Religious Visits. The name of a certified religious visitor shall be recorded on the inmate's visitor record, but not counted in the maximum 15 visitors. Religious visits shall be managed according to Institution procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Legal Visits.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden establishes procedures for an inmate visit with an attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An attorney need not be on the inmate's visitor record, but shall have proper identification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A legal assistant who visits an inmate shall present a letter of introduction signed by an attorney on the firm's stationery.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Director may not set a time limit for an attorney visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An attorney shall visit during regular visiting hours unless a special arrangement is made with the Warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Special Visits. The Warden shall establish procedures for special visits.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Record of Inmate Visits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Warden shall ensure that during the reception process, a visitor record form is established for each inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Each inmate may submit a list of up to 15 names, addresses, and relationships of intended visitors to be included on the list.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate shall place the name of an intended visitor who is 18 years old or older on the inmate's visitor record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate is not required to list children younger than 18 years old on the visitor record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Only those persons on the inmate's visitor record will be approved to visit an inmate. However, the Director shall establish procedures to provide for the following types of visits:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Religious;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Legal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Special.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>When an inmate is transferred, the Institution shall forward the inmate's visitor record to the receiving facility at the time of the transfer, to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensure a continuous record of an inmate's visits; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Eliminate the need for a new record to be established.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Visitor Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A visitor shall present one of the following types of identification:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A driver's license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An age of majority card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Birth certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Social security card; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other State, federal, or private industry issued photograph identification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a person younger than 18 years old who intends to visit an inmate is accompanied by an adult. The officer in charge of the visiting area may request identification for verification of age.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Visitor Searches."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall require a visitor to pass through a metal detector or be searched by a scanning device upon entering.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden establishes a procedure to frisk search visitors randomly on a daily basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a frisk search is conducted, the individual conducting a search shall be the same sex as the person being searched.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A visitor shall complete and sign a consent to search form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden establishes procedures to maintain a copy of the consent to search form in the base file of an inmate being visited. The Director shall ensure that the original copy of this form is kept on file by the Warden.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a visitor who refuses to submit to a search is denied visiting privileges for that day.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If a visitor possesses contraband in violation of Criminal Law Article, §9-410(c), Annotated Code of Maryland, the contraband shall be confiscated and a law enforcement agency notified.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Visitor Rules and Visit Guidelines."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>During a visit, a visitor shall follow visiting room rules and shall maintain control of children who may be participants in the visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A visit may be disapproved by the Institution shift commander or officer in charge, if the visitor:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Appears to be under the influence of a drug or alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Refuses to submit to search procedure;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fails to provide sufficient identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Provides falsified identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is younger than 18 years old and is not accompanied by an adult;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Violates an Institution visiting rule posted in the visiting room; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Possesses contraband.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a visitor is denied a visit for a reason included in §B of this regulation, and the visitor refuses to leave the Institution, the police shall be notified and the visitor shall be treated as a trespasser in accordance with Criminal Law Article, §6-409, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A visit may be terminated or shortened if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The visitor or inmate fails to prevent children from disturbing another person in the visiting area;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The visitor or the inmate is verbally or physically disruptive and jeopardizes visiting room operations or the security of the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The visitor and inmate engage in excessive physical contact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate violates a rule or regulation of the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>There is insufficient space for a visit in the visiting room;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An Institution crisis exists;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A visitor violates an Institution visiting rule posted in the visiting room; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Any other reason exists as determined by the Warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden requires the approval of the shift commander or officer in charge to terminate a visit. The shift commander or officer in charge shall provide the Warden with a report stating the specific reasons for terminating a visit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Suspension of a Visitor's Visiting Privilege."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Warden may suspend a person from visiting an inmate for a designated or indefinite period of time when there is clear and convincing evidence that a visit would jeopardize the safety or security of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden bases suspension of visiting privileges on:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A review of the information provided in the supervisor's report of the incident; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Information provided by staff, the inmate, and the visitor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden sends a written notice of a decision to suspend visiting privileges for a specified or indefinite period of time to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate base file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Visitor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Coordinator of Volunteer Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director may authorize the Warden to omit justification for the suspension or termination of a visit from the written notice when the security of the Institution or the safety of an individual would be affected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A notice of suspension or termination of visiting privilege shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A statement of the reasons for the suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of the suspension or termination; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A statement advising the visitor that he or she may appear before the Warden for a hearing regarding the suspension or termination of visiting privilege.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Writes a report of a hearing held regarding suspension or termination of a visitor's visiting privilege; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sends a copy of the report to the Coordinator of Volunteer Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Warden attaches the letter of notification to the inmate visiting card when a visitor's visiting privilege is suspended.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The visitor may request the Warden to reinstate a suspended or terminated visiting privilege upon the inmate's transfer to a Division facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>An employee of the Institution who is related to an inmate may make regular visits to the inmate with prior approval of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Home Visits.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee may not visit the home of an inmate or the family of an inmate for any purpose other than official Institution business.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If a visit is necessary, the employee shall obtain prior written approval from the Director or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An employee of the Institution who is related to the inmate or to the family of an inmate shall obtain prior approval of the Director or designee to visit the home of an inmate or the family of an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Violations of this section shall be considered grounds for disciplinary action.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 repealed as an emergency provision effective August 26, 2013 (40:19 Md. R. 1542); emergency status extended to June 30, 2014 (41:2 Md. R. 89); emergency status expired June 30, 2014</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="19" heading="Inmate Telephone Privileges"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Emergency situation” means those situations in which the unit chairman or designee determines that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An immediate family member of the inmate is hospitalized for serious health reasons, or is in imminent danger of death; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A legal proceeding in which the inmate is a party is scheduled for a hearing, or has a court imposed deadline for filing legal papers within 1 week.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Immediate family” means a grandparent, parent, substitute parent, brother, sister, wife, son, daughter, grandson, or granddaughter. If a relationship other than those specified is involved, a determination of eligibility for telephone use may be made on a therapeutic evaluation of the relationship between the inmate and the relative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>There are telephones available at the main Jessup facility for the use of inmates on a collect call basis, as scheduled in accordance with the rules, regulations, and operational capabilities of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Institution allows inmates housed at the main Jessup facility to use the telephone in certain emergency situations. The inmate shall provide justification that can be reasonably assessed by Institution staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Pay telephones are available at the reentry facility for the use of conditionally released inmates, in emergency and nonemergency situations. Conditionally released inmates shall be allowed access to the telephone consistent with the rules, regulations, and operational capabilities of the reentry facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Procedures for the Emergency Use of Telephones."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A telephone shall be made available for use in an emergency situation by an inmate who has the required authorization. All long distance telephone calls shall be made collect.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The procedures for securing a telephone call in an emergency situation require an inmate to submit in writing a request to the inmate's unit chairman, who shall approve or disapprove the call within 24 hours. An approval shall be directed to the appropriate shift commander or designee, who shall arrange for the call. If the unit chairman is not accessible, an inmate may make the request of another unit treatment team staff member. In the event of a verifiable dire emergency, the shift commander or designee may approve the telephone call if appropriate unit treatment team staff are not accessible.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the shift commander or designee approves an incoming or outgoing telephone call in an emergency situation, the shift commander or designee shall document and justify this approval in writing to the Warden and the Associate Director for Treatment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If a legal proceeding in which the inmate is a party is scheduled for a hearing, or has a court imposed deadline for filing legal papers within 1 week, then the inmate shall be permitted a telephone call to the inmate's attorney, the Legal Aid Bureau, or the Public Defender's Office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The provisions of this regulation shall be contingent upon the availability of sufficient staff to escort an inmate to make the telephone call as permitted by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="20" heading="Inmate Mail" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 repealed effective February 19, 2024 (51:3 Md. R.154)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="21" heading="Death, Serious Illness, or Injury of an Inmate"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Death of an Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Family member” means a person who is immediately related to an inmate by blood or law, including a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Spouse;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Child who is at least 18 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Parent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sibling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Grandparent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Grandchild who is at least 18 years old.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Indigent inmate” means an inmate who, at the time of death, is under the control of the Institution and who has:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Insufficient funds to pay for funeral and burial expenses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>No person legally responsible for his or her support who is able to pay funeral and burial expenses; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>No resources available, including family funds, death benefits, estate, or inmate account, which may be used to pay funeral and burial expenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Medical examiner” means the Baltimore City Medical Examiner for the reentry facility located in Baltimore City and the Howard County Medical Examiner for the main Jessup facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Police” means the Baltimore City Police for the reentry facility located in Baltimore City and the State Police for the main Jessup facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon discovery of the death of an inmate, medical services staff or the senior shift supervisor shall immediately notify the following authorities:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Warden;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Associate Director of Treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Police; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Medical Examiner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After receiving clearance to do so by the appropriate investigating agency, Institution staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Immediately inventory and secure the deceased inmate's property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Take the fingerprints of the deceased for the purpose of positive identification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Prepare a notice of death for the Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon official pronouncement of death, the Director shall contact the decedent's next of kin. The identity of a deceased inmate may not be released to the media until the next of kin have been notified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Institution shall obtain two copies of the autopsy report when appropriate. One copy shall be placed in the inmate's base file and one copy shall be forwarded to the Director for inclusion in the serious incident report.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If an inmate is known to have died of natural causes while in the Institution's infirmary, or while in an outside hospital, the following action shall be taken after a medical doctor on the scene has pronounced the inmate dead:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The responsible officer on duty at the infirmary or the hospital at the time of the inmate's death shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Immediately notify the Institution shift commander or the officer in charge,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain a receipt for the body before leaving the infirmary or the hospital, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Inventory the inmate's personal possessions at the infirmary or the hospital and return the property to the Institution property officer;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Associate Director of Treatment shall be notified by the shift commander or the officer in charge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>After the required immediate actions have been taken and the initial notifications have been made, the Warden shall secure three copies of the death certificate from the Maryland Department of Health, Division of Vital Records, to be distributed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>One copy shall be placed in the inmate's base file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>One copy shall be given or mailed to the next of kin for use in settling the estate of the deceased; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>One copy shall be included in the serious incident report.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Warden shall ensure that the provisions of Regulation .02 of this chapter are followed in cases when the next of kin intends to claim the body of the deceased inmate, if both the next of kin and the inmate are indigent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Warden shall advise the next of kin to seek the assistance of legal counsel to obtain authority to receive the personal property of the deceased inmate, and shall follow the procedures described in COMAR 12.12.26.03B in disposing of the deceased inmate's inventoried possessions.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Funeral and Burial Expenses of Indigent Inmates."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The warden shall refer a family member of the deceased indigent inmate to the Department of Human Services for the determination of his or her eligibility for funeral and burial funds.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The unit chairman from the deceased inmate's treatment unit shall ensure that a family member who assumes responsibility for burial is known to the Department of Human Services, by current eligibility for one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cash benefit support;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Food stamps; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Medical assistance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The unit chairman shall ensure that the current eligibility of the family member is confirmed by a local agency of the Department of Human Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A family member assuming responsibility for burial shall visit the local Department of Human Services agency to complete the appropriate application for Institution funeral and burial expenses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon eligibility confirmation and receipt of the vendor's billing statement, the funds shall be paid by the Institution directly to the funeral director of the family's choice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The amount of the entitlement will supplement available funds, including the inmate's account, as specified in Article 88A, §62A, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the body of the deceased indigent inmate is not claimed within 48 hours, the Warden shall coordinate disposition of the body with the State Anatomy Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Serious Illness or Injury of Inmate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Institution shift commander or designee shall immediately notify the following officials when an inmate is seriously ill or injured:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Warden; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assistant Warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon notification of serious illness or injury to an inmate, the Director shall contact the inmate's next of kin and inform them of the inmate's condition.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="22" heading="Medical Services"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Abortion” means spontaneous or induced termination of pregnancy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Involuntary admission” means admission of an inmate to a psychiatric hospital, as defined under Health-General Article, §§10-613—10-617, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Postnatal care” means the necessary intervention affording health care and support that is provided to the infant immediately after birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Postpartum care” means the necessary intervention affording health care and support to a woman who has recently given birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Pregnancy” means the gestational process of growth and development within the woman of a new individual, from conception through the embryonic and fetal periods to birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Prenatal care” means the necessary intervention affording health care to both the woman and to the fetus during pregnancy and before birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Terminal” means ending in death.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Inmate Pregnancy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Assessment and Treatment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The health services provider shall provide a complete history, physical examination, and definitive laboratory test to determine pregnancy when requested by the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medical staff; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Warden.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All prenatal and postpartum care shall be provided in accordance with acceptable health services standards to include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Regular appointments with an accredited obstetrical clinic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Medications as necessary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Patient education.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that standards are developed to address:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prenatal care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Postnatal care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Postpartum care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Abortion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Hospital admission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Disposition of the child in accordance with Correctional Services Article, §9-601, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Executive clemency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Involuntary Admission of an Inmate to a Psychiatric Hospital."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Warden shall ensure that an admission to a mental hospital is limited to a Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital and shall comply with the requirements for an involuntary admission under Health-General Article, §§10-613—10-619, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Institution, when transferring an inmate, shall provide the Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital with the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's current condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's medical and psychiatric history and condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Circumstances threatening the life or safety of the inmate or others; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Current medication and other treatment being provided to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When the Institution transfers an inmate to a Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital, the Institution shall pick up and return the inmate to the Institution following notification by the Maryland Department of Health psychiatric hospital that the inmate is ready for discharge from the hospital.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Medical Treatment of Inmates while on Prerelease Status or Escape."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Institution is financially responsible for treatment of injury or illness sustained by an inmate while on leave, work release, school release, or in an escape status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Emergency medical treatment shall be provided to Institution inmates by a community hospital.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All invoices for services provided shall be submitted to the Institution health services contractor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Nonemergency treatment shall be rendered by the Institution health services provider.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Exposure of Correctional Officer to Contagious Disease or Virus."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If, while treating or transporting an ill or injured inmate to a medical care facility, or while acting in the performance of duty, a correctional officer comes into contact with an inmate who is subsequently diagnosed, as a result of information obtained in conjunction with the services provided during the visit to the facility, as having a contagious disease or virus, the correctional officer and the Institution are entitled to receive the notification specified in Health-General Article, §18-213(d) and (e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As part of a correctional officer's training, the education specified in Health-General Article, §18-213(j), Annotated Code of Maryland, concerning the human immunodeficiency virus and the hepatitis B virus, shall be provided by the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A correctional officer shall receive the equipment specified in Health-General Article, §18-213(k), Annotated Code of Maryland, that is recommended to protect the officer from exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus and the hepatitis B virus while rendering emergency medical care.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>As specified in Health-General Article, §18-213(m), a correctional officer may not refuse to treat or transport an inmate because the inmate is human immunodeficiency virus positive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Institution shall develop written procedures for the implementation of these regulations and shall make copies of these procedures available, upon request, to the individuals specified in Health-General Article, §18-213(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="23" heading="Public and Media Relations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following term has the meaning indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Term Defined. “Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Public Relations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Institution:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Responds to citizens' inquiries and complaints transmitted either in writing, by telephone, or through personal visits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designates a person to handle inquiries or complaints; the public relations representative may refer a matter to a more appropriate individual or agency for a response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensures that switchboard operators, receptionists, mail room personnel, and other staff refer citizen telephone calls, mail, and visitors to the Institution's designated public relations representative.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a person who answers telephone calls from the public is trained in the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Mechanics of the telephone system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proper telephone courtesy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Prompt attention to calls; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Use of directories to forward a caller to the appropriate person.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director shall ensure that written communication:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is stamped with the name of the Institution and the date immediately upon receipt;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is responded to within 10 business days of receipt, if a response is required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is addressed by an interim response to the citizen when the communication cannot be properly responded to within the 10 business days' requirement; the Director shall ensure that the interim response addresses the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name of the individual responsible for the reply,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The reason for the delay, if it can be stated,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The telephone number of the individual responsible for reply, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An estimate as to when a reply will be made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Personal Visit.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Institution staff shall encourage a citizen to make an appointment when a citizen wishes to speak in person with an Institution staff member about an inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that a clear and current notice is posted within the visitor area to notify a visitor as to where information may be obtained.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that an employee having contact with a visitor to the Institution is adequately prepared and has available appropriate information which may be of use to the visitor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Director shall designate a person to handle visitors' requests during posted business hours. A citizen may call to confirm the business hours of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The process for referring a visitor inquiry is as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each inquiry, complaint, or request shall be accepted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an inquiry, complaint, or request is not resolved immediately, it shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Referred to an appropriate person for further handling, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Recorded for future processing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inquirer shall be advised of information required to direct the request to a more appropriate agency to obtain the information requested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that a citizen making an inquiry is advised when an inquiry is referred to another agency, by sending the citizen a copy of the referral letter which will include the reason for referral to another agency for response.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Director shall ensure that appropriate staff receive a copy of the citizen response plan and receive orientation in those procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Media Relations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Cooperation with Media Representatives.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall encourage and develop mutual cooperation with media representatives, and permit the greatest possible access to public information within the limitations of applicable statutes and within operational limitations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employee of the Institution shall refer all media inquiries to the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Director shall determine whether media inquiries will be forwarded to the Public Information Office of the Office of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Institution employees who provide information to media representatives shall ensure that the information is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The best available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Truthful, objective, and accurate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Limited to the information authorized for release under Access to Public Records, State Government Article, §10-611 et seq., and §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Visits by a Media Representative.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A representative of the media may visit the Institution and an inmate confined in the Institution for the purpose of conducting a recorded interview only with prior approval of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that the Public Information Office of the Office of the Secretary is notified of a media visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A media representative shall be required to produce evidence of media employment or authorization which shall be subject to verification before admission to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A representative of the media shall conduct an interview with an inmate within a normal visiting area unless otherwise approved by the Director, consistent with security needs and routine activities of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An inmate has the right to refuse to be interviewed and a right to refuse to be photographed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An inmate may have his or her photograph taken, be filmed, or otherwise be interviewed only if he or she agrees in writing and has the prior approval of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that a signed authorization indicating inmate approval is placed in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Release of Information on Inmates.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Information regarding inmates confined in the Institution or subject to its jurisdiction may not be released except pursuant to statutory authorization under either Correctional Services Article, §4-209, or State Government Article, §§10-611—10-628, Annotated Code of Maryland, or other appropriate statutes. Release of information regarding the identity of inmates confined to the Institution is limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name of the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Criminal offense for which incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Length of sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Jurisdiction where convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Institution status, that is, either confined for evaluation or committed as an eligible person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Date received, and date of escape if an escapee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If the inmate is an active escapee, a physical description may be released as well as a photograph if available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In any situation when there is a question as to the legality of the release of information, the Director shall consult Department counsel for advice before releasing the information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Request for Information After Hours."> <text>Any request for information received after normal business hours will be referred to the Director.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Emergencies."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When an emergency or nonroutine incident occurs, the Public Information Office of the Office of the Secretary shall be notified immediately and, in most cases, shall be responsible for the release of information about the event. At the discretion of the Director and in consideration of the public safety, basic information about the event may be released by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In an unusual or emergency situation such as a riot, fire, job action, strike, escape, or another unusual occurrence as designated by the Director, media representatives are not allowed on the grounds of the Institution without express permission of the Director. The Director may prohibit the use of television or photographic equipment on the grounds of the Institution, if use of the equipment would exacerbate the situation and further jeopardize the safety of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Public Information Officer, with the advice and consent of the Director, shall establish media staging and parking areas. A representative of the media will remain within the designated area and will be briefed by the Public Information Officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Briefings by Public Information Officer.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The public information officer shall prepare and present a preliminary briefing to the news media within 1 hour after arrival.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>During this briefing, the news media shall be informed of security procedures and safety requirements that will affect them, the nature of the emergency, and background information on the institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At this time, a briefing timetable shall be established which will permit news media representatives to meet their deadlines.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>It shall be clearly explained to the news media that an inmate within the institution can monitor radio and television reports, and this prevents the release of certain information which could jeopardize security or response tactics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If, during the course of negotiations, an inmate requests that a member of the media be present and if that request is granted by the Director, then the media representative shall be advised that the media representative is expected to brief all other members of the media on site within 1 hour after negotiations have ended.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Representatives of the news media may not be permitted into areas of the institution other than the news media briefing area for any purpose without the approval of the Director. A request for pool photography or news media tours, or both, may be considered by the Director after the emergency is under control. Representatives of the media shall be advised that efforts to enter, or to have another person enter, the prohibited area for the purposes of filming the event or interviewing inmates may not be tolerated. If the Public Information Officer has reason to believe that a restriction of aircraft overflights is necessary, the Public Information Officer shall notify the Federal Aviation Administration to seek a restriction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Tours by Citizens."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A citizen interested in requesting a tour of the Institution may apply to the Director by letter. The letter requesting the tour shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The requested date and time for the tour;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A telephone number and address of the tour applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The reason or reasons for the tour; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The number of citizens who are requesting to participate in the tour.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The letter requesting the tour shall be mailed a minimum of 4 weeks before the requested tour date, to allow for administrative review of the request and associated planning.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Community Relations Officer."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall appoint a Community Relations Officer to assist the Director in contacts with the community and to respond to citizen inquiries and complaints.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Community Relations Officer shall establish a speakers bureau to address business and community-based organizations on Institution operations.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Application to the Reentry Facility."> <text>The provisions of this chapter shall apply to the reentry facility.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="24" heading="Access to Inmate Records"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Confidential material” means any of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Addresses and telephone numbers on victim notification or victim impact letters;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Police reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Juvenile records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Medical records, as defined in Health-General Article, §4-302, Annotated Code of Maryland, which include mental health records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Board of Review hearing reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Parole progress file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Information obtained under the promise of confidentiality; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Information pertaining to an ongoing or pending investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9), or a Division inmate who has been referred to the Institution for evaluation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate base file” means the personal record of an inmate, which shall include, to the extent not prohibited by federal law, and to the extent they are physically available:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Police reports and other relevant information concerning the crime of which the inmate was most recently convicted and the sentence imposed for that conviction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal and juvenile history, and all relevant records concerning it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Presentence investigation, parole, probation, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>School records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Information concerning the inmate's prior medical and mental health history, including relevant medical and hospital records and reports; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>All other relevant information, records, and reports concerning the inmate's social, physical, or mental condition and history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Mental health records” means any manual or automated record of mental health assessment or care maintained on an inmate, including psychological reports, psychiatric evaluations, evaluation reports, social histories, and any correspondence relating to therapy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Institution shall compile and maintain a complete record and history of each inmate referred to the Institution for evaluation or admitted to the Institution for treatment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Institution shall also record a full and accurate description of each inmate admitted to it for treatment, including photographs. The Institution may adopt the Bertillon or any other accurate method of description, measurement, and registration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All State and local officials and agencies shall cooperate with the Institution, and shall, promptly upon request, furnish or cause to be furnished to the Institution the information, records, and reports in their possession in order that the Institution may comply with this section. The provisions of Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-828(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, do not apply with respect to a request made for juvenile records pursuant to this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>To the extent that any records, reports, and information compiled pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §4-209(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, are legally confidential, they shall remain confidential and may not be disclosed to any person or agency except as provided below:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commissioner or his authorized staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Division of Parole and Probation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Maryland Parole Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A State's Attorney, when required in the prosecution or defense of a proceeding in court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A federal, State, or local law enforcement officer upon a written request signed by an authorized commanding officer of the law enforcement agency, certifying that the information is needed for a pending investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An authorized correctional official or probation officer of the United States or a state, district, or territory of the United States, if that jurisdiction has made reciprocal provision by law for the furnishing of similar information to comparable officials of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The Attorney General of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The Inmate Grievance Commission to the extent relevant to a matter pending before it, and with the written consent of the person to whom the information pertains;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The Division of Vocational Rehabilitation of the Maryland Department of Education solely for the purpose of determining if an inmate confined at the Institution qualifies for benefits provided by the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Providers of medical care when medical records are required to the extent necessary to assure proper medical treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A judge of a circuit court or District Court when required in connection with pretrial release, presentence investigation, or postsentence investigation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>State, local, federal, and private agencies to the extent that the release of the information will benefit the inmate, and with the written consent of the inmate to whom the information pertains.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Confidential information may be disclosed under §§B and F of this regulation only if the Director is reasonably assured and convinced that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It will be used solely for the legitimate purposes of the person or agency receiving it;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>It will not be used for any improper or unauthorized purpose; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>It will not be further disseminated to any person or agency not authorized to receive it, as listed in §B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Juvenile records obtained pursuant to §A(3) of this regulation may not be disclosed to any person or agency except those listed in §B, and then only in accordance with §C.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Attorney Access to Nonconfidential Base File Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The attorney of an inmate may obtain access to the inmate's base file, with the exception of confidential information, according to the procedures described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The attorney shall provide the Director with a minimum of 24 hours notice in writing. A specific reason for the request shall be stated. Merely noting “legal” is insufficient.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Before review the attorney shall provide the records department with an authorization for release of records form, signed by the inmate, authorizing the release of the records requested.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The attorney shall be required to show proper identification before access is permitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An attorney may review only those records for which the request has been made in accordance with this directive.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the records are to be reviewed by an employee or agent of the attorney, proper identification shall accompany the employee and be produced upon request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>All records shall be reviewed in the presence of an Institution employee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A reasonable charge shall be assessed for all photocopies provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Joint reviews of the inmate's records, by the attorney and the inmate, are not allowed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Attorney Request for Confidential Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A request for access to confidential information shall be made in accordance with §E, and the request may be granted only if the provisions of §C are satisfied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the request for confidential information includes medical records maintained by a contractual medical provider, the Director shall provide the attorney with the information necessary to request the records from the medical provider.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Joint reviews of confidential information, by the attorney and the inmate, are not allowed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Inmate Access to Nonconfidential Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmates may obtain access to nonconfidential information in their base file in accordance with the procedures described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for records review shall be submitted in writing to the records supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request-received acknowledgment will be sent to the inmate within 5 working days. Reviews will be scheduled within 30 days of this acknowledgment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The name of the inmate will be placed on a list maintained by the records department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Records department personnel will schedule records review at least once a month. Reviews will be done in the presence of records department personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The records department will ensure that all confidential material is removed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Inmates will be permitted to review their base file no more than twice a year, once every 6 months, unless additional reviews are approved by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Inmate Access to Medical or Mental Health Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate Access to Medical Information.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An inmate may obtain access to medical information maintained by a contractual medical provider by submitting a written request to the medical provider.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Associate Director for Treatment shall provide the inmate with the information necessary to submit this request to the medical provider.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate Access to Mental Health Information. An inmate may obtain access to mental health information in the inmate's base file in accordance with the procedures described in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate shall send a written request for access to the Associate Director for Treatment. This request shall contain a statement from the inmate which describes the purpose of the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Within 10 working days of receiving a request for access, the Associate Director for Treatment shall review the request with the inmate's psychologist or psychiatrist and decide if access should be granted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The inmate shall be notified of the Associate Director's decision, in writing, within 5 working days of the decision. If the decision is to deny access, the written notice shall contain the basis for the denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If access is granted, the inmate's review of the requested records shall be scheduled within 30 calendar days of the Associate Director's decision. The inmate's access to the records shall be supervised by a member of the Institution's treatment staff, and a staff member of the records department shall also be present.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The inmate may not be provided with a copy of any of the inmate's mental health information under any circumstances.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A request for access may be denied if the Associate Director for Treatment finds that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The request is not for a legitimate purpose;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In the opinion of the inmate's psychologist or psychiatrist, access to the information is psychologically contraindicated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Granting access would present a clear threat to the safety of an individual or the security of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>If access is denied, the Associate Director for Treatment shall ensure that a summary of the records that is compatible with the inmate's current level of functioning is prepared. The summary shall be reviewed with the inmate by the inmate's psychologist, psychiatrist, or other mental health care provider in an effort to have the contents of the summary understood by the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Record of Request for Access to Inmate Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Records department personnel shall maintain a written log of requests for access to inmate records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At a minimum, this log shall contain the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date of the request for access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Name and Institution number of the inmate to whom the request pertains;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Name of the person requesting access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Description of the specific records that the person is requesting access to;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Reason for the request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Name of the person approving or denying the request for access, the date of approval or denial, and verification of the approval or denial of the request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Name of the records department staff member who has verified the approval or denial of the request for access; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>If access to the requested records is approved, a notation of the date that access was granted, and the name of the Institution staff member who supervised the review of the records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Records department personnel shall place the inmate's written request for access to records, documentation of approval or denial of the request, and documentation of access when a request is approved, in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Access to Inmate Records for Research Purposes.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall establish procedures for the submission of written research proposals to the Institution and for the internal Institution review of research proposals, and shall make copies of these procedures available upon request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director may approve a written research proposal submitted by an individual or agency engaged in legitimate research, evaluation, or statistical analysis activities, provided that the research conforms to current standards for the ethical conduct of research and is consistent with the rules, regulations, operational capabilities, and goals of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Director approves a research proposal, the Director shall ensure that a written research agreement is prepared and signed by the researcher and the Director. The research agreement shall include, but is not limited to, a statement of the purpose of the research, a description of the specific research tasks to be performed by the researcher, the names of all individuals who will be performing the research, the information sources to be used, a description of the steps that the researcher will take to protect the privacy of the research subjects and maintain the confidentiality of the data, and the right of the Institution to review reports, documents, or proposed publications before their dissemination or publication.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A report, document, record, or other material that is legally confidential concerning an inmate may only be disseminated for research purposes under the following conditions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Director has approved the research proposal in accordance with internal Institution rules and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Director has determined that the release of the information will benefit an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The researcher has obtained the written consent of the inmate to whom the information pertains;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Director is reasonably assured and convinced that the material:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shall be used solely for the legitimate purposes of the researcher,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>May not be used for any improper or unauthorized purpose, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>May not be further disseminated to an individual, agency, or organization without the express prior approval of the Director;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The research agreement specified in §J(3) of this regulation has been prepared and signed by the researcher and the Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The material is recorded by the researcher in such a manner that the inmate to whom the information pertains, the inmate's victim, and the victim's family cannot be identified from the data set or any published reports.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Reports, documents, records, or any other material concerning an inmate that is not legally confidential may only be disseminated for research purposes under the following conditions:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Director has approved the research proposal in accordance with internal Institution rules and procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The research agreement specified in J(3) of this regulation has been prepared and signed by the researcher and the Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Unless the sources of the information are publicly available, the material shall be recorded by the researcher in such a manner that the inmate to whom the information pertains, the inmate's victim, and the victim's family cannot be identified from the data set or any published reports.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the Director disapproves a research proposal, the researcher shall be notified in writing. An appeal of the Director's decision to disapprove a research proposal may be made to the Office of the Secretary. The Office of the Secretary shall make a final determination on the research proposal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The custodian of records shall collect a fee for copying and a fee for preparation of the materials from the requesting party, except that the custodian may not levy a preparation fee for the first 2 hours of official employee time that is needed to respond to a request. Copying and preparation fees shall be posted in the records department, on all tiers, in the ID room, and in the captain's office. The custodian may waive the fees if the waiver would be in the public interest.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Photocopying will be done only after normal procedures have been followed for withdrawing money from the inmate's financial account, or in the case of outside parties upon satisfactory arrangements for payment by the requesting party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Request for Nonconfidential Information. All requests for nonconfidential information from any other state, federal, local, or private agency not listed in §B of this regulation shall be accompanied by an authorization, signed by the inmate, that states the purpose of the request. If the agency does not have or is unable to obtain an authorization, the request shall be sent to the Director for a decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Appeals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Unless otherwise provided in this chapter, an agency, inmate, or other individual requesting access to information shall be notified of a denial within 15 working days of the receipt of the request. This notification shall be placed in the inmate's base file by records department personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate's Written Appeal.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An inmate may submit a written appeal of a decision made by the Associate Director for Treatment to the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Director shall review the records requested and may consult with an individual considered appropriate to perform a fair review of the Associate Director's decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Within 10 working days of the Director's receipt of the appeal, the Director shall provide the inmate with written notice of the Director's decision on the appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the appeal is denied by the Director, the written notice shall contain the reason for the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The inmate's written appeal, and the Director's written notification of the decision to the inmate, shall be placed in the inmate's base file by records department personnel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate may appeal the Director's decision to the Inmate Grievance Office in accordance with the Inmate Grievance Office's procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An attorney, agency, or other individual denied access by the Director may appeal the Director's decision to the Office of the Secretary. The Office of the Secretary shall make a final determination on the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Request for Inactive Inmate Records from the State Records Center."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A records department supervisor or designee shall ensure that a reference request form is prepared when an inmate's records are requested from the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A records department supervisor or designee shall notify the State Records Center of the records which are needed for review, and will obtain the records at the State Records Center, Waterloo, Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When the records are no longer needed, a records department supervisor or designee shall return the records to the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Associate Director, Behavioral Science, shall designate a staff person who shall notify the Director by memorandum that the records have been returned to the State Records Center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The form and the memorandum shall then be filed by the Director and destroyed after 2 years under Maryland law.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-209, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="25" heading="Inmate Property and Clothing"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish policy and procedure for the handling and storage of property belonging to an inmate incarcerated in the Institution.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definition."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following term has the meaning indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Term Defined. “Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined by COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Policy for Handling Property."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>It is important that the property rights of an inmate are fully protected when an internal Institution rule or regulation requires than an inmate release his or her personal property to the Institution for safekeeping.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Employees shall exercise reasonable care and diligence over inmate property which is removed from the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When it is determined that an Institution employee has failed to exercise reasonable care and diligence in ensuring the safekeeping of inmate property, thereby causing loss or damage to the property, the employee may be subject to disciplinary action by the Warden.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Warden shall establish a secure area designated as the property room. This area shall be used for the following purposes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To secure inmate property which is temporarily out of the custody of the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the storage of inmate valuables maintained in accordance with established internal rules.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Warden shall establish procedures for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To control and account for all inmate property which is in the care of the Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To ensure that excess or unauthorized property is disposed of in accordance with Regulation .05 of this chapter and COMAR 12.12.26.03E and F.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Inmate Property Inventory.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All inmate property taken into Institution custody shall be immediately inventoried to establish an accurate record of the amount of property received.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When the property cannot be inventoried immediately, an employee shall package, seal, and place the property in a secure area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>When sealed property is received by the Institution and cannot be inventoried immediately, the property shall remain sealed and be placed in a secure area with documentation indicating the name of the officer receiving and securing the property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When an inmate receives a housing change, the inmate shall be permitted only those items authorized by the Warden and established by Institution rules.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>When an inmate dies, the inmate's property shall be inventoried and stored or disposed of in accordance with COMAR 12.12.26.03B.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Disposition of Unauthorized Property."> <text>An inmate may receive only those items authorized by internal Institution rules. The Warden shall ensure that unauthorized property is processed in the following manner:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Send the property to an address provided by the inmate, at the inmate's expense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Release the property to a visitor who has been authorized by the inmate to receive his or her property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Dispose of the property in accordance with COMAR 12.12.26.03E and F.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="26" heading="Disposition of Inmate Personal Property"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish policy and procedure to dispose of inmate personal property in accordance with established State law.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Abandoned property” means personal belongings which:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Are unclaimed after the required 30-day notice has elapsed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have not been sent out of the Institution within 30 days notice to the inmate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Have been declared as abandoned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Contraband” means an item as defined in Criminal Law Article, §9-410(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate” means an eligible person, as defined in COMAR 12.12.01.03B(9).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Property officer” means a person responsible for receiving and controlling inmate belongings in accordance with established property procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Procedure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall establish procedures to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Return personal property to the inmate upon release; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Obtain receipt from the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Death of Inmate.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When the death of an inmate occurs, the Director or designee shall ensure that an inmate's personal property, including funds in an Institution account, is given to a person who possesses a letter of administration issued by a court.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that the deceased inmate's next of kin is notified of personal property, including funds, by registered mail, return receipt requested.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the court appoints a personal representative, the representative shall claim the property within 1 year of notice to the next of kin.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a court appointed personal representative claims the deceased inmate's property, the representative shall provide a letter of administration. The Director shall ensure that a copy of the letter of administration is retained for the Institution's files.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>When the deceased inmate's property is released to a person who possesses a letter of administration, the Director shall ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A receipt for the property is obtained;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The receipt is retained in the deceased inmate's base file; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A copy of the receipt is retained for the Institution's files.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The property officer shall hold for 30 days any inmate personal property which:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is in possession of the Institution as a result of an escape; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has been unclaimed by an inmate who has the right to its possession and the property officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>During the 30-day period, post notice in a conspicuous location within the Institution,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Deliver the property being held to the inmate who satisfactorily establishes a right to its possession within the time period specified above, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Obtain from the inmate a signed receipt when property is turned over to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Funds remaining in the inmate's Institution financial account shall remain in the inmate's account for 2 years after an escape, and then shall be turned over to the State General Fund. The account book for an inmate's personal bank account is to be retained in the inmate's base file. If the account has no activity for 5 years, the contents shall be treated as abandoned by the bank and turned over to the State General Fund.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Convert abandoned property to Institution use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sell the abandoned property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If it has no value, dispose of the abandoned property in accordance with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Disposal of Abandoned Property.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the abandoned property is to be converted for Institution use, the property officer shall submit an inventory list in duplicate to the Director advising:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The condition of the property as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Good,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Fair, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Repairable;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The estimated value; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Planned use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Abandoned inmate property is only converted for Institution use for the benefit of the inmate population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Property that is considered equipment with an estimated value in excess of $50 shall be recorded on the inmate welfare fund property inventory cards with the estimated value and tagged accordingly.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the property is to be sold, it shall be sold on consignment basis by a contract auctioneer whose services shall be obtained in accordance with State procurement regulations. Upon the sale of the property, less expenses, net proceeds shall be deposited in the Institution inmate welfare fund.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Abandoned Property Disposal.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Warden may dispose of abandoned inmate property which has no value and cannot be converted to Institution use, with the approval of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon approval of the Director, the Warden may dispose of the property by donation to an appropriate charitable organization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The property officer shall obtain a dated, signed, descriptive receipt for the donated items and retain the receipt for Institution records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>All future claims of an inmate to proceeds or rights to possession of this property shall be barred.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>This chapter does not affect or limit the authority of the Warden to seize and dispose of contraband.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §4-208, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 3, 1992 (19:2 Md. R. 155)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="27" heading="Patuxent Institution Youth Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of the Patuxent Institution Youth Program is to provide remediation programs and services designed to meet the specific needs of eligible juvenile offenders and eligible youthful offenders adjudicated as adults.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Board of Review” means the Patuxent Institution Board of Review created by Correctional Servicces Article, §4-205, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Correction or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of Patuxent Institution or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Correction, which may include the Patuxent Institution Diagnostic Center Building or, during an emergency, other housing units designated by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Evaluation team” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §4-101(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Individual” means a juvenile offender or a youthful offender adjudicated as an adult.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Inmate progress review” means the system by which Patuxent youth are assigned to Institution jobs, receive Institution job security classification, and are assigned to levels in the graded tier system, based on an evaluation of the security risk posed by the Patuxent youth and on the Patuxent youth's progress in Institution programs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Institution” means Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Parole” means a conditional release from the Institution after a portion of the sentence has been served in confinement, with the balance of the sentence to be served under supervision in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Patuxent youth” means an individual who has met the criteria for admission to the Patuxent Institution Youth Program specified in Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Program” means the Patuxent Institution Youth Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Progress review committee” means a team of staff members, consisting of treatment staff from the inmate's treatment unit, a custody supervisor, and a member of the Education Department, who are responsible for assigning Patuxent youth to Institution jobs, job security classifications, and levels in the graded tier system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Remediation” means treatment for specific areas of mental and social deficiencies which are highly related to criminal behavior.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Remediation plan” means a detailed treatment plan developed for an inmate by a treatment unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Treatment unit” means a team of treatment personnel, which includes a psychiatrist, psychologists, and social workers, to which each inmate is assigned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="General Provisions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in this chapter, COMAR 12.12.01—12.12.25 governing the Institution also governs the Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Parole is a privilege and not a right. Parole may be revoked in accordance with the procedures described in COMAR 12.12.13.03.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Referral Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A court may, at sentencing, order the Commissioner to refer an individual to Patuxent Institution for evaluation, unless ineligible under Regulation .06 of this chapter, if the individual is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Younger than 21 years old at the time of the referral; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sentenced to a term of imprisonment of 3 years or more for a criminal offense.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commissioner shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maintain a list of individuals who have been referred by court order to the Institution for evaluation as participants in the Program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the list monthly to the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Evaluation Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The evaluation team shall examine the referred inmate at either a Division facility or at the Institution. The Director shall select the location for the examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The evaluation team shall meet at the Institution to determine whether the Division inmate is a Patuxent youth according to the criteria in Correctional Services Article, §4-401(i), Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the examination is to be conducted at a Division facility, the following records needed by the evaluation team are assembled by the Division:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documents from the base file as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A copy of the commitment order,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The admission summary,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A copy of the sentencing guidelines,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Presentence investigation reports, parole reports, probation reports, and other reports that have been prepared concerning the inmate, or documentation that none exists,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Police reports and other relevant information concerning the crime for which the inmate was most recently convicted and the sentence imposed upon that conviction,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The State's version of the crime,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Prior criminal and juvenile history and all relevant records concerning it,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The disciplinary record, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Correspondence from judges relating to their referral and recommendation of an inmate to the Institution;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>School records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's prior medical history, including the inmate's medical file and relevant medical and hospital records and reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's prior mental health history which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The inmate's psychological file,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Previous psychological or psychiatric evaluations,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Record of psychiatric medications,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Progress notes, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Records of previous psychiatric, drug abuse, or alcohol abuse treatment; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other relevant information, records, and reports concerning the inmate's social, physical, or mental condition and history.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the examination is to be conducted at the Institution, the Division shall ensure that the records specified in §C of this regulation accompany the Division inmate to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The evaluation team shall be provided the work space and resources necessary to carry out the examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>After its review, the evaluation team shall develop a list of inmates in the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Patuxent youth who may be admitted to the Institution when Program vacancies occur; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Non-Patuxent youth who may not be admitted to the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The evaluation team shall deliver a report to the Director recommending whether the inmate is a Patuxent youth or a non-Patuxent youth. The report shall support the team's findings with respect to the criteria set forth in Correctional Services Article, §4-401(i), Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Admission Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual meeting the referral criteria in Regulation .04 of this chapter may be admitted to the Program if the Director determines that the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has an emotional unbalance or intellectual impairment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is likely to respond favorably to the programs and services provided at the Institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Can better respond to remediation through the services offered in the Program than through other types of incarceration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Under the provisions of Correctional Services Article, §4-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, the following are ineligible for referral to the Institution for evaluation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate serving two or more sentences of imprisonment for life under the provisions of Criminal Law Article, Title 2, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate serving one or more sentences of imprisonment for life when a court or jury has found, beyond a reasonable doubt, that one or more aggravating circumstances existed under the provisions of Criminal Law Article, §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An inmate convicted of murder in the first degree, rape in the first degree, or a sexual offense in the first degree, unless the sentencing judge, at the time of sentencing or in the exercise of the judge's revisory power under the Maryland Rules, recommends to the Commissioner that the inmate be referred to the Institution for evaluation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Treatment Programs and Assessment During Treatment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A treatment program developed by the Director shall be governed by a set of clinical guidelines which include the specific:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Treatment methods to be applied within the Program; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Outcome measures for determining the effectiveness of the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The treatment unit shall develop for each Patuxent youth an individualized remediation plan which shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be approved by an Associate Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Identify the specific therapeutic interventions to be used to address the inmate's remediation needs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Assessment During Treatment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The treatment assessment begins at the time a Division inmate is found to be a Patuxent youth and is transferred to the Institution for treatment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The treatment assessment includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Comprehensive clinical reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Individual remediation plans;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Progress notes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Other information prepared by the staff for the Patuxent youth's annual consideration by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Assessments are ongoing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>With the approval of the Board of Review, a Patuxent youth may be recommended to be continued in treatment or returned to the Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Inmate Progress Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The progress review committee shall review and decide the disposition of tier level demotions and promotions, job assignments, and job security classifications for each Patuxent youth assigned to the treatment unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Decisions of the progress review committee shall be by majority vote of the voting members of the committee present at the meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A decision of a progress review committee that results in a change, whether positive or negative, in a Patuxent youth's tier level, job assignment, or job security classification shall be documented by recording on a progress review the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Vote;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Supporting rationale; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Dissenting rationale.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A decision of a progress review committee requires the Director's approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An affected Patuxent youth shall be given:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A brief written statement of the committee's decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The reasons for the committee's decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The written statement may not reflect how the individual committee members voted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Assignment of a Job Security Level.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Institution is a maximum security correctional facility operated by the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A Patuxent youth in the Institution's Program is assigned a security level for job assignment only.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For all other purposes, a Patuxent youth in the Institution's Program is considered to be a maximum security inmate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Job Security Levels Available to Patuxent Youth.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maximum. A Patuxent youth with this job security level shall be restricted to jobs done completely within the interior of the Institution's buildings. This classification shall automatically apply to all new arrivals to the Institution and remain in effect until revised by the proper action of the progress review committee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Close. A Patuxent youth with this job security level shall be restricted to jobs that do not require the Patuxent youth to work outside the Institution's perimeter. Only Patuxent youth on third or fourth level tiers shall be granted close security unless otherwise authorized by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Status. A Patuxent youth with this job security level shall be allowed to work in jobs that require the Patuxent youth to be outside the Institution's perimeter under supervision. Only a Patuxent youth granted prerelease status by the Board of Review shall be allowed the job security level of status and automatically receive the job security level of status upon the Board of Review's grant of prerelease status to the Patuxent youth. A Patuxent youth on prerelease status shall retain the job security level of status while housed in the Institution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The progress review committee shall consider the following in deciding whether to assign a Patuxent youth to a specific job security level:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Need for supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Adjustment in the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Length of sentence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Nature of the offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Progress in treatment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Therapeutic requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>At least annually and at any time at the Director's discretion, the Director shall review the Patuxent youth's continued eligibility for treatment or transfer to the Division based upon treatment staff recommendations. The Director, in consultation with treatment staff, security staff, or both, is authorized to remove an individual from the Program at any time for any reason.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Patuxent Youth Transfers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The duration of incarceration of a Patuxent youth in the Institution terminates when:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director orders the individual transferred to the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With the approval of the Secretary, the individual is ordered paroled by the Patuxent Institution Board of Review in accordance with the provisions set forth in COMAR 12.12.12; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The individual's term of imprisonment is completed as provided by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual who is transferred to the Program in accordance with this regulation, following a commitment to the custody of the Commissioner, is considered committed to and remains subject to the Institution's jurisdiction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual's transfer to the Program does not affect eligibility for diminution of confinement credits or other privileges available by law or regulation to an individual sentenced to the custody of the Division or a local correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual released through application of diminution credits is subject to supervision by the Division of Parole and Probation and the authority of the Maryland Parole Commission, or by Patuxent Institution if clinically indicated.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-401, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: December 2, 1996 (23:24 Md. R. 1683)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="28" heading="Patuxent Institution Youth Program—Leave, Work Release, and School Release"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Accompanied day leave” means a leave during which the prerelease inmate is accompanied into the community by an Institution staff member, usually a member of the treatment unit to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Become familiar with community resources;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Find employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Accomplish a basic task of community reentry.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Compassionate leave” means a leave granted for a prerelease inmate to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Visit a member of the immediate family who is seriously ill; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Attend the funeral of a family member.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Holiday leave” means a special leave which follows a holiday schedule approved by the Board of Review and consists of not more than 5 days and 4 nights at an approved place in the community. The usual holiday periods are Washington's Birthday, Easter, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Thanksgiving, and Christmas.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Inmate” means a Patuxent youth as defined in COMAR 12.12.27.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Level” means the system of four treatment tiers through which an inmate may progress based upon the inmate's behavior within the Institution and progress in treatment. An inmate is eligible to be considered for the prerelease program if the inmate is on the fourth level.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Monthly leave” means a leave which may be granted to a prerelease inmate for up to 3 days and 2 nights at an approved place in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Parole” means a conditional release from the Institution, after a portion of the sentence has been served in confinement, to serve the balance of the sentence under supervision in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“School release” means conditional leave from the Institution for participation in an education program offered in the community and deemed beneficial to the treatment of the prerelease inmate and not detrimental to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Work release” means a conditional leave from the Institution for participation in an employment program offered in the community and deemed beneficial to the treatment of the prerelease inmate and not detrimental to the public.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Prerelease Status."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Board of Review has the power to grant, revoke, or modify an inmate's prerelease status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Patuxent youth may be granted the privilege of leaving confinement during necessary and reasonable hours for leave, working at gainful private or public employment, or attending school as part of a school release program. These programs may also include, under appropriate conditions, release to seek employment or schooling. Leave, work release, and school release are considered prerelease programs intended to prepare Patuxent youth for parole, mandatory supervision, or expiration of sentence. A Patuxent youth does not have a right to be granted leave, work release, or school release. Leave, work release, and school release are privileges to be granted or revoked at the discretion of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Prerelease Status—Public Safety Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for prerelease status, the Board of Review shall consider the following public safety criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The compatibility of the release of the inmate on leave, work release, or school release with the safety and welfare of society;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The length of the inmate's sentence and the amount of time served on the current term of imprisonment to date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The nature of the crime for which the inmate is currently incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The circumstances surrounding the crime for which the inmate is currently incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The determination that leave, work release, or school release would not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Depreciate the seriousness of the inmate's crime,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Promote disrespect for the law, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Have an adverse effect on Institution discipline;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The existence of unresolved out-of-State or federal detainers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A report or recommendation made by the inmate's victim or victims, or a representative designated by the victim;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A report or recommendation made by the sentencing judge, the State's attorney, or a professional medical consultant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Other factors or information which the Board of Review may find relevant in assessing the risk to public safety which may be posed by placing the inmate on prerelease status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(1) of this regulation, the Board of Review shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's prior criminal and juvenile record, and prior incarceration, parole, and probation records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's past use of narcotics, other controlled dangerous substances, or alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's family status and family stability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A recent assessment conducted by a mental health practitioner of the inmate's propensity toward violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A report or recommendation made by the Institution treatment or custody staff concerning the likelihood that the inmate will remain at liberty without violating local, State, or federal laws or the terms and conditions governing the inmate's prerelease status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The adequacy of the inmate's leave, school, or work release plan, which shall include information concerning employment plans, occupational skills, and job potential.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Progress-in-Treatment Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In considering an inmate for prerelease status, the Board of Review shall consider the following progress-in-treatment criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate's overall progress in treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's overall behavior and adjustment while incarcerated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether prerelease status would assist in the inmate's remediation by enhancing the inmate's ability to lead a law-abiding life;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Whether the inmate has successfully functioned in a previous prerelease status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other factors or information which the Board of Review considers relevant in assessing the inmate's progress in treatment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(1) of this regulation, the Board of Review shall consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The reports or recommendations of the Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's adjustment on level four;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether the inmate's treatment level history demonstrates progressive responsibility in moving from level one to level four;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's participation in Institution remediation and self-help programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Whether the inmate has demonstrated emotional maturity and insight into the inmate's problems, as assessed through the reports or recommendations of the Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The inmate's ability and readiness to assume obligations and undertake responsibilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The inmate's educational, vocational, and other training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In making the determination required by §A(2) of this regulation, the Board of Review shall consider the inmate's:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Institution disciplinary record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Current attitude towards discipline and other authority, as assessed through the reports or recommendations of Institution treatment and custody staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct a hearing to determine the appropriateness of granting or revoking leave, work release, or school release. Hearings shall consider the recommendations of the inmate's treatment unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A record shall be maintained of the hearing that notes the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Vote of the Board of Review; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Outcome of the proceedings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review shall conduct hearings at the Institution according to a preestablished schedule.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Procedure for Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A leave, work release, or school release hearing is an interview of the inmate by the Board of Review. Attendance is restricted to authorized Institution staff, except that other interested individuals, including victims, may attend with the approval of the Board of Review. The hearing is private and is held in an informal manner, allowing the opportunity to give free expression to an inmate's views and feelings relating to the case. Formal presentations by an attorney, relatives, victims, and other interested individuals are not permitted at the hearing. Attorneys, relatives, victims, and other interested individuals may submit information in writing for the Board of Review's consideration before the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Detailed reports shall be furnished by the inmate's treatment unit to assist the Board of Review in its deliberations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The treatment unit assigned to the inmate shall attend all hearings concerning that inmate. The inmate's treatment unit shall be available to provide new information which may have developed since the date of the reports furnished to the Board of Review and to assist in answering questions concerning the inmate or Institution policy.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Granting Leave, Work Release, and School Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Leave, work release, or school release may not be granted unless approved by the affirmative vote of a quorum of the Board of Review, as defined in COMAR 12.12.08.05A.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Victim Comment, Victim Notification, and Police Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall give the inmate's victim a reasonable opportunity to comment in writing before the Board of Review decides whether to grant leave, work release, or school release to the inmate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The victim may designate in writing to the Board of Review the name and address of a representative, who is a resident of the State, to receive notice for the victim that the inmate will be considered for leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board of Review shall delete the victim's address and telephone number before examination of a document by the inmate or the inmate's representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the victim cannot be located, the judge holding jurisdiction over the inmate's sentence may be contacted for comment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the victim of its decision regarding leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the police department possessing jurisdiction over the locality in which an inmate's crime was originally committed when an inmate has been approved for leave, work release, or school release status.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Board of Review shall notify the inmate of its decision regarding placement on leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director shall ensure that a waiver of extradition form is completed by an inmate before authorizing an inmate for leave, work release, or school release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A member of the inmate's treatment unit shall ensure that the waiver of extradition form is filed in the inmate's base file.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Leave and Release Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before starting a leave, work release, or school release program, the inmate shall sign an agreement that affirms the inmate's understanding of the regulations governing it.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate on leave, work release, or school release:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May not go outside the limits of the State without the written permission of the Board of Review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May not commit an act which would be a violation of a federal law, State law, or municipal ordinance, and shall conform to all rules of conduct imposed by the Institution or an authorized representative of the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Shall report back to the Institution at the time specified on the pass, or wherever and whenever an authorized representative of the Institution directs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>May not own, possess, use, buy, sell, or have under the inmate's control a firearm or weapon of any description;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>May not enter into a contract to engage in business, borrow money, enter into an installment contract, incur debt, or acquire ownership of a motor vehicle without first having obtained written permission from the Board of Review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>May not unlawfully possess, use, buy, sell, or have under the inmate's control a narcotic drug, controlled dangerous substance, or related paraphernalia;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Shall submit to any test or search that is prescribed by the Institution or its authorized representative to detect the usage of alcohol or controlled dangerous substances, or the possession of contraband;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>May not engage in conduct that would pose a threat to public safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>May not drink an intoxicating beverage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Shall have a pass in the inmate's possession at all times while outside the confines of the Institution and notify the Institution in case of an emergency or to resolve questions of identity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Shall request approval from the Board of Review to withdraw additional funds from the inmate's financial accounts for personal needs and to defray the cost of transportation to and from the Institution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Shall deposit all wages in the Institution's business office on a weekly basis, unless otherwise specified, together with an attached voucher indicating the number of hours worked, hourly wages, deductions, and number of days worked; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Shall strictly adhere to the times and geographical locations specified on the inmate's leave itinerary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Work release or school release inmates shall use their time outside the Institution to work or attend school, both of which are regularly supervised by the Institution. An employer or school supervisor is requested to call the Institution if the inmate does not report as scheduled. In appropriate cases, inmates on work release or school release may be granted leave for other than work or school attendance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An inmate on leave status may not use leave to engage in employment. This restriction does not prohibit the authorized search for employment in preparation for work release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Unless otherwise indicated, a work release or school release inmate shall report to the community supervision clinic for supervision as scheduled.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Housing of Inmates Granted Work Release or School Release Privileges."> <text>The Institution shall designate facilities for the housing of inmates granted work release or school release privileges.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Monitoring and Supervision of Leave, Work Release, and School Release Participants."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A participant in the prerelease program shall be monitored and supervised in the community to assure the continued safety of the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Associate Director responsible for treatment services and the administrator of the reentry facility shall develop and implement a plan for community supervision of participants in the work release and school release programs. The plan shall be approved by the Director and include procedures for work or school site visits, home visits, and documentation and reporting of prerelease violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following are responsible for managing the community monitoring program and ensuring that the personnel performing the monitoring tasks meet the requirements of the plan developed in §B of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For the leave program, the treatment unit chairman is the responsible manager; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the work release and school release programs, the administrator of the reentry facility is the responsible party.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate may appeal to the Board of Review a treatment unit's decision to deny a leave.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate who is successfully participating in the work release or school release program may be eligible for a leave of 1 day if the following conditions are met:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate has the recommendation of the inmate's direct supervisor in the work release or school release program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Leave regulations are met; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The leave is approved by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An inmate released from confinement on leave, or for a work release or school release program, who commits a major violation under orrectional Services Article, §4-306(c), Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.12.11.03 is subject to the penalties provided.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Disposition of Earnings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate employed in the community under a work release or school release program shall surrender to the Institution the inmate's total earnings less payroll deductions required by law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Institution shall deduct from the inmate's earnings, in the following order of priority, an amount determined to be the cost to the State of providing the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Food, lodging, and clothing for the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The actual and necessary cost of food, travel, and other expenses of the inmate when released from actual confinement under the program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The amount which the inmate may be legally obligated to pay for the support of the inmate's dependents; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The amount ordered to be paid by the court as restitution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A school release inmate receiving a stipend or other monies not subject to payroll deductions is not subject to room, board, clothing, and travel fees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Any balance remaining of an inmate's earnings after the deductions and payments set forth in this regulation shall be credited to the inmate's account and paid to the inmate when paroled.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An inmate shall use, on a weekly basis, adequate funds from a work release or school release account to defray the cost of transportation, meals, and sundries according to a schedule approved by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Request for Additional Funds.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate may request approval from the Board of Review to withdraw additional funds for personal needs from the inmate's work release or school release account.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An inmate shall be provided adequate funds from the inmate's work release or school release account to meet the inmate's needs, and to ensure that the inmate will have the financial means to return to the Institution. The Board of Review shall indicate the specific amount to be provided.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-401, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: December 2, 1996 (23:24 Md. R. 1683)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="29" heading="Patuxent Institution Youth Program—Parole"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Adjudicated Federal Detainer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” means a detainer based on an offense for which the inmate has been tried, convicted, sentenced, and committed to the custody of the United States Attorney General.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Adjudicated federal detainer” does not mean a detainer based on an untried indictment, information, or complaint, or a detainer of federal parole or federal probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of Patuxent Institution or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Inmate” means a Patuxent youth defined in COMAR 12.12.27.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Medical parole” means a parole granted to an inmate because of a diagnosed, serious medical condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Parole” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.12.27.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Parole, as defined in COMAR 12.12.08.05A, may not be recommended unless approved by the affirmative vote of a quorum of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board of Review has the exclusive power to recommend an inmate for parole to the Secretary or to the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Date Crime was Committed.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The required approval for parole status depends on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The date that the crime for which an inmate is incarcerated was committed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Whether an inmate is serving a life or nonlife sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmates Serving Life Sentences. An inmate serving a life sentence may be paroled by the recommendation of the Board of Review and the approval of the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmates Serving Nonlife Sentences. An inmate serving a nonlife sentence may be paroled by the recommendation of the Board of Review and the approval of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Victim Comment, Victim Notification, and Police Notification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall give the inmate's victim a reasonable opportunity to comment in writing before the Board of Review decides whether to grant parole to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shall delete the victim's address and telephone number before examination of a document by the inmate or the inmate's representative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Shall notify the victim of its decision regarding parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Shall notify the police department possessing jurisdiction over the locality in which an inmate's crime was originally committed when an inmate is released on parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Shall notify the inmate of its decision regarding placement on parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Has the power to revoke, extend, or otherwise modify an inmate's parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Has the authority to return the paroled inmate to the Institution if the paroled inmate's progress in the community is considered to pose a risk to public safety or pose a risk to the paroled inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>May impose special conditions on paroled inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The victim may designate, in writing to the Board of Review, the name and address of a representative, who is a resident of the State, to receive notice for the victim that the inmate will be considered for parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the victim cannot be located, the judge holding jurisdiction over the inmate's sentence may be contacted for comment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Length of Sentence and Time Served Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate sentenced to life imprisonment is ineligible for parole consideration until the inmate has served 15 years or the equal of 15 years after considering allowances for diminution of the period of confinement provided by law when diminution of sentence credits are otherwise applicable to establish a mandatory supervision release date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate sentenced to life imprisonment as a result of a proceeding under Criminal Law Article, §2-303, Annotated Code of Maryland, is not eligible for parole consideration until the inmate has served 25 years or the equal of 25 years after considering the allowances for diminution of the period of confinement provided by law when diminution of sentence credits are otherwise applicable to establish a mandatory supervision release date.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Progress on Work Release or School Release."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When considering an inmate for parole, the Board of Review shall determine whether the inmate has performed successfully on work release or school release. Letters from employers, friends, family members, and others which describe the inmate's adjustment on work release or school release are forwarded to the Board of Review for parole consideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In determining successful performance on work release or school release, the Board of Review shall consider an inmate's progress based upon the public safety criteria and progress-in-treatment criteria specified in COMAR 12.12.10.04 and .05.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When making a determination concerning parole, the Board of Review shall also consider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Whether the inmate has successfully participated in a substance abuse program while on work release or school release, if appropriate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Whether the inmate has continued to demonstrate emotional maturity and insight as assessed through the reports and recommendations of Institution treatment and custody staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate's ability and readiness to assume obligations and to undertake responsibilities to live in the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The inmate's community resources and the stability of the family that will assist the inmate to return to the community;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The inmate's physical health; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Other factors or information which the Board of Review may find relevant to parole consideration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Medical Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following criteria are used when considering an inmate for medical parole:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The inmate is imminently terminal or has a condition which indicates that continued imprisonment would serve no useful purpose, for example, an irreversible coma; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inmate's release would not unduly jeopardize public safety.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Contents of Medical Parole Request.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Director shall ensure that all documents forming the basis for a medical parole request are submitted to the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>When a quorum of the Board of Review recommends the inmate for a medical parole, the recommendation is submitted to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secretary for consideration, if the inmate is serving a nonlife sentence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Secretary and the Governor, if the inmate is serving a life sentence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To initiate consideration for a medical parole, the inmate's treatment unit shall send to the Director a summary of the inmate's incarceration record since admission that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A history of program participation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Special housing requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The reasons for the recommendation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An aftercare treatment plan for the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A statement by the attending physician which includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Diagnosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Prognosis,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Inpatient or outpatient status, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Criteria justification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Board of Review may reject a recommendation for medical parole that has been submitted by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Board of Review's decision to deny a medical parole is final.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Parole to Adjudicated Federal Detainer."> <text>An inmate with an adjudicated federal detainer is subject to the same procedures and criteria to meet the detainer when being considered for parole as an inmate who does not have an adjudicated federal detainer.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Granting of Parole."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Agreement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before starting a parole program, the inmate shall sign an agreement that affirms the inmate's understanding of the regulations governing parole set forth in this regulation. This agreement includes the conditions in §A(2) and (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>General Conditions.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The parolee may not go outside the limits of the State without the written permission of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The parolee shall promptly report to the Patuxent Institution, or wherever and whenever an authorized representative may direct.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The parolee may not commit an act which would be a violation of federal or State law, or local ordinance, and shall conform to rules of conduct imposed by the Patuxent Institution or an authorized representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The parolee shall make reasonable effort to be gainfully employed or otherwise occupied as directed by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The parolee may not change place of residence or employment without first obtaining the permission of the Patuxent Institution or an authorized representative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The parolee may not own, possess, use, sell, or have under control a firearm or weapon of any description, including a device which resembles and is used as a weapon.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>The parolee may not enter into a contract to engage in business, borrow money, enter into an installment contract, incur a debt, or acquire ownership of a motor vehicle without first obtaining permission from the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>The parolee may not unlawfully possess, use, buy, sell, or have under control a narcotic drug, controlled dangerous substance, or related paraphernalia.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A parolee, when seen, shall present proof, which shall be verified and documented, that the parolee is maintaining steady employment, attending substance abuse group meetings if appropriate, and living at a specified address.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>A parolee shall give a random urine specimen as required by the parolee's supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>A parolee shall discuss the problems or the progress that the parolee is having in the community and the types of relationships that the parolee may be establishing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>A parolee may be subject to a search for contraband by the parole supervisor during the parolee's visit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>A parolee shall cooperate with job checks and home visits conducted by the parole supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>A parolee on an Interstate Corrections Compact Agreement or paroled to meet a detainer shall be monitored at least yearly by a designated employee of the Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>A parolee shall be employed or enrolled in school and have a legitimate means of financial support.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>If unemployed or unemployable, the parolee shall have a legitimate means of financial support while on parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(q)"> <text>When paroled, an inmate shall receive all current funds in the inmate's active and reserve accounts which have been maintained at Patuxent Institution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(r)"> <text>If paroled from work release, an inmate shall receive 100 percent of the inmate's work release account upon being paroled, less the deductions specified in COMAR 12.12.10.09B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(s)"> <text>A parolee shall be counseled concerning the benefits of establishing savings accounts at financial institutions in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(t)"> <text>A parolee who needs financial assistance shall be referred to appropriate community agencies and assisted in the application processes of the community agencies by a parole supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Special Conditions. Special conditions may be imposed by the Institutional Board of Review as appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>COMAR 12.12.10.06F(1)—(11) also applies to parolees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An inmate may not be released on parole until the order of parole is presented and acknowledged by the inmate's signature. An inmate shall be released on parole as soon as practical after a favorable decision, unless:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review has specified a deferred release date;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The investigation of the community resources of the inmate to be paroled indicates that the parolee is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Likely to be unemployed upon release, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Without a satisfactory home plan; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The parole plan has not been approved by the Board of Review as specified in Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An inmate may not be released under the order for parole when the Director is made aware of a fact or circumstance after Board consideration of which the Board was unaware. Under this circumstance, the Board shall reconsider the decision to parole as soon as possible.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The order of parole shall bear the signature of a member of the Board of Review, attested to by another Board member, and the official seal of the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Board of Review may, for the safety and welfare of the inmate on parole and for the safety of the public, impose reasonable special conditions to be complied with before release on parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Parole is a privilege and not a right, and may be revoked under COMAR 12.12.08.05A.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Parole Release Plan."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A parole release plan shall be completed and submitted before the parole hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Elements in a parole release plan include, but are not limited to, the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The name of the parolee's employer or evidence of other legitimate means of financial support;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The location at which the parolee will reside; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The nature of community services necessary to meet the special needs of the parolee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Modification of Parole Release Plan.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An inmate's parole release plan previously approved by the Board of Review may only be changed by the Board of Review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Board of Review may, with good cause, modify the conditions of an inmate's parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>In case of modification, the parolee shall be given the opportunity to show cause why a condition should not be modified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The parolee may request a hearing before the Board of Review to discuss the modification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Monitoring and Supervision of Parolees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A parolee shall be seen by an assigned parole supervisor or designee for parole supervision in accordance with the terms of parole established by the Board of Review. Each contact with a parolee shall be documented by the supervisor or the designee. Contact includes both scheduled and unscheduled meetings and may take place in the field, home, place of employment, or other location.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Schedule of Meetings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board of Review shall establish a schedule of required supervisory meetings between a parolee and the parolee's supervisor and make adherence to that schedule a written condition of parole.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A first-year parolee shall meet with the parole supervisor a minimum of once a week.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A second-year parolee shall meet with the parole supervisor a minimum of once every 2 weeks.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A third-year parolee shall meet with the parole supervisor a minimum of once a month.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A recommendation by a treatment unit for a change in a parolee's supervision shall be presented to the Board of Review for final approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The parolee shall be seen at a Board-approved designated location in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The supervisor or designee shall prepare a written report of each scheduled or unscheduled contact with a parolee, including unkept appointments, and make that report a part of the parolee's official record.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-208 and 4-401, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: December 2, 1996 (23:24 Md. R. 1683)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="30" heading="Inmate Discipline" reason="Repealed — See COMAR 12.03.01"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—37 adopted as an emergency provision effective March 9, 2006 (33:7 Md. R. 640); emergency status extended at 33:19 Md. R. 1555; adopted permanently effective September 11, 2006 (33:18 Md. R. 1506)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C adopted effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 21, 2008 (35:8 Md. R. 806)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised as an emergency provision effective October 20, 2011 (38:24 Md. R. 1496); emergency action expired March 8, 2012</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective July 2, 2018 (45:13 Md. R. 668)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="13" heading="Division of Parole and Probation"> <chapter num="01" heading="Home Detention"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division of Parole and Probation shall establish a home detention program for an eligible parolee or mandatory supervisee who by background and overall community adjustment is judged able to participate in the home detention program for any part of the remaining period of supervision with minimum risk to public safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Division's home detention program is designed as an alternative to incarceration for a parolee who:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is charged with a violation of a condition of parole by the issuance of a summons or retake warrant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is found guilty of violating a condition of parole that is technical in nature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is alleged to have violated a condition of parole by being charged with committing a new, nonviolent crime or has been convicted of a new, nonviolent crime which resulted in a sentence of probation, fine, or short-term incarceration; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is in imminent danger of having parole revoked after a retake warrant or summons has been issued.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A participating offender shall reside in a preapproved residence and shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When employed, work in a closely monitored employment situation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Receive appropriate educational, substance abuse, counseling, or habilitative services as may be available through both Division and community resources; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Meet financial obligations as provided in Regulation .10A of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrator” means the Facility Administrator of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services Central Home Detention Unit or the Facility Administrator's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Agent” means a parole and probation agent employed by the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Division of Parole and Probation or the Director's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Electronic supervision” means monitoring an offender's location or whereabouts through the use of devices that combine telephone contact and the reception of a signal from a monitoring device worn by the offender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Expiration of sentence” means completion of the full undiminished sentence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Mandatory supervisee” means an individual released from jail or prison after having earned sufficient good time or other related credits to allow serving of the remaining sentence under supervision in the community.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Offender” means a parolee or mandatory supervisee participating in the Division's Central Home Detention Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Parole.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Parole” means the conditional release of an offender from incarceration by the Maryland Parole Commission which allows an offender to serve the balance of the sentence under community supervision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Parole” also means anyone released from imprisonment in accordance with Correctional Services Article, Title 3, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Parolee” means an individual released from jail or prison by order of the Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Program” means the Division's home detention program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Program staff” means an employee designated by the Director to work in the Division's home detention program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Organization and Staffing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To comply with Correctional Services Article, §6-108, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Director shall organize and operate a home detention program as a component of the Department's Central Home Detention Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The staffing of the program shall consist of classifications to be determined by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Offender Eligibility Criteria."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An offender may be required to participate in programs in the following areas to be eligible for home detention placement:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Substance abuse treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Employment readiness training; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A program as directed by the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An offender is ineligible for home detention placement if the offender:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is alleged to have violated a condition of parole and is in a pretrial status following an arrest for a crime of violence as defined in Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, or has been found to be in violation of parole conditions as a result of a conviction for a crime of violence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has ever been convicted of the crime of child abuse under Criminal Law Article, §3-601, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>To be eligible for placement in home detention, an offender shall meet the following criteria:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Agree to accept approved employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Have a telephone in the offender's approved residence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Have no chronic medical problem that would preclude the offender's placement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Sign a waiver of extradition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Approving an Offender for Home Detention Placement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Based upon exclusionary criteria in Regulation .04 of this chapter, program staff shall conduct screening, assessment, verification, and review for recommending approval or disapproval based on established procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An offender's eligibility and screening documentation shall be forwarded to the Administrator for review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After review by the Administrator, the offender's file with the Administrator's recommendation shall be forwarded to the Director for review and approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon approval of program placement by the Director, the offender's file shall be forwarded to the Commission for final review and approval. Upon disapproval by the Director, the reason for the disapproval shall be noted and the offender advised of the disapproval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon Commission approval, the offender shall be notified of program placement by program staff. If the Commission disapproves placement in the program, the disapproval shall be noted and the offender advised of the disapproval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commission on its own initiative may impose home detention as a condition of parole for any offender considered appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Placement of an Offender in Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An offender, if in custody when approved for home detention placement by the Commission, shall be transported from the place of confinement by program staff and be given orientation to the home detention program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An offender, if continued on community supervision during the home detention evaluation and placement process shall, upon approval, be notified of the date for program orientation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An offender shall receive a complete orientation to the program to include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Signing forms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Familiarization with the operation of electronic supervision equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Familiarization with home detention requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Following orientation, an offender shall be transported to the offender's approved residence where program staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Install and test assigned electronic monitoring equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Review with the offender work, treatment, and home schedules.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Program staff shall provide an offender's employer with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An orientation to the program which includes the Division's expectations of a participating employer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A copy of home detention requirements which the employer and the offender are required to follow.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Supervision of An Offender On Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An offender assigned to the program shall be required to submit to electronic supervision which includes telephone contact and reception of a signal from a monitoring device worn by the offender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An offender assigned to the program shall admit program staff to an offender's approved residence at any time of day or night.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An offender shall be personally supervised by program staff as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At home;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At work and through employment verification by contact with the employer and submission of a paycheck stub;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At unit offices; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Through random urinalysis.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Program Rules for Offenders Assigned to Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An offender placed in home detention shall agree to all program rules before home placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An offender shall comply with all program rules and obey all lawful orders received from program staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Conduct of Parolees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An offender shall comply with all conditions governing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The conduct of a parolee found in an order for release on parole under COMAR 12.08.01.21C; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The conduct of a mandatory supervisee found in an order of mandatory supervision under Correctional Services Article, §7-503, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failure to comply with the conditions in §C(1)(a) or (b) of this regulation may result in such graduated sanctions as a reprimand or a requirement for additional counselling or substance abuse treatment, a charge of violation of the rules of parole, removal from the program, or incarceration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An offender shall agree to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Remain at the offender's approved residence except for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Work during preapproved hours,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An approved visit to program offices,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A prearranged and approved visit to a treatment site,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An emergency which is life-threatening to the offender or another member of the household, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>As directed by the Administrator;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not own, possess, use, or have under their control a firearm or weapon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Not deny entrance to the offender's approved residence by program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Meet with program staff on demand at the offender's place of employment or at a location in the community designated by program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Not use, have on the offender's person, or have under the offender's control an alcoholic beverage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Be subject to urinalysis or another form of drug testing on demand by program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Not change employment without the prior approval of program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If employed, remain employed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Attend any treatment activity directed by program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Maintain a private telephone line during program placement and not leave the telephone receiver off the hook; call waiting is the only additional telephone service permitted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Limit incoming or outgoing telephone calls not related to the program to not longer than 10 minutes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Permit the installation of electronic supervision equipment at the offender's approved residence and on the offender's person as program staff may direct;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Not move, tamper with, or disturb electronic supervision equipment placed on the offender's telephone line or person; an offender shall be financially responsible for damage or loss of assigned electronic supervision equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Pay all legally collectible fees; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Not operate a motor vehicle without obtaining permission from the administrator, and only after confirmation of the offender's driver's license status and vehicle registration information by program staff.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Enforcement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §6-106, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Director may designate Division employees with arrest powers over an offender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Staff of the Department's Central Home Detention Unit may provide mutual assistance in enforcing the rules and regulations for the home detention program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual designated by the Director with arrest powers shall comply with all of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Satisfactorily complete a training program prescribed by the Maryland Police Training Commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Satisfactorily complete required in-service training, approved by the Maryland Police Training Commission, which shall be completed during the calendar year following completion of the training program in §C(1) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As part of the in-service training, qualify annually on authorized firearms and intermediate weapons as required in courses approved by the Maryland Police Training Commission.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Administrative Search Warrant. Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §6-109, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Director or Administrator may petition the District Court or a circuit court with appropriate jurisdiction for an administrative search warrant for the purpose of entering an offender's approved residence to locate an offender and electronic supervision equipment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Removal of Offender from the Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §6-108(i), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Commission may remove an offender from the program for any reason including, but not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Violation of a program rule as set forth in Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A medical reason, including mental health problems; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>On the recommendation of program staff, that an offender is:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Unable to maintain a functional home environment,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion of physically abusing an individual in the household, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Under reasonable suspicion that an individual in the offender's home is creating an environment detrimental to the offender.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Any violation by an offender of a condition of parole or a program requirement may, at the discretion of program staff, be reported in writing to the Commission and the Administrator shall be notified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Commission shall make a determination to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Continue an offender's participation in the program with no change in the conditions of parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Continue an offender's participation in the program with modification of the conditions of parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Remove an offender from the program and continue the offender on parole; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Order that a revocation hearing be conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Emergency Removal of Offender from the Program.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Arrest of Offenders.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §6-106, Annotated Code of Maryland, a designated Division employee may arrest an offender under provisions specified in Criminal Procedure Article, §2-102, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon arrest, the offender shall be transported to the police agency with appropriate jurisdiction and the Administrator shall be notified.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>When the offender is arrested for a new crime, program staff may request a retake warrant from the Director or Commission. The Administrator shall be notified of the request as soon as is practicable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Issuance of Parole Retake Warrant.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If an offender presents an immediate danger to self, program staff, or anyone else, program staff shall immediately notify the Director and Administrator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon delegation pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §7-206, Annotated Code of Maryland, of the authority to issue retake warrants, the Director may, dependent upon the circumstances, direct that an emergency parole retake warrant be issued and the Administrator notified. The Commission shall be notified of the issuance on the next working day.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Upon issuance and execution of the parole retake warrant, the violator will be returned to the custody of the appropriate facility as directed by the warrant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Nothing in this subtitle is intended to create or extend a liberty interest in home detention for parolees or mandatory supervisees.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Disposition of Funds Collected from a Home Detention Offender."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §6-108(f), Annotated Code of Maryland, for each offender, the Division shall determine the amount of, develop a payment schedule for, and collect from offenders in the home detention program the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Court-ordered restitution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Court-imposed fines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Court costs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A reasonable fee for the cost of electronic supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Parole supervision fees; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Other legally collectible fees.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fees collected shall be processed in accordance with established fiscal procedures regarding the collection, disbursement, and accounting of funds.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §6-108, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 1, 1981 (8:9 Md. R. 802)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter, Public Information Requests, repealed effective September 24, 1984</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">(11:19 Md. R. 1667)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.10 under new chapter, Home Detention, adopted as an emergency provision effective November 25, 1992 (19:25 Md. R. 2200);</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">emergency status extended at 20:6 Md. R. 578; adopted permanently effective</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">March 29, 1993 (20:6 Md. R. 581)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Certificate of Rehabilitation"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with the Justice Reinvestment Act, the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) supports employment of an individual who was convicted of certain specified crimes and who successfully completes parole, probation, or mandatory release obligations and, by law, is entitled to a Certificate of Completion or Certificate of Rehabilitation or both.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sets forth eligibility requirements for a Certificate of Completion and Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Explains the purpose of a Certificate of Completion and Certificate of Rehabilitation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Establishes procedures for responding to an individual’s request for a Certificate of Completion and Certificate of Rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Crime of violence” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Criminal History Record Information (CHRI)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Individual of record” means the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To whom the certificate or a denial of the certificate shall be issued; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Either:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Whose supervision history will be reviewed to determine eligibility for a Certificate of Completion; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Whose criminal history and supervision history will be reviewed to determine eligibility for a Certificate of Rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Supervised” means that an individual is placed under the jurisdiction of the Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Certificate of Completion."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Under Correctional Services Article, §7-103, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Department may issue a Certificate of Completion to an individual of record or the individual of record’s legal designee if the individual was under the supervision of the Department on or after July 1, 2014.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Certificate of Completion shall indicate that the individual named on the certificate was previously supervised by the Division as a probationer, parolee, or mandatory supervisee and successfully completed the individual’s term of supervision by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fulfilling the standard and special conditions under which the individual was released to probation, parole, or mandatory release supervision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fully satisfying the individual’s requirements for payment of all restitution, fines, fees, and other payment obligations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A Certificate of Completion:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be in a form and contain information approved by the Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be issued for each separate period an individual is supervised by the Division as provided under §B of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall only be issued for an offense adjudicated in a Maryland State Court.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual may request a Certificate of Completion:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>After the individual’s term of supervision ends; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In a manner established by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Division Response to a Request for a Certificate of Completion.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Division employee receiving a request in accordance with §D of this regulation shall respond to the individual requesting a Certificate of Completion within 15 workdays of the date the request is received by the Division agent, monitor, or other authorized employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the individual of record meets the eligibility requirements set forth in §B of this regulation, a Certificate of Completion shall be mailed to the individual of record’s address, within the time limit established in §E(1) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the individual of record does not meet the eligibility requirements set forth in §B of this regulation, a Denial of Certificate Completion form shall be mailed to the individual of record’s address, within the time limit established in §E(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Certificate of Rehabilitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual may be eligible for a Certificate of Rehabilitation if the individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Was convicted of a crime, misdemeanor or qualifying felony, which was not a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Crime of violence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sexual offense that requires the individual to register in accordance with Criminal Procedure Article, Title 11, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Was supervised by the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has completed all standard and special conditions under which the individual was released on probation, parole, or mandatory release supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Fully satisfied payment obligations, including restitution, fines, fees, and other payment obligations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is no longer under the supervision of the Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has not previously been issued a Certificate of Rehabilitation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Requests a Certificate of Rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Certificate of Rehabilitation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be issued only for an offense adjudicated in a Maryland State Court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be issued only once in an individual’s lifetime; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not be construed as:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A pardon;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An expungement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A form of exoneration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Requesting a Certificate of Rehabilitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Certificate of Rehabilitation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual who wishes to apply for a Certificate of Rehabilitation shall submit a written request to the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation shall be made by the individual of record or the individual of record’s legal designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Shall be submitted to the Division in written form as a letter or electronically using the Department’s public website; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>May be submitted after the individual of record has completed a term of supervision by the Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Written authorization, in a form or format approved by the Director that is signed by the individual of record, for Division staff to conduct a CHRI check on the individual of record for the limited purpose of determining if an unreported criminal event occurred prior to the closure of the Division’s interest in the case; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Other information required by the Director.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Processing a Request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation in accordance with Regulation .05 of this chapter, the Director, or a designee, shall assign the request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation for investigation to a Division field office in the region in which the individual of record’s term of probation, parole, or mandatory release was closed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The agent assigned to conduct the investigation of a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete the investigation within 45 days of the date the request is received by the agent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct and document the investigation in accordance with Division investigation requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before conducting a CHRI check as part of an investigation of a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation, the agent conducting the investigation shall ensure that the individual requesting the Certificate of Rehabilitation has submitted written authorization for the CHRI check required in Regulation .05B(1) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If at any time during the investigation of a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation the agent assigned the investigation determines that information exists to deny the request should be denied in accordance with provisions of Correctional Services Article, §7-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, the investigator shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Terminate the investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Document the findings and reason for denying the request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation in accordance with Division procedures; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Forward the documentation to the Director, or a designee, for approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If an investigation is not terminated in accordance with provisions under §D of this regulation or is returned by the Director, or a designee, for further investigation, the agent assigned the Certificate of Rehabilitation investigation shall complete the investigation within the 45-day period by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reviewing information received as part of the investigation in concert with the purpose of and eligibility requirements established by statute and regulation for a Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the agent’s investigation establishes that the individual meets the eligibility requirements for a Certificate of Rehabilitation, complying with notification requirements in accordance with §F of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Preparing and submitting to the Director, or a designee, a written report of findings in accordance with Division procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submitting with the written report required in §E(3) of this regulation a copy of the notice required under §F of this regulation and a written response received or, if no response is received, a statement indicating that no response was received; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Including in the written report required in §E(3) of this regulation a statement, based on the investigation, indicating the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets the criteria for a Certificate of Rehabilitation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Does not meet the criteria for a Certificate of Rehabilitation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Opportunity for Prosecutor and Crime Victim to Comment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Correctional Services Article, §7-104, Annotated Code of Maryland, requires that if the Division intends to issue a Certificate of Rehabilitation that the following be provided an opportunity to comment on the issuance of the Certificate of Rehabilitation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>State’s Attorney or prosecutor responsible for the jurisdiction in which the conviction for the crime related to the Certificate of Rehabilitation occurred; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Victim or victims, if any, of the crime referenced in §F(1)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an investigation required in §E of this regulation finds that the applicant for a Certificate of Rehabilitation meets eligibility criteria for a Certificate of Rehabilitation, within 5 workdays of the date of that determination the agent conducting the investigation shall prepare and send by U.S. Mail a written notice to the individuals identified in §F(1) of this regulation that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The full name of the individual requesting a Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The court name, case number, and date of the conviction of the individual requesting a Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A statement that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The named individual requested a Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>By law, the prosecutor and victim have a right to comment on the issuance of the requested Certificate of Rehabilitation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A statement that the individual making the request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation meets statutory eligibility requirements for the Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The name and title of the agent assigned to investigate the request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The address of the office to which a reply is to be sent; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A statement that if a response is not received within 15 calendar days of the postmark on the envelope containing the notice, the Division shall conclude the parties notified waive the right to comment under this section.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>On completion of the investigation, the agent assigned to investigate a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation on completion of the investigation shall forward the request, report of investigation, and related documentation to the Director or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Approving or Denying a Request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Approving or denying a request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation made in accordance with Regulation .06E(5) of this chapter related to a Certificate of Rehabilitation rests with the Director, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Based on the information provided by the agent assigned to investigate the request for a Certificate of Rehabilitation, the Director, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the decision is to approve the issuance of a Certificate of Rehabilitation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Direct Division staff to prepare a Certificate of Rehabilitation for the individual of record; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Mail the completed Certificate of Rehabilitation to the individual making the request; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the decision is to deny the issuance the Certificate of Rehabilitation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Direct Division staff to prepare a Denial of Certificate of Rehabilitation form that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A denial statement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The reason or reasons for the denial; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Mail the Denial of Certificate of Rehabilitation form to the individual making the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director, or a designee, shall maintain the application and related documentation in a file created for that purpose.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109, 7-103, and 7-104, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: June 4, 2018 (45:11 Md. R. 578)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Earned Compliance Credits"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except under §B of this regulation, these regulations apply to individuals supervised by the Division of Parole and Probation on probation, parole, or mandatory supervision release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>These regulations do not apply to an individual who is not a supervised individual.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Abatement” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §6-117, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Director” means the director of the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Parole and Probation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Earned compliance credit (ECC)” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §6-117, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Infraction” means an act or behavior committed by a supervised individual that is not in compliance with the supervised individual’s general or special conditions of supervised release.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Intervention” means a response to an infraction that does not require a Parole and Probation Agent or Drinking Driver Monitor to report the infraction to the sentencing court or Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Monitor” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.10.01.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Noncompliant” means a supervised individual who has received:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A sanction for a technical violation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An intervention for an infraction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Offender Case Management System (OCMS)” means the Department’s records management application and database.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Parole and Probation Agent (agent)” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.10.01.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Sanction” means a response to a technical violation that does require a Parole and Probation Agent or Drinking Driver Monitor to report the technical violation to the sentencing court of Maryland Parole Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Supervised individual” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §6-117, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Supervised release” includes the following or a combination of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Parole;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Mandatory supervision release; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Probation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Technical violation” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §6-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility to Accrue Earned Compliance Credits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Eligibility is a threshold determination which means that a supervised individual is permitted by law to receive ECC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Eligibility to earn ECC is not a guarantee that a supervised individual will receive ECC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Automated Eligibility Determination.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department shall automate eligibility for ECC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Unless an individual is determined to be ineligible under §D of this regulation, ECC shall be automatically awarded.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Review of Eligibility Determination.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an agent or monitor has reason to question the automated eligibility determination that an individual under the supervision of the Division is eligible or ineligible to earn ECC, the agent or monitor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the concern in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Manually verify the individual’s eligibility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Consult with a supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an individual under the supervision of the Division has reason to question the automated eligibility determination, the individual may provide documentation supporting eligibility to the agent or monitor to be evaluated under §D(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A supervisor who is provided information by an agent or monitor under §D(1) or (2) of this regulation shall review the material and consult with the appropriate authority to determine whether the affected individual has been improperly categorized in OCMS as eligible or ineligible for ECC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A supervisor, upon determining that an individual under the supervision of the Division is ineligible to earn ECC, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the findings and reason for ineligibility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notify the individual in writing of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Determination of ineligibility to earn ECC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reason or reasons for the determination of ineligibility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A supervisor, upon determining that an individual under the supervision of the Division is eligible to earn ECC, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Document the findings and reason for eligibility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notify the supervised individual in writing of the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Determination of eligibility to earn ECC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reason or reasons for the determination of eligibility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If the supervised individual participates in a problem solving court established under Md. Rule 16-207, an agent or monitor in conjunction with the Court shall determine if the supervised individual’s enrollment requires the supervised individual to waive abatement as described in Regulation .06D of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Award of Earned Compliance Credits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Automated Award of ECC.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a supervised individual is compliant with all of the conditions of supervised release during a calendar month, the Division shall automatically award ECC resulting in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A reduction of the period of the supervised individual’s supervised release by 20 days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An update of the supervised individual’s projected abatement eligibility date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Division may not award partial ECC or prorate the accrual of ECC based on the number of days a supervised individual is under supervised release in a calendar month.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agent or monitor shall notify the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Supervised individual once every 3 months, during the period of supervised release, of the supervised individual’s projected abatement eligibility date; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sentencing court, Parole Commission, or both, as applicable, at least 90 calendar days before a supervised individual’s abatement date is reached, of the supervised individual’s projected abatement date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A supervisor shall retract a supervised individual’s ECC if the ECC have been awarded erroneously.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Denial of Earned Compliance Credits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agent or monitor shall disqualify a supervised individual from receiving the monthly ECC if, during that month, the supervised individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Was noncompliant with a condition of supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Was arrested, summoned, or indicted on a statement of charges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Committed a violation of a criminal prohibition other than a minor traffic offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Committed a violation of a no contact or stay-away order; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Absconded from supervision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a supervised individual is denied ECC during a calendar month, the agent or monitor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Document the type of noncompliance committed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Document the denial of ECC during the calendar month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notify the supervised individual in writing of the failure to earn ECC; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Encourage the supervised individual to comply with the terms and conditions of supervision release.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The agent or monitor shall retroactively award the denied ECC to the supervised individual if the sentencing court or the Parole Commission finds that the supervised individual was in compliance for an alleged act of noncompliance that led to a denial of ECC under §§A and B of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If an agent or monitor’s denial of ECC is based on a failure of the supervised individual to make payment on a court-ordered financial obligation for a period exceeding 60 days, the supervised individual shall be retroactively awarded the denied ECC if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The supervised individual satisfies the payment obligation within 60 days; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Court waives the supervised individual’s payment obligation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Abatement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Division shall place a supervised individual on abatement if the supervised individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is not pending trial for a new criminal charge or technical violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has satisfied the term of active supervised release; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reached the supervised individual’s abatement eligibility date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Division shall not charge a supervision fee or program fee to a supervised individual whose supervised release has been abated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A supervised individual whose supervised release is abated shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Obey all laws;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Obtain written permission from the Division before relocating residence outside of the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If applicable, continue to make payments on outstanding court-ordered restitution and any associated fees.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Except as set forth in Regulation .07 of this chapter, a supervised individual whose active supervision term is abated shall remain on abated supervision status until the legal expiration date of the supervised individual’s probation, parole, or mandatory supervision release term is reached.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Consent to Continue Active Supervision. A supervised individual whose supervision is eligible for abatement may consent to continue active supervision until the legal expiration date of the supervised individual’s probation, parole, or mandatory supervision release is reached.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Abatement Rescission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An agent or monitor shall inform the sentencing court, Parole Commission, or both, as applicable, if a supervised individual whose active supervision is abated violates a condition of the supervised individual’s probation or release order.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a court or the Parole Commission finds that a supervised individual whose active supervision is abated has violated a condition of probation, parole, or mandatory supervision release, as applicable, the court or Parole Commission may rescind the supervised individual’s abatement and order the supervised individual to be returned to active supervision.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§2-109, 6-101, and 6-117, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 7, 2018 (45:9 Md. R. 462)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="14" heading="Commission on Correctional Standards"> <chapter num="01" heading="Administrative Procedures"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administration of medications” means the act of giving a single dose of a prescribed or over-the-counter drug to an inmate according to established guidelines.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Administrative segregation” means a form of physical separation of an inmate from the general population determined by the classification process or authorized personnel when the continued presence of an inmate in the general population would pose a serious threat to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Life;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Self;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Staff or other inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The security or orderly functioning of the facility; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The well-being of society.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Adult community correctional facility” means a community-based program operated by local government, State government, or a private corporation under contract with a jurisdiction providing a group residence and special treatment services for sentenced and unsentenced inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Adult correctional institution” means the Patuxent Institution or a facility operated by the Division of Correction for the confinement of sentenced inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Adult detention center” means a facility operated by State or local government for the detention of an inmate pending adjudication and for the confinement of sentenced inmates, except for the Patuxent Institution or a facility operated by the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Adult place of confinement” means a State, local, or private adult community correctional facility, adult correctional institution, or adult detention center.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Adverse job action” means a disruption to the normal operation of an institution by concerted action or inaction of facility employees.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Annual” means an action or activity performed each calendar year at intervals of 12 months.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Appeal” means a formal request for review of an action or decision by a higher authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Applicable statute” means approved legislation or formal regulation which governs a particular activity, operation, or function.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Approved standards” means those specifications in the following areas that apply to State adult correctional facilities and that may be adopted, in whole or in part, for use by a local adult correctional facility:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Administration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Counseling;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Education and vocational training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Inmate property control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Inmate work programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Library services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Mail and visiting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Management;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Physical plant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Planning and coordination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Reception and orientation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Recreational activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Release preparation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Religious services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>Research and evaluation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(q)"> <text>Rules and discipline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(r)"> <text>Special management inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(s)"> <text>Training; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(t)"> <text>Volunteers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Audit” means an inspection of an adult place of correctional confinement by the Commission on Correctional Standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Audit team” means Commission staff and other duly authorized inspectors.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Authorized personnel” means an employee of the facility or agency empowered by the managing official to carry out designated tasks, duties, responsibilities, or functions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Authorized representative of the State Fire Marshal” means an employee of a local fire agency who has been empowered to fulfill the duties and perform the functions of the Office of the State Fire Marshal in that jurisdiction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Body cavity search” means a procedure performed by qualified health care personnel by which internal cavities of the body including anal, vaginal, oral, nasal, and aural areas are physically examined either manually or by instrument to check for the presence of contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Case records” means information concerning an inmate's personal, criminal, and medical history, behavior, and activities while incarcerated, which may include, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Classification actions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Commitment papers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Court orders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Detainers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Disciplinary reports and hearings results;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Fingerprints;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Miscellaneous correspondence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Personal property receipts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Photographs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Program activity reports;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Progress notes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Record of complaints;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Release of information consent forms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>Visitor's list; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Work assignments.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Caustic material” means a substance capable of corroding, dissolving, or destroying by chemical action or reaction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Certification” means a written document indicating that an individual or agency has complied with the formal requirements of an authorizing organization, body, or association which permits the individual or agency to perform specified activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Chairman” means the Chairman of the Commission on Correctional Standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Chemical agent” means an active substance used to deter activities that might cause personal injury or property damage.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Classification” means a formal, comprehensive, and continuing process by which an inmate is assessed for risk and needs, and assigned to programs and services, a level of security, and degree of supervision in relation to existing resources.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Commission” means the Maryland Commission on Correctional Standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Compliance criteria” means those elements that auditors require to determine compliance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Compliance explanation” means an interpretation of the compliance criteria to assist in understanding the intent of the standards and methods of meeting them.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Contraband” means an item, material, or substance that is not authorized by the managing official.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Controlled substance” means a medication that requires a written prescription listing the prescribing physician's or dentist's Drug Enforcement Administration registration number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Deadly force” means the force that a trained and authorized professional employee uses with the purpose of causing, or which the authorized professional employee knows will create, a substantial risk of death or serious bodily harm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Disciplinary detention” means a form of physical separation in which an inmate found guilty at a disciplinary hearing is confined apart from the general population for a designated period of time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Disciplinary hearing” means an impartial, nonjudicial, administrative procedure to determine if substantial evidence exists to find an inmate guilty of a rule violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Dispensing medication” means the act of preparing a prescription drug by the issuance of one or more doses from a stock or bulk container by authorized health care personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>“Disturbance” means a situation which disrupts the normal operational order of an institution, and for which the assistance of additional off-duty staff may be required.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Duly authorized inspector” means an individual designated to perform an audit under the authority of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Emergency” means a situation occurring within a facility or its property requiring the deployment of resources to save lives, protect public safety and property, ensure the proper level of security, or avert or lessen the severity of the situation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Emergency communications system” means equipment which may be used to contact on short notice local and State law enforcement, a rescue or safety agency, and facility personnel to respond to a crisis situation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(36)"> <text>“Emergency medical services” means care for an acute illness, serious injury, or other unexpected health care need that cannot be delayed, and which is provided by qualified health care personnel, a local ambulance service, or a hospital emergency room or health care clinic.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(37)"> <text>“Escape” means unauthorized departure of an inmate from a place of lawful confinement or custody.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(38)"> <text>“Evacuation” means to move inmates, staff, and visitors from a threatened area of hazard to a safe, secure location.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(39)"> <text>“Exclusionary offense” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An act alleged to have been committed or committed by a child 14 years old or older which, if committed by an adult, would be a crime punishable by death or life imprisonment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A robbery or attempted robbery with a dangerous or deadly weapon.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(40)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(41)"> <text>“Exercise” means a scheduled out-of-cell or out-of-room activity, including individual or team sports, and indoor or outdoor opportunities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(42)"> <text>“Facility perimeter” means the outer portion of a correctional facility and grounds that provides the secure confinement of inmates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(43)"> <text>“Formal internal complaint system” means the method by which an inmate may address a grievance to the appropriate authority regarding circumstances or actions considered to be unjust.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(44)"> <text>“General population” means inmates assigned to a custody status absent restrictions with respect to programs, services, and opportunities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(45)"> <text>“Governing authority” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Commissioner of Correction with reference to adult places of confinement under the jurisdiction of the Division of Correction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A county sheriff with reference to adult places of confinement under the jurisdiction of the sheriff; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The highest executive authority having jurisdiction over any other State or local adult place of confinement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(46)"> <text>“Health trained” means correctional personnel who have been instructed to carry out specific duties with regard to the performance of certain health care functions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(47)"> <text>“Indigent” means an inmate with limited funds and insufficient resources necessary to provide for basic needs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(48)"> <text>“Initial reception facility” means a correctional facility where an inmate is first admitted for processing from police custody, a court lockup, or other holding facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(49)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual in pretrial, unsentenced, or sentenced status who is lawfully confined in a correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(50)"> <text>“Inspection” means the observation or examination of an item to assess its condition and utility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(51)"> <text>“Inventory” means a detailed listing used to determine the presence of certain items during a specified period of time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(52)"> <text>“Juvenile” means an individual under the age of majority who has not been adjudicated as an adult or who has not committed an exclusionary offense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(53)"> <text>“Legal mail” means correspondence between an inmate and:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The courts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Legal counsel; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Other judicial, legislative, and executive authorities specifically designated as privileged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(54)"> <text>“Managing official” means the individual responsible for the administration and operation of a correctional facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(55)"> <text>“Mandatory standards” means those rules in the following areas that apply to State and local adult correctional facilities:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Administrative record keeping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Food services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Hearings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Inmate rights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Inmate safety; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Security and inmate control.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(56)"> <text>“Medical isolation” means the physical housing of an inmate apart from the general population based on a medical judgement or diagnostic decision rendered by qualified health care personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(57)"> <text>“Medical screening” means a system of structured observation and formal health assessment by qualified health care personnel or a trained individual to identify an individual who poses a health or safety threat to himself or herself, or to others.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(58)"> <text>“Menstrual hygiene products” has the meaning stated in Correctional Services Article, §§4-214 and 9-616, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(59)"> <text>“Person in interest” means an individual who is the subject of a record or a representative designated by the person in interest.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(60)"> <text>Personal Hygiene Article.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Personal hygiene article” means an item used by an individual to clean the individual’s body or clothing, and to preserve sanitary conditions, as well as overall health.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Personal hygiene article” includes, but is not limited to deodorant, shaving items for males, shampoo, soap, tooth brush, and tooth paste.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(61)"> <text>“Physical examination” means a thorough evaluation of a patient's current physical condition and medical history by authorized health care personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(62)"> <text>“Physical force” means the minimal amount of physical contact used by trained and authorized correctional personnel to control an individual's behavior and enforce or restore order.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(63)"> <text>“Policy” means a statement of guiding principles approved by the appropriate authority which determines the general direction of present or future decisions and actions of correctional facility personnel toward the attainment of stated goals and objectives.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(64)"> <text>“Post orders” means a list of general job functions, duties, tasks, and responsibilities required of each duty position.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(65)"> <text>“Procedure” means the detailed and sequential set of steps or actions to ensure the implementation of approved policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(66)"> <text>“Protective custody” means a form of separation from the general population for an inmate requesting or requiring protection from others, or for reasons of health or safety.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(67)"> <text>“Protocol” means a written order that specifies the steps to be taken in appraising an individual's physical status.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(68)"> <text>“Qualified health care personnel” means a physician, dentist, psychiatrist, psychologist, nurse, physician's assistant, nurse practitioner, pharmacist, and other professional individual licensed, registered, or certified according to State requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(69)"> <text>“Records retention schedule” means an official document listing and describing all of the records of a facility or agency, and providing authorization for the destruction of those records that are not essential to the facility's or agency's operation after the lapse of a stated period of time, and for permanent maintenance of those records considered to be of enduring value.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(70)"> <text>“Responding agencies and organizations” means a body which is identified in the emergency plans as potentially involved in or responsible for the implementation of a portion of these plans.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(71)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(72)"> <text>“Security round” means a tour, check, or other action in which correctional personnel walk through the facility, particularly inmate living and activity areas, to observe inmate behavior, monitor security and safety equipment, conduct informal searches, and note irregularities or unusual circumstances.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(73)"> <text>“Sick call” means the medical care provided an inmate who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Has expressed a need for nonemergency medical attention through an established request system; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is evaluated and treated in a clinical setting.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(74)"> <text>“Standard” means an instrument to measure comparison for quantitative or qualitative value according to established guidelines as stated in COMAR 12.14.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(75)"> <text>“Standing order” means a written medical instruction that specifies the same course of treatment for each individual suspected of having a given condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(76)"> <text>“Strip search” means an observation of an inmate's unclothed body to determine the presence of contraband.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(77)"> <text>“Toxic material” means a substance that directly or through chemical reaction or mixture can produce possible injury or harm to the body through the skin, digestive tract, or respiratory tract.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(78)"> <text>“Trained personnel” means an individual receiving required information for which documentation can be produced.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(79)"> <text>“Training” means the formal process by which staff are made aware or informed of essential duties and responsibilities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Audits—General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Adherence to minimum standards for adult detention centers, adult community correctional facilities, and adult correctional institutions shall be determined by auditing procedures approved by the Commission and published in a standards manual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Audit teams consisting of selected and trained individuals employed in the field of criminal justice at the local and State levels shall be used in conjunction with staff of the Maryland Commission on Correctional Standards. These teams shall be led by a Commission staff member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Audits of adult correctional institutions, adult detention centers, and adult community correctional facilities shall be conducted at least every 3 years and shall be announced.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Preaudit Activities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Audits shall be arranged to allow for the timely, complete, and accurate submission by the managing official of required documents to the Commission office.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Executive Director shall distribute to the managing official at least 60 days before the scheduled on-site visit the materials necessary for audit preparation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall forward to the Commission office the materials in §B of this regulation at least 30 days before the on-site visit for consideration by the Commission staff and other authorized inspectors.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Executive Director shall designate audit team composition, assign individual regulations to be evaluated by team members, and arrange for the prompt dissemination of appropriate documentation and related information to the authorized inspectors for their review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The specific dates of the on-site visit shall be determined by the Executive Director in concert with the managing official and shall take into consideration the availability of authorized inspectors.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="On-Site Audit Activities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The audit team shall meet with the managing official and designated facility personnel, upon arrival, to hold an entrance interview for the purpose of providing a tentative schedule of audit activities, explaining the inspection process, and answering questions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The audit team shall perform a complete tour of the facility and grounds to observe the state of cleanliness and repair, and assess the totality of conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The audit team shall hold discussions with facility staff and inmates according to established guidelines during the course of the on-site visit to determine their perspective regarding standards-related matters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The audit team members shall review documentation presented to substantiate compliance with those regulations assigned to them.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The audit team leader shall review and discuss the preliminary compliance decisions with each team member to confirm the findings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The audit team shall meet with the managing official and designated facility personnel to hold an exit conference for the purpose of summarizing the audit results.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Post-Audit Activities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The audit team leader shall review and discuss the audit results with the Executive Director before formalization of the findings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The audit team leader shall issue a report to the managing official for review and comment within 30 days of completion of the audit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Executive Director shall submit the final report and compliance plan to the Commission for consideration and approval within 60 days of completion of the audit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Executive Director shall disseminate the final report and compliance plan to the specified distribution within 15 days of the Commission's approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commission staff shall routinely monitor the approved compliance plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The managing official shall submit a written request to the Commission for modification of the compliance deadlines, when initial plans for corrective action cannot be met, for formal consideration at the next regularly scheduled Commission meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If approved, the Commission shall issue a revised plan for corrective action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If disapproved, the Commission may conduct a hearing according to established procedures to determine whether certain facility functions, operations, or practices should be limited or discontinued, the facility closed, or other appropriate actions taken.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Executive Director shall recommend to the Commission, at a regularly scheduled meeting, the presentation of the recognition of achievement award to a facility which has attained total compliance within 1 year of the approval of the compliance plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>For a facility which does not achieve 100 percent compliance within 1 year, Commission staff shall continue to monitor the correction of noted deficiencies until the next scheduled audit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Compliance Exemptions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Nonapplicability. A standard is not applicable to the operation of an adult place of confinement if sufficient material elements of the standard make the application clearly not relevant. Audit team members shall determine nonapplicability during the audit process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Variance. If a standard which applies to the operation of an adult place of confinement is determined to be in noncompliance, but the managing official feels the plan of corrective action inappropriate to facility management, a request for variance shall be made in writing to the Commission for consideration at the next regularly scheduled meeting.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Appeals."> <text>If the managing official disagrees with a compliance decision, the managing official may submit an appeal in writing to the Executive Director before formal consideration of the final report and compliance plan. If the Executive Director confirms the audit team finding, the managing official may present a written appeal to the Commission for the Commission's consideration at the next regularly scheduled meeting.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Technical Assistance."> <text>To the extent possible in the budget, the Commission staff shall provide technical assistance to facilities in noncompliance with standards. Assistance shall be provided directly and by referral to other resources.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Life-Threatening or Health-Endangering Conditions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon detection or identification of a life-threatening or health-endangering practice or condition as determined by the audit team leader, the Executive Director or designee may give verbal notice to the managing official to immediately cease a practice or condition or may order the facility closed. Written notice shall be forwarded within 24 hours by the person giving the notice or order to the managing official with copies to the executive authority of the jurisdiction, the Secretary, and the Commission Chairman.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 96 hours of the verbal notice of order, the Commission shall convene a hearing, according to established procedures, for the purpose of reviewing and confirming or countermanding the order.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Authority of the Secretary."> <text>The Secretary may, at the Secretary's discretion, exercise any of the powers of the Commission pursuant to Correctional Services Article, §2-113, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-214 and 9-616 and Title 8, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 823)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .06—.08 adopted effective January 2, 1983 (9:26 Md. R. 2573)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 repealed and new Regulations .01—.10 adopted effective November 25, 1991 (18:23 Md. R. 2488)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 repealed and new Regulation .01 adopted effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1900)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective November 18, 2019 (46:23 Md. R. 1066)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C amended effective October 4, 2010 (37:20 Md. R. 1394)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Public Information Requests" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 823)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective September 24, 1984 (11:19 Md. R. 1667)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Minimum Standards for Adult Detention Centers"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Standards — Security and Inmate Control."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy, governing the use of physical force, which includes a provision for written reports of all instances of use of force, and which shall include but is not limited to the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Instances of justifiable self-defense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Protection of others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Protection of property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Prevention of escape;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy, governing the use of deadly force to prevent escape or manage an immediate danger to life situation, which shall include provisions for formal investigation of all instances of use of deadly force and submission of written reports for supervisory review;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Written emergency plans for riots, disturbances, hostage taking, escapes, bomb threats, adverse employee job actions, and other such circumstances which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities, including record keeping of all significant activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Availability and use of an emergency communications system in urgent, special, or unusual conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Designation of an appropriate location to serve as an operations center during the emergency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Specification of the requirements to ensure command and control of the situation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that all personnel directly or indirectly involved are informed of pertinent aspects of the emergency security plans;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, accountability, storage, and use of firearms, ammunition, chemical agents, organic agents, restraining devices, communication apparatus, riot equipment, and other security-related equipment which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Monthly inspection and inventory to determine condition, accountability, and operational status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Designation of circumstances for use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A record of issue and inspection upon return;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that authorized personnel are trained and qualified in the use, safety, and care of firearms, chemical agents, and other security-related equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A written policy which prohibits an inmate from supervising, controlling, and exerting or assuming authority over other inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for the supervision of inmates which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>One recorded count per shift;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Security rounds on each shift of inmate living and activity areas recorded by the observing facility personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Monitoring of a minimum security inmate in the community to verify whereabouts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Drug and alcohol testing of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Secure and orderly movement of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Weekly recorded inspection by security personnel of locks, bars, windows, doors, and the facility perimeter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A written post order, acknowledged by appropriate personnel, at each security position;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the search of the facility, vehicles, inmates, visitors, and staff which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A personnel search according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A semiannual recorded search of inmate living and program and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A recorded search of an inmate involved in community activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Searches of other inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A recorded search of a vehicle which enters the facility perimeter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A search of a visitor performed in accordance with established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Protection of inmate property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A receipt to be given to an inmate whose personal property is confiscated and identified as returnable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Chain of custody and the preservation of evidence according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Inspection of body cavities to be conducted in private by qualified health care personnel when there is a reasonable belief that the inmate possesses contraband of a life-threatening or health-endangering nature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A visual search of an inmate to be performed in private by facility personnel of the same sex; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Informing security personnel of the search regulations;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, storage, and use of facility keys which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A record of issue and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A duplicate key for each lock;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Designation of emergency and restricted keys; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, storage, and use of tools which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized to use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A record of issue and return; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the transportation of an inmate outside the facility which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Current weapons qualification and required motor vehicle licensure of a person authorized to transport;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of circumstances for use of firearms, chemical agents, and restraining equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Protection of inmates, staff, public, and property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Appropriate response in the event of accident;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the admission of a newly received inmate to an initial reception facility which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Verification of legal commitment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Search of an inmate in accordance with applicable case law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A system of positive identification of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Collection of personal data; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Documentation of opportunity to make initial telephone calls;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the release of an inmate which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Verification of identity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Authentication of authorization to discharge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Notification to affected agencies and persons as required by law or regulation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the placement, removal, supervision, and rights of an inmate assigned to administrative segregation, disciplinary detention, medical isolation, and protective custody status which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identification of persons authorized to place and remove an inmate from special confinement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of circumstances and conditions warranting assignment and release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Specification of time frames, method, and persons authorized to review status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Access to services, programs, and activities consistent with the inmate's status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Maintenance of supervision records of specified activities and occurrences;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Providing living quarters for male and female inmates which are separate and distinct to ensure privacy.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Standards — Inmate Safety."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that a facility meets all fire safety regulations as verified by an annual inspection by authorized representatives of the State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy and procedure requiring facility personnel with documented training in fire safety practices to perform monthly internal inspections to monitor compliance with fire safety and prevention regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Written disaster plans for fires, chemical spills, civil defense, natural disasters, power outage, and other circumstances which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Full, partial and medical evacuation addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The handling of injured persons;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Security considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Instructions for responding emergency personnel and vehicles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Movement of affected persons to safe areas;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Quarterly fire drills on each shift to include inmates, unless their inclusion compromises security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A written evacuation plan that conforms to federal, State, and local fire safety codes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An annual review that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Building interior diagram or floor plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Marked exits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Directional symbols; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Locations of posted evacuation diagrams;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that all personnel are informed of the disaster plans;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring 24-hour emergency medical services including provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Access to health care facilities and qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of first aid kit content and location, approved by qualified health care personnel, and monthly inventories to determine supply; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A person with current certification in basic first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) available to inmate living and activity areas on each shift;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A written policy and procedure specifying the method for requesting weekly access to sick call and the provisions for prompt staff referral of special medical problems to appropriate health care professionals, which is communicated to personnel having direct contact with inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A written policy and procedure which provides that medical screening of an inmate is conducted by health-trained or qualified health care personnel within 24 hours of admission to an initial reception facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A written policy and procedure for the dispensing of prescribed medication which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Prescription initiation by authorized persons;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of the method for the filling of prescription orders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Specification of the system of packaging and labelling of prescription medication;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A written policy and procedure for the administration of prescription and over-the-counter medication which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Standing orders or protocol approved by the physician in charge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Instruction of nonmedical personnel on the proper method of administration by qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A record of the administration and refusal of medications; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Designation of circumstances for inmate self-administration;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, storage, and management of prescription, stock, and over-the-counter medication which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage of facility medication;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Recorded disposal of unused and expired medications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A weekly inventory of controlled substances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Handling of personal medication of a newly admitted inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Handling of personal and facility-prescribed medication for an inmate transferred or released;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, storage, and use of needles, syringes, and instruments which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Weekly inventory to determine accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Disposal of needles and syringes according to established regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Maintenance of a record of use of needles and syringes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A current master listing of medical and dental instruments;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>A written policy prohibiting the use of an inmate for medical, pharmaceutical, or cosmetic experiments, that does not preclude the individual treatment of an inmate based on need for a specific medical procedure which is not generally available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that health care personnel who provide services to inmates have current credentials, certifications, or licenses according to State requirements;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>A written policy specifying that matters of medical, psychiatric, and dental judgment are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The province of qualified health care personnel; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not subject to interference by facility personnel unless necessary to maintain order and security;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>A written policy and procedure requiring a physical examination of an inmate by qualified health care personnel within 14 days of admission at the initial reception facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that inmate medical records are screened by qualified health care personnel before or within 7 days after release to determine if a medical condition exists which would require referral to community medical resources;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that the facility meets workplace safety and health standards, and ensuring the remediation of deficiencies identified by inspections conducted periodically by the Maryland Occupational Safety and Health Administration (MOSHA);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="R."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the identification, housing, treatment, supervision, and referral of mentally ill and retarded inmates according to established guidelines to include due process guarantees;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="S."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the notification of next of kin in cases of serious illness, serious injury, or death.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Standards—Inmate Food Services."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for a menu approved annually by a registered dietitian;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that three meals a day are served with not more than a 14-hour interval between the evening meal and breakfast;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that the food service operation is currently licensed and meets State sanitation and health regulations as verified by inspection as required by the health department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that those involved in the preparation and handling of food comply with the health department regulations regarding personal hygiene and clothing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that staff and inmates involved in the preparation and handling of food receive medical screening by qualified health care professionals before assignment, and annually after that;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A written policy and procedure authorizing special diets as prescribed by qualified health care personnel and as necessary to adhere to the mandatory requirements of recognized faiths;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A written policy which prohibits the use of food as punishment or reward;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that personnel continuously supervise the food service operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A written policy and procedure requiring weekly sanitation inspections of food preparation, food storage, food service, and dining areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the availability, control, storage, and use of kitchen utensils, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living areas,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of issue and return,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized access and use, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A current master listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Standards — Inmate Housing and Sanitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of flammable, toxic, and caustic materials which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection and inventory to determine condition and accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized access and use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of issue and disposal;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring weekly sanitation inspections of internal and external facility areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Governing facility housekeeping, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specific description of staff and inmate duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly vermin and pest control services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Weekly trash removal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A secure paper or plastic receptacle for daily disposal of soiled menstrual hygiene products; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Weekly removal of paper or plastic receptacles containing soiled menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Governing the availability of personal hygiene articles, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The issue of no cost personal hygiene articles to an inmate at the time of admission to a facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The issue of no cost personal hygiene articles to an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The issue of no cost menstrual hygiene products to a female inmate at the time of admission to a facility, on a routine basis, and upon request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Routine commissary access for the purchase of personal hygiene articles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of inventory for menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return of clothing to an inmate unless personal clothing is allowed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return to an inmate of mattresses, pillows, sheets, pillow cases, towels, wash cloths, and blankets;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Providing for weekly laundering and accountability of issued and personal clothing and linens; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Providing for the management of inmate personal property, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Designation of property limitations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A listing of all property confiscated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The signature of inmate and personnel upon confiscation and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A semiannual inventory of property retained by the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Replacement of damaged or lost items;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Recorded disposition of property abandoned by an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Recorded modifications to an established listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall ensure that the facility provides sufficient toilet, shower, and bathing accommodations to maintain basic health and personal hygiene.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Standards — Inmate Rights."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy stating that an inmate is not discriminated against with regard to programs, services, or activities on the basis of race, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or political beliefs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy which establishes inmate protection from physical and mental abuse and harassment by personnel that includes a zero tolerance for sexual abuse and sexual harassment providing for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Facility response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Access to medical health care; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Access to mental health counseling and support;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written policy and procedure regarding inmate legal matters, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Access to the courts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Availability of legal reference materials;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Handling of legal mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Confidential visits with legal counsel and their authorized representatives; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Use of the telephone for legal purposes;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A written policy and procedure which permits an inmate to practice a religion of choice subject only to the restrictions necessary to maintain facility order and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the handling of inmate correspondence and packages, including provisions for postage allowance to an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing inmate orientation which includes provisions for informing staff having direct contact with inmates and inmates within 7 days of admission, including instructions regarding:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Disaster plan responses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Classification process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Rules, regulations, and disciplinary procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Complaint process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Search practices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Access to case record procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Programs and services regulated by standards; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Access to sick call procedures;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A written policy which ensures the right of a convicted inmate to decline to participate in activities, services, and programs with the exception of work assignments, adult basic education programs, or programs specifically mandated by statute, ordered by the sentencing court, or based upon written agreement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A written policy which ensures the right of a pretrial inmate to decline to participate in facility programming and work assignments, other than housekeeping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing the facilities, equipment, personnel, and opportunity for regular exercise which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of exercise periods;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for a formal internal complaint system about which those having direct contact with inmates are informed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A written policy which ensures the right of an inmate to exercise freedom in personal grooming and appearance subject only to facility requirements essential to safety, security, identification, and hygiene;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>A written policy and procedure permitting an inmate reasonable contact with the communications media;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>A written policy and procedure which prohibits a juvenile from being detained in or committed to an adult correctional facility unless legal jurisdiction has been waived to the adult authorities or the juvenile is formally charged with having committed an exclusionary offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing visitation which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of the visitation period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing inmate access to telephones which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of calls.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Standards--Classification."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy and procedure establishing a classification process to determine housing, job, and other assignments, and which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Designation of persons involved in decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Criteria for decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Initial inmate classification within 1 week of admission, and annual reclassification,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of decisions, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Review of all decisions by the managing official or designee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that individuals involved in classification decision making are informed of the classification process.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards—Hearings."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing a formal disciplinary hearing by an impartial individual or committee of individuals not directly involved in the incident, which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate receipt of a written description of the incident and a specification of the rule violation or violations within 96 hours of the alleged infraction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate appearance at the disciplinary hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Within 9 days, excluding holidays and weekends, of the alleged infraction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not less than 24 hours after notification of charges, unless waived by the inmate;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate to be given an opportunity to request and question witnesses, to have staff representatives, to make statements on the inmate's behalf, and to present documentary evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of hearing decisions and rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Review by the managing official or designee of hearing decisions adverse to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An appeal process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A report of all hearing decisions to the managing official or designee; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring that individuals having direct contact with inmates are informed of the facility rules and regulations and disciplinary procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Standards — Administrative Record Keeping."> <text>The managing official of a correctional facility is responsible for the following:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A written policy and procedure ensuring the confidentiality of, and methods of access to, a case record by an inmate, person in interest, and an individual or agency making a formal request, and which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identification of persons authorized to approve access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific designation of materials subject to disclosure and restriction in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A release of information consent form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of access decisions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An appeal process for those who are denied access;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for the accurate computation and recording of good conduct, industrial, and special projects credit in accordance with applicable statutes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written policy and procedure governing the management of inmate funds, and which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Confiscation and receipting of monies upon admission, unless retention is otherwise authorized;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Establishment of an inmate account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A record of financial transactions, including transfer to other facilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Recorded return of funds upon release;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A written policy and procedure providing for the recorded annual review of policies, procedures, post orders, inmate orientation materials, operating manuals, and other official publications to determine current application and utility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A written policy and procedure requiring a complete case record for each inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specification of file content and order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A date and signature on all documents and entries;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Establishment of a records retention schedule with documentation of disposition; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Transfer of pertinent records to other correctional facilities;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Having a written policy and procedures for ensuring compliance with Correctional Training Commission employee background checks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Having a written policy and procedures for ensuring compliance with Correctional Training Commission training requirements.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-214 and 9-616 and Title 8, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 823)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A—E, H amended effective February 27, 1984 (11:4 Md. R. 315); July 29, 1985 (12:15 Md. R. 1521)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective February 10, 1986 (13:3 Md. R. 272)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .02 repealed and new Regulations .01—.09 adopted effective November 25, 1991 (18:23 Md. R. 2488)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 repealed effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1900)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02E, J amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03Q amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 repealed and new Regulation .05 adopted effective November 18, 2019 (46:23 Md. R. 1066)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08A amended effective October 29, 2001 (28:21 Md. R. 1857)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Minimum Standards for Adult Correctional Institutions"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Standards — Security and Inmate Control."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Governing the use of physical force, and which shall include a provision for written reports of all instances of the use of physical force, and also shall include, but not be limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Instances of justifiable self-defense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Protection of others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Protection of property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Prevention of escape;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Governing the use of deadly force to prevent escape or manage an immediate danger to life situation, and which shall include provisions for formal investigation of all instances of the use of deadly force and submission of written reports for supervisory review; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Which prohibits an inmate from supervising, controlling, and exerting or assuming authority over other inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensuring that all personnel, directly or indirectly involved, are informed of pertinent aspects of emergency security plans;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, accountability, storage, and use of firearms, ammunition, chemical agents, organic agents, restraining devices, communication apparatus, riot equipment, and other security-related equipment, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Monthly inspection and inventory to determine condition, accountability, and operational status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Designation of circumstances for use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A record of issue and inspection upon return;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that authorized personnel are trained and qualified in the use, safety, and care of firearms, chemical agents, and other security-related equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Providing for the supervision of inmates, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One recorded count per shift;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A security round or rounds on each shift of inmate living areas recorded by the observing facility personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Monitoring of an inmate in the community to verify the inmate's whereabouts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Drug and alcohol testing of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Secure and orderly movement of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Weekly recorded inspection by security personnel of locks, bars, windows, doors, and the facility perimeter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Governing the search of the facility, vendors, vehicles, inmates, visitors, and staff, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A personnel search according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A semiannual recorded search of inmate living and program and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A recorded search of an inmate involved in community activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Searches of other inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A recorded search of a vehicle which enters a secured perimeter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A search of a visitor performed in accordance with established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Protection of inmate property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A receipt to be given to an inmate whose personal property is confiscated and identified as returnable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Chain of custody and the preservation of evidence according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Inspection of body cavities to be conducted in private by qualified health care personnel when there is a reasonable belief that the inmate possesses contraband of a life-threatening or health-endangering nature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>A strip search of an inmate to be performed in private by facility personnel of the same sex; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Instruction of security personnel in search regulations;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of facility keys, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of those individuals authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of issue and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A duplicate key for each lock;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Designation of emergency and restricted keys; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of tools, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized to use the tools;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of issue and return; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing the transportation of an inmate outside the facility, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Current weapons qualification and required motor vehicle licensure of an individual authorized to transport;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of circumstances which warrant the use of firearms, chemical agents, and restraining equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Protection of inmates, staff, the public, and property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Appropriate response in the event of an accident;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing the admission of a newly received inmate to an initial reception facility, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of legal commitment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Search of an inmate in accordance with applicable case law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A system of positive identification of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Collection of personal data;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Governing the release of an inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of identity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authentication of authorization to discharge the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notification to affected agencies and individuals as required by law or regulation; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Governing the placement, removal, supervision, and rights of an inmate assigned to administrative segregation, disciplinary detention, medical isolation, and protective custody status, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Identification of individuals authorized to place an inmate in and remove an inmate from special confinement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of circumstances and conditions warranting assignment and release;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of time frames, methods, and those individuals authorized to review status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Access to services, programs, and activities consistent with the inmate's status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Maintenance of supervision records of specified activities and occurrences.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall provide living quarters for male and female inmates which are separate and ensure privacy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The managing official shall have written emergency plans for riots, disturbances, hostage-taking, escapes, bomb threats, adverse employee job actions, and other such circumstances, which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities, including record keeping of all significant activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Availability and use of an emergency communications system in urgent, special, or unusual conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Designation of an appropriate location to serve as an operations center during the emergency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Specification of the requirements to ensure command and control of the situation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The managing official shall have a written post order, acknowledged by appropriate personnel, at every security position.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Standards — Inmate Safety."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensuring that the facility meets all fire safety regulations as verified by an annual inspection by authorized representatives of the State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring facility personnel with documented training in fire safety practices to perform monthly internal inspections to monitor compliance with fire safety and prevention regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that all personnel are informed of the disaster plans in §B of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensuring 24-hour emergency medical services, including provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Access to health care facilities and qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of first-aid kit content and location, approval by qualified health care personnel, and monthly inventories to determine supply; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An individual with current certification in basic first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in inmate living and activity areas during each shift;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Which shall be communicated to personnel having direct contact with inmates, specifying the method for requesting weekly access to sick call and the provisions for prompt staff referral of special medical problems to appropriate health care professionals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Which states that medical screening of an inmate be conducted by health trained or qualified health care personnel within 24 hours of the inmate's admission to an initial reception facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>For the dispensing of prescribed medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prescription initiation by authorized individuals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of the method for the filling of prescription orders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of the system of packaging and labelling of prescription medication;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>For the administration of prescription and over-the-counter medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Standing orders or protocol approved by the physician in charge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instruction of nonmedical personnel on the proper method of administration of medication by qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A record of the administration and refusal of medications; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Designation of circumstances warranting inmate self-administration;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and management of prescription, stock, and over-the-counter medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Recorded disposal of unused and expired medications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A weekly inventory of controlled substances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Handling of personal medication of a newly admitted inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Handling of personal medication and facility-prescribed medication for an inmate transferred or released;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of needles, syringes, and instruments, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Weekly inventory to determine accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Disposal of needles and syringes according to established regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Maintenance of a record of the use of needles and syringes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A current master listing of medical and dental instruments;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Ensuring that health care personnel who provide services to inmates have current credentials, certifications, or licenses required by the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Providing for the routine health examination of inmates according to established guidelines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Ensuring that inmate medical records are screened by qualified health care personnel before or within 7 days after release to determine if a medical condition exists which would require referral to community medical resources;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Ensuring that the facility meets workplace safety and health standards, and ensuring the remediation of deficiencies identified by inspections conducted periodically by the Maryland Occupational Safety and Health Administration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Governing the identification, housing, treatment, supervision, and referral of a mentally ill inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Access to qualified mental health professionals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Identification of community resources available to assist;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of the process of evaluation and referral;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Designation of the method for referral to community resources according to established guidelines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Development of comprehensive plans for treatment and care;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Maintenance of supervision records of specified activities and occurrences; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Identification of separate and distinct living quarters; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Governing the notification of next of kin in cases of serious illness, serious injury, or death of an inmate and, in case of the death of an inmate, positive identification is to be made before notification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have written disaster plans for fires, chemical spills, civil defense, natural disasters, power outages, and other circumstances, which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Full, partial, and medical evacuation addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The handling of injured individuals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Security considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Instructions for responding emergency personnel and vehicles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Movement of affected individuals to safe areas;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Quarterly fire drills during each shift which include inmates, unless their inclusion compromises security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A written evacuation plan that conforms to federal, State, and local fire safety codes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An annual review that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Building interior diagram or floor plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Marked exits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Directional symbols; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Locations of posted evacuation diagrams.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy prohibiting the use of an inmate for medical, pharmaceutical, or cosmetic experiments. This does not preclude the individual treatment of a consenting inmate based on the need for a specified medical procedure which is not generally available.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy specifying that matters of medical, psychiatric, and dental judgement are the province of qualified health care personnel and are not subject to interference by facility personnel unless necessary to maintain order and security.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The managing official shall provide for a written policy and procedure requiring a physical examination of an inmate by qualified health care personnel within 14 days of admission to the initial reception facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Standards—Inmate Food Services."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Requiring that a menu be approved annually by a registered dietitian;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensuring that three meals a day are served, with not more than a 14-hour interval between the evening meal and breakfast;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that the food service operation is currently licensed and meets State sanitation and health regulations and that this is verified by inspection as required by the health department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensuring that an individual involved in the preparation and handling of food complies with health department regulations regarding personal hygiene and clothing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ensuring that staff and inmates involved in the preparation and handling of food receive medical screenings by qualified health care professionals before assignment, and annually after that;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensuring that personnel continuously supervise the food service operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Requiring weekly sanitation inspections of food preparation, food storage, food service, and dining areas; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of kitchen utensils, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of issue and return,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized access and use, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A current master listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall provide for a written policy and procedure authorizing special diets as prescribed by qualified health care personnel and as necessary to adhere to the mandatory requirements of recognized faiths.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy which prohibits the use of food as punishment or reward.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Standards — Inmate Housing and Sanitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of flammable, toxic, and caustic materials, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection and inventory to determine condition and accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized access and use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of issue and disposal;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring weekly sanitation inspections of internal and external facility areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Governing facility housekeeping, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specific description of staff and inmate duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly vermin and pest control services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Weekly trash removal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A secure paper or plastic receptacle for daily disposal of soiled menstrual hygiene products; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Weekly removal of paper or plastic receptacles containing soiled menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Governing the availability and distribution of personal hygiene articles, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The issue of no-cost personal hygiene articles to an inmate at the time of admission to a facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The issue of no-cost personal hygiene articles to an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The issue of no-cost menstrual hygiene products to a female inmate at the time of admission to a facility, on a routine basis, and upon request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Routine commissary access for the purchase of personal hygiene articles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of inventory for menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return of clothing to an inmate, unless personal clothing is allowed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return to an inmate of mattresses, pillows, sheets, pillow cases, towels, wash cloths, and blankets;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Providing for weekly laundering and accountability of issued and personal clothing and linens;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Providing for the management of inmate personal property, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Designation of property limitations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A listing of all property confiscated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The signature of inmate and personnel upon confiscation and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A semiannual inventory of property retained by the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Replacement of damaged or lost items;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Recorded disposition of property abandoned by an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Recorded modifications to the established listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall ensure that the facility provides sufficient toilet, shower, and bathing accommodations to maintain basic health and personal hygiene.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Standards — Inmate Rights."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy which:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>States that an inmate is not discriminated against with regard to programs, services, or activities on the basis of race, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or political beliefs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Establishes inmate protection from physical and mental abuse, and harassment by personnel that includes a zero tolerance for sexual abuse and sexual harassment providing for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Facility response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Access to medical health care; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Access to mental health counseling and support;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensures the right of a convicted inmate to decline to participate in activities, services, and programs, with the exception of work assignments, adult basic education programs, or programs specifically mandated by statute, ordered by the sentencing court, or based upon written agreement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensures the right of an inmate to exercise freedom in personal grooming and appearance, subject only to facility requirements essential to safety, security, identification, and hygiene.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Regarding inmate legal matters, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Access to the courts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Availability of legal reference materials;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Handling of legal mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Confidential visits with legal counsel and their authorized representatives; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Use of the telephone for legal purposes;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Which permits an inmate to practice a religion of choice, subject only to the restrictions necessary to maintain facility order and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Governing the handling of inmate correspondence and packages, including provisions for postage allowance for an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Governing inmate orientation, which includes provisions for orientating inmates within 7 days of admission, and staff having direct contact with inmates, and with the inmate orientation including instructions regarding:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Emergency plans response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classification process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Rules, regulations, and disciplinary procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Complaint process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Search practices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Access to case record procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Programs and services regulated by standards; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Access to sick call procedures;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Providing the facilities, equipment, personnel, and opportunity for regular exercise which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of exercise periods;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Providing for a formal internal complaint system and ensuring that personnel having direct contact with inmates are informed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Permitting an inmate reasonable contact with the media;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing visitation which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of the visitation period; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing inmate access to telephones which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of calls.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Standards—Classification."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Establishing a classification process to determine housing, job, and other assignments, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Initial inmate classification within 45 days of admission and reclassification according to established guidelines,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of individuals involved in decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Criteria for decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmate appearance during classification actions and conditions under which an inmate may initiate a status review,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Routine assessment of security and program needs,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A record of decisions and rationale,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Review of all recommendations and decisions by the managing official or designee, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An appeal process; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Ensuring that individuals involved in classification decision making are informed of the classification process.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Standards—Hearings."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Governing a formal disciplinary hearing by an impartial individual or a committee of individuals not directly involved in the incident, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate receipt of a written description of the incident and a specification of the rule violation or violations within 96 hours of the alleged infraction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate appearance at the disciplinary hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Within 9 days, excluding holidays and weekends, of the alleged infraction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not less than 24 hours after notification of charges, unless waived by the inmate;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate to be given an opportunity to request and question witnesses, to have staff representatives, to make statements on the inmate's behalf, and to present documentary evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of hearing decisions and rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Review by the managing official or designee of hearing decisions adverse to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An appeal process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A report of all hearing decisions to the managing official or designee; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Ensuring that an individual having direct contact with inmates is informed of the facility rules, regulations, and disciplinary procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards — Administrative Record Keeping."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Ensuring the confidentiality and methods of access to a case record by an inmate, a person in interest, and an individual or agency making a formal request, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identification of individuals authorized to approve access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific designation of materials subject to disclosure and restriction in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A release of information consent form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of access decisions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An appeal process for those individuals who are denied access;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Which provides for the accurate computation and recording of good conduct, industrial, and special projects credit in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Governing the management of inmate funds, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Confiscation and receipting of monies upon admission, unless retention is otherwise authorized;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Establishment of an inmate account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A record of financial transactions, including transfer to other facilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Recorded return of funds upon release;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Providing for the recorded annual review of policies, procedures, post orders, inmate orientation materials, operating manuals, and other official publications to determine current application and utility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Requiring a complete case record for each inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specification of file content and order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A date and signature on all documents and entries;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Establishment of a records retention schedule with documentation of disposition; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Transfer of pertinent records to other correctional facilities;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>To ensure compliance with Correctional Training Commission employee background checks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>To ensure compliance with Correctional Training Commission training requirements.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-214 and 9-616 and Title 8, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 823)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective February 27, 1984 (11:4 Md. R. 315); July 29, 1985 (12:15 Md. R. 1521); February 10, 1986 (13:3 Md. R. 272)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .02 repealed and new Regulations .01—.08 adopted effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1900)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A amended effective November 18, 2019 (46:23 Md. R. 1066)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A amended effective October 29, 2001 (28:21 Md. R. 1857)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08E amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08F, G adopted effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Minimum Standards for Adult Community Correctional Facilities"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Standards — Security and Inmate Control."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Governing the use of physical force, with the policy including a provision for written reports of all instances of the use of physical force, and which also includes, but is not limited to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Instances of justifiable self-defense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Protection of others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Protection of property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Prevention of escape; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Which prohibits an inmate from supervising, controlling, and exerting or assuming authority over other inmates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have written emergency plans for riots, disturbances, hostage-taking, escapes, bomb threats, adverse employee job actions, and other circumstances, which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities, including record keeping of all significant activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Availability and use of an emergency communications system in urgent, special, or unusual conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Designation of an appropriate location to serve as an operations center during the emergency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Specification of the requirements to ensure command and control of the situation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensuring that all personnel, directly or indirectly involved, are informed of pertinent aspects of emergency security plans;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, accountability, storage, and use of firearms, ammunition, chemical agents, organic agents, restraining devices, communication apparatus, riot equipment, and other security-related equipment, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Monthly inspection and inventory to determine condition, accountability, and operational status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of those individuals authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Designation of circumstances for use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A record of issue and inspection upon return;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that authorized personnel are trained and qualified in the use, safety, and care of firearms, chemical agents, and other security related equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Providing for the supervision of inmates, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One recorded count per shift;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A security round or rounds on each shift of inmate living areas recorded by the observing facility personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Monitoring of an inmate in the community to verify the inmate's whereabouts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Drug and alcohol testing of an inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Secure and orderly movement of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Weekly recorded inspection by security personnel of locks, bars, windows, doors, and the facility perimeter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Governing the search of the facility, vendors, vehicles, inmates, visitors, and staff, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A personnel search according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A semiannual search of inmate living and program and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A recorded search of an inmate involved in community activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Searches of other inmates;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A recorded search of a vehicle which enters a secured perimeter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A search of a visitor performed in accordance with established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Protection of inmate property;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A receipt to be given to an inmate whose personal property is confiscated and identified as returnable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Chain of custody and the preservation of evidence according to established policies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Inspection of body cavities to be conducted in private by qualified health care personnel when there is a reasonable belief that the inmate possesses contraband of a life-threatening or health-endangering nature;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>A strip search of an inmate to be performed in private by facility personnel of the same sex; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Instruction of security personnel in search regulations;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of facility keys, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of persons authorized access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of issue and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A duplicate key for each lock;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Designation of emergency and restricted keys; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of tools, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Specification of those individuals authorized to use these items;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of issue and return; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A current master listing;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing the transportation of an inmate outside the facility, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Current weapons qualification and required motor vehicle licensure of an individual authorized to transport;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of circumstances which warrant the use of firearms, chemical agents, and restraining equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Protection of inmates, staff, the public, and property; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Appropriate response in the event of an accident;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing the admission of a newly received inmate to an initial reception facility, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of legal commitment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Search of an inmate in accordance with applicable case law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A system of positive identification of an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Collection of personal data; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Governing the release of an inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verification of identity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authentication of authorization to discharge the inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notification to affected agencies and individuals as required by law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The managing official shall provide living quarters for male and female inmates which are separate and ensure privacy.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Standards — Inmate Safety."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Ensuring that the facility meets all fire safety regulations as verified by an annual inspection by authorized representatives of the State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring facility personnel with documented training in fire safety practices to perform monthly internal inspections to monitor compliance with fire safety and prevention regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that all personnel are informed of the disaster plans in §B of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensuring 24-hour emergency medical services, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Access to health care facilities and qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of first-aid kit content and location, approval by qualified health care personnel, and monthly inventories to determine supply; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An individual with current certification in basic first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation in inmate living and activity areas during each shift;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Which shall be communicated to personnel having direct contact with inmates, specifying the method for requesting weekly access to sick call and the provisions for prompt staff referral of special medical problems to appropriate health care professionals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Which states that medical screening of an inmate be conducted by health trained or qualified health care personnel within 24 hours of an inmate's admission to an initial reception facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>For the dispensing of prescribed medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prescription initiation by authorized individuals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Designation of the method for the filling of prescription orders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of the system of packaging and labelling of prescription medication;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>For the administration of prescription and over-the-counter medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Standing orders or protocol approved by the physician in charge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Instruction of nonmedical personnel on the proper method of administration of medication by qualified health care personnel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A record of the administration and refusal of medications; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Designation of circumstances warranting inmate self-administration;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and management of prescription, stock, and over-the-counter medication, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Recorded disposal of unused and expired medications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A weekly inventory of controlled substances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Handling of personal medication of a newly admitted inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Handling of personal medication and facility prescribed medication for an inmate transferred or released;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of needles, syringes, and instruments, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Specification of individuals having access and use;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Weekly inventory to determine accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Disposal of needles and syringes according to established regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Maintenance of a record of the use of needles and syringes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A current master listing of medical and dental instruments;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Ensuring that health care personnel who provide services to inmates have current credentials, certifications, or licenses required by the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Requiring a physical examination of an inmate by qualified health care personnel within 14 days of admission to the initial reception facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Ensuring that inmate medical records are screened by qualified health care personnel before or within 7 days after release to determine if a medical condition exists which would require referral to community medical resources;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Ensuring that the facility meets workplace safety and health standards, and ensuring the remediation of deficiencies identified by inspections conducted periodically by the Maryland Occupational Safety and Health Administration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Governing the notification of next of kin in cases of serious illness, serious injury, or death of an inmate and, in the case of the death of an inmate, positive identification is to be made before notification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have written disaster plans for fires, chemical spills, civil defense, natural disasters, power outages, and other circumstances, which include provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Documented coordination with appropriate responding agencies and organizations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific description of staff duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Full, partial, and medical evacuation addressing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The handling of injured individuals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Security considerations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Instructions for responding emergency personnel and vehicles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Movement of affected individuals to safe areas;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The placement and housing of inmates within the facility and at alternate sites when the facility or portions of it are rendered uninhabitable;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Quarterly fire drills during each shift which include inmates, unless their inclusion compromises security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A written evacuation plan that conforms to federal, State, and local fire safety codes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An annual review that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Building interior diagram or floor plan;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Marked exits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Directional symbols; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Locations of posted evacuation diagrams.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy prohibiting the use of an inmate for medical, pharmaceutical, or cosmetic experiments. This does not preclude the individual treatment of a consenting inmate based on the need for a specified medical procedure which is not generally available.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy specifying that matters of medical, psychiatric, and dental judgement are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The province of qualified health care personnel; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not subject to interference by facility personnel unless necessary to maintain order and security.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Standards—Inmate Food Services."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Requiring that a menu be approved annually by a registered dietitian;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensuring that three meals a day are served, with not more than a 14-hour interval between the evening meal and breakfast;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensuring that the food service operation is currently licensed and meets State sanitation and health regulations, with this being verified by inspection as required by the health department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensuring that an individual involved in the preparation and handling of food complies with health department regulations regarding personal hygiene and clothing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Ensuring that staff and inmates involved in the preparation and handling of food receive medical screening by qualified health care professionals before assignment, and annually after that;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Ensuring that personnel continuously supervise the food service operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Requiring weekly sanitation inspections of food preparation, food storage, food service, and dining areas; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of kitchen utensils, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Daily inventory to ensure accountability,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Quarterly inspection to determine condition,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of issue and return,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized access and use, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A current master listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall provide for a written policy and procedure authorizing special diets as prescribed by qualified health care personnel and as necessary to adhere to the mandatory requirements of recognized faiths.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy which prohibits the use of food as punishment or reward.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Standards — Inmate Housing and Sanitation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Governing the availability, control, storage, and use of flammable, toxic, and caustic materials, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly inspection and inventory to determine condition and accountability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Specification of individuals authorized access and use; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A record of issue and disposal;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring weekly sanitation inspections of internal and external facility areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Governing facility housekeeping, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specific description of staff and inmate duties and responsibilities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quarterly vermin and pest control services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Weekly trash removal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A secure paper or plastic receptacle for daily disposal of soiled menstrual hygiene products; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Weekly removal of paper or plastic receptacles containing soiled menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Governing the availability and distribution of personal hygiene articles, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The issue of no-cost personal hygiene articles to an inmate at the time of admission to a facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The issue of no-cost personal hygiene articles to an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The issue of no-cost menstrual hygiene products to a female inmate at the time of admission to a facility, on a routine basis, and upon request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Routine commissary access for the purchase of personal hygiene articles; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A record of inventory for menstrual hygiene products;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return of clothing to an inmate, unless personal clothing is allowed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Providing for a record of the issue and return to an inmate of mattresses, pillows, sheets, pillow cases, towels, wash cloths, and blankets;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Providing for weekly laundering and accountability of issued and personal clothing and linens; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Providing for the management of inmate personal property, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Designation of property limitations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A listing of all property confiscated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The signature of inmate and personnel upon confiscation and return;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A semiannual inventory of property retained by the facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Replacement of damaged or lost items;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Recorded disposition of property abandoned by an inmate; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Recorded modifications to the established listing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall ensure that the facility provides sufficient toilet, shower, and bathing accommodations to maintain basic health and personal hygiene.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Standards — Inmate Rights."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy which:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>States that an inmate is not discriminated against with regard to programs, services, or activities on the basis of race, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or political beliefs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Establishes inmate protection from physical and mental abuse, and harassment by personnel that includes a zero tolerance for sexual abuse and sexual harassment providing for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Facility response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Access to medical health care; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Access to mental health counseling and support; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensures the right of a convicted inmate to decline to participate in activities, services, and programs, with the exception of work assignments, adult basic education programs, or programs specifically mandated by statute, ordered by the sentencing court, or based upon written agreement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Regarding inmate legal matters, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Access to the courts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Availability of legal reference materials;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Handling of legal mail;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Confidential visits with legal counsel and their authorized representatives; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Use of the telephone for legal purposes;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Which permits an inmate to practice a religion of choice, subject only to the restrictions necessary to maintain facility order and security;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Governing the handling of inmate correspondence and packages, including provisions for postage allowance for an indigent inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Governing inmate orientation, which includes provisions for orientating inmates within 7 days of admission, and staff having direct contact with inmates, and with this inmate orientation including instructions regarding:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Emergency plans response;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Classification process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Rules, regulations, and disciplinary procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Complaint process;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Search practices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Access to case record procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Programs and services regulated by standards; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Access to sick call procedures;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Providing the facilities, equipment, personnel, and opportunity for regular exercise which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of exercise periods;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Providing for a formal internal complaint system and ensuring that personnel having direct contact with inmates are informed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Permitting an inmate reasonable contact with the media;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Governing visitation which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of the visitation period; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Governing inmate access to telephones which specifies the circumstances, frequency, schedule, and length of calls.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The managing official shall provide for a written policy which ensures the right of an inmate to exercise freedom in personal grooming and appearance, subject only to facility requirements essential to safety, security, identification, and hygiene.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Standards—Classification."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Establishing a classification process to determine housing, job, and other assignments, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Initial inmate classification within 45 days of admission and reclassification according to established guidelines,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Designation of individuals involved in decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Criteria for decision making,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Inmate appearance during classification actions and conditions under which an inmate may initiate a status review,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Routine assessment of security and program needs,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A record of decisions and rationale,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Review of all recommendations and decisions by the managing official or designee, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>An appeal process; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Ensuring that individuals involved in classification decision making are informed of the classification process.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Standards—Hearings."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Governing a formal disciplinary hearing by an impartial individual or a committee of individuals not directly involved in the incident, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inmate receipt of a written description of the incident and a specification of the rule violation or violations within 96 hours of the alleged infraction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inmate appearance at the disciplinary hearing:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Within 9 days, excluding holidays and weekends, of the alleged infraction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not less than 24 hours after notification of charges, unless waived by the inmate;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The inmate to be given an opportunity to request and question witnesses, to have staff representatives, to make statements on the inmate's behalf, and to present documentary evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of hearing decisions and rationale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Review by the managing official or designee of hearing decisions adverse to the inmate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>An appeal process; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A report of all hearing decisions to the managing official or designee; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Ensuring that an individual having direct contact with inmates is informed of the facility rules, regulations, and disciplinary procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Standards — Administrative Record Keeping."> <text>The managing official shall have a written policy and procedure:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Ensuring the confidentiality and methods of access to a case record by an inmate, a person in interest, and an individual or agency making a formal request, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identification of individuals authorized to approve access;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specific designation of materials subject to disclosure and restriction in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A release of information consent form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record of access decisions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An appeal process for those individuals who are denied access;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Which provides for the accurate computation and recording of good conduct, industrial, and special project credits in accordance with applicable statutes and regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Governing the management of inmate funds, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Confiscation and receipting of monies upon admission, unless retention is otherwise authorized;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Establishment of an inmate account;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A record of financial transactions, including transfer to other facilities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Recorded return of funds upon release;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Providing for the recorded annual review of policies, procedures, post orders, inmate orientation materials, operating manuals, and other official publications to determine current application and utility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Requiring a complete case record for each inmate, which includes provisions for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Secure storage outside inmate living and activity areas;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Specification of file content and order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A date and signature on all documents and entries;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Establishment of a records retention schedule with documentation of disposition; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Transfer of pertinent records to other correctional facilities;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>To ensure compliance with Correctional Training Commission employee background checks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>To ensure compliance with Correctional Training Commission training requirements.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §§4-214 and 9-616 and Title 8, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 26, 1982 (9:8 Md. R. 823)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective February 27, 1984 (11:4 Md. R. 315); July 29, 1985 (12:15 Md. R. 1521); February 10, 1986 (13:3 Md. 272)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .02 repealed and new Regulations .01—.08 adopted effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1900)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01C amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective September 29, 2003 (30:19 Md. R. 1334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A amended effective November 18, 2019 (46:23 Md. R. 1066)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A amended effective October 29, 2001 (28:21 Md. R. 1858)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08E amended effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08F, G adopted effective April 1, 2017 (43:26 Md. R. 1447)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Hearing Practices and Procedures"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <text>These regulations apply to hearings conducted under Correctional Services Article, §§8-114 and 8-115, Annotated Code of Maryland, as well as hearings otherwise required by statute or regulation.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Parties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The governing authority shall be a party to all proceedings concerning the closure or cessation of operations of an adult place of confinement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission may admit as a party any person, agency, or other entity which has submitted a written request to be a party, and the rights of which may be substantially affected by the outcome of the proceedings before the Commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Conduct of Hearings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>All hearings shall be conducted by a majority of the members of the Commission, except that the Commission, upon a finding that a majority is not available to conduct a hearing in a timely fashion, may direct that less than a majority of the Commission conduct a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Chairman or the Chairman's designee shall be the presiding officer at hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The presiding officer shall, in consultation with other members of the Commission, permit the examination of witnesses, admit evidence, rule on the admissibility of evidence, and adjourn or recess the hearing from time to time.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Notice of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>With the exception of notice of hearings conducted under Correctional Services Article, §8-115, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Chairman shall send written notice of hearings to all parties at least 10 calendar days before the date of the hearings. Written notice of hearings conducted under Correctional Services Article, §8-115, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be provided to all parties at least 72 hours before the time of the hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>All notices of hearings shall state the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Date, time, and place of the hearing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Particular sections of statutes and rules, including rules of procedures, involved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Nature of the hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Matters asserted, and issues involved, in a short and simple manner.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Testimony and Evidence."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each party shall have the right, on every genuine issue to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Call witnesses and present evidence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Cross-examine each witness called by the agency or any other party;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submit rebuttal evidence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Present summation and argument.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commission may admit and give probative effect to evidence which possesses probative value commonly accepted by reasonable and prudent persons in the conduct of their affairs. The Commission shall give effect to the rules of privilege recognized by law, and may exclude incompetent, irrelevant, immaterial, and unduly repetitious evidence.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Documentary evidence may be received in the form of copies or excerpts, or by incorporation by reference.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>All evidence, including records and documents in the possession of the Commission, of which it desires to avail itself, shall be offered and made a part of the record in the case, and other factual information or evidence may not be considered in the determination of the case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commission may take notice of judicially cognizable facts and general, technical, or scientific facts within its specialized knowledge. All parties shall be notified either before or during the hearing of facts which the Commission takes notice, and shall be afforded an opportunity to contest the facts so noticed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Commission may use the experience, technical competence, and specialized knowledge of its members in the evaluation of the evidence presented at hearings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>All testimony taken by the presiding officer shall be under oath. The oath shall be in the following form: “Do you solemnly promise and affirm under the penalties of perjury that the testimony you are about to give in the matter now pending before the presiding officer shall be the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth?”</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Postponement of Hearings."> <text>The Chairman or presiding officer may postpone a hearing upon written request by any party, except that hearings conducted under Correctional Services Article, §8-115, Annotated Code of Maryland, may not be postponed without the express consent of the governing authority. Postponements may be granted for reasons satisfactory to the Chairman or presiding officer.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Records; Transcripts."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commission shall maintain a record in each case which shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Pleadings, motions, intermediate and final rulings;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Documentary evidence received or considered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A statement of matters officially noticed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Questions and offers of proof, objections, and final rulings on them;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Proposed findings and exceptions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The final decision, opinion, or order issued as a result of the hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A staff memorandum submitted to the Commission by any Commission employee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Oral proceedings shall be recorded by tape recorder or stenographer. A transcript of all or part of the oral proceedings shall be prepared upon the request of, and the advance payment of cost by, any party.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Post-Hearing Memoranda or Briefs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon request, or upon his or her own motion, the presiding officer may allow or require the submission of memoranda or briefs on the issues of fact and law involved in the case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Memoranda or briefs shall be filed in the form, with the number of copies, and at the time directed by the presiding officer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Failure of Party to Appear."> <text>If a party fails to appear at a hearing after due notice, the presiding officer may postpone the hearing in accordance with Regulation .07 of this chapter or, in his or her discretion, proceed upon the evidence and testimony submitted by those present at the hearing and upon all other evidence properly received.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Decisions and Orders."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The final decision shall be stated in the record by the presiding officer, and shall be issued in writing after that and promptly forwarded to each party or to the party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The final decision shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, separately stated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services is to render the final decision in a case pursuant to the Secretary's authority under Correctional Services Article, §2-113, Annotated Code of Maryland, or if a majority of the Commission members who are to render the final decision have not heard the evidence, the following procedure shall be followed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Commission members who heard the evidence shall prepare a proposal for decision, including findings of facts and conclusions of law, which shall be forwarded to each party or the party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each party adversely affected by the proposal for decision may file exceptions and, upon request, present argument to a majority of the officials who are to render the final decision. Exceptions, and requests for argument on the exceptions, shall be filed within 15 days of the date of the Proposal for Decision. Exceptions, and requests for argument filed after that, may not be considered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A majority of the officials who are to render the final decision shall consider exceptions, argument, if any, and the whole record or such portions of the record as are cited by the parties, before rendering a final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The final decision shall be immediately forwarded to each party or the party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Reconsideration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Request for Reconsideration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each party may request reconsideration of a final decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The request shall be directed to the official or officials who rendered the decision, and shall be filed within 10 days after receipt of the final decision by the party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The request shall state the grounds for reconsideration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The decision maker shall grant or deny the request, in whole or in part, within 30 days of its filing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The filing of a request for reconsideration may not stay a final decision and may not stay the time for filing an appeal from the final decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If reconsideration is granted, the decision maker shall issue an order providing for reconsideration and staying the decision being reconsidered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The decision maker may conduct a hearing in accordance with the provisions of this chapter for the purpose of receiving further evidence or argument upon the matters being reconsidered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After reconsideration, the decision maker shall issue an order affirming, modifying, or rescinding the original decision, and shall immediately forward a copy of the order to each party or the party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Appeals."> <text>Each party aggrieved by a final decision is entitled to judicial review under State Government Article, §10-222, Annotated Code of Maryland, or as otherwise provided by law.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Stays."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Request for Stay.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each party seeking judicial review of a final decision may request a stay of the decision pending judicial review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request for a stay shall be filed with the decision maker within 15 days of the date of the decision for which the stay is sought.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A request for a stay shall include a statement of the reasons a stay is sought.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A request for a stay shall include a copy of the petition of appeal filed in the court having jurisdiction or a statement of the grounds for judicial review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The party requesting the stay shall serve a copy of the request on all parties.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for a stay may not extend the time for filing an appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The decision maker may hold a hearing on a request for a stay or may rule upon the request without a hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The decision maker shall issue an order granting or denying the stay, in whole or in part, and shall forward a copy of the order to each party or the party's attorney.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2; Correctional Services Article, Title 8, Subtitle 1; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 2, 1983 (9:26 Md. R. 2573)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 repealed effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1900)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="15" heading="Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository"> <chapter num="01" heading="Implementation of the Criminal Justice Information System Statute"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>The purpose of these regulations is to implement the provisions of Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Scope."> <text>These regulations apply to:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The executive branch of State government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A local criminal justice agency that is not in the judicial branch of government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual, agency, or organization with an agreement with the Secretary, Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services, for access to criminal history record information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual who is the subject of CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Advisory Board” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Arrest” means the detention of an individual for the purpose of criminal prosecution, for the filing of delinquency petitions, or pursuant to existing charges or delinquency petitions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Collection” means the receipt, organization, and processing of CHRI by a criminal justice agency, a criminal justice repository, or the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository (Central Repository).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Conviction Criminal History Record Information.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Conviction criminal history record information” means reportable events that have resulted in a finding of guilt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Conviction criminal history record information” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A plea of nolo contendere accepted by a court; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Probation before judgment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Criminal history record information (CHRI)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Criminal History Records Check.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” means a record check of CHRI maintained by the Central Repository or the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” is limited to the existence of a criminal conviction, probation before judgment disposition, not criminally responsible disposition, or pending criminal charge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Criminal Justice Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Criminal justice agency”, except for the Department of Juvenile Services or a juvenile court, means a government agency or subunit of an agency that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Is authorized by law to exercise the power of arrest, detention, prosecution, adjudication, correctional supervision, custodial treatment, or confinement under Health-General Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland, rehabilitation, or release of persons suspected, charged, or convicted of a crime or relieved of criminal punishment by verdict of not criminally responsible, or is responsible for criminal identification activities and the collection, storage, and dissemination of criminal history record information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Allocates a substantial portion of the agency’s annual budget to any of the functions in §B(7)(a)(i) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Criminal justice agency”, except for Department of Juvenile Services or a juvenile court, includes the following agencies, when exercising jurisdiction over criminal matters or criminal history record information:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A State, county, and municipal police department, sheriff's office, correctional facility, parole and probation department, jail, and detention center;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An agency required to report to the Central Repository under Health-General Article, §12-107 or 12-112, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The Office of the Attorney General, the State's Attorney Office, and other person authorized by law to prosecute an individual accused of a criminal offense; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>The Administrative Office of the Courts, the Court of Appeals, the Court of Special Appeals, the circuit courts (including the Supreme Bench of Baltimore City), the District Court of Maryland, and the offices of the clerks of these courts.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Criminal justice information system” means the equipment (including computer hardware and software), facilities, procedures, agreements, and personnel used to collect, process, preserve, and disseminate CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Criminal justice purpose” means use of CHRI by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A criminal justice agency:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>To conduct criminal justice duties and responsibilities; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Related to activities concerning hiring or retaining a criminal justice agency employee; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Maryland Public Defender or other defense counsel of record for the purpose of the defense of a client in a pending criminal proceeding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Disseminate.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Disseminate” means to transmit CHRI in oral, electronic, or written form.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Disseminate” does not include the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Transmittal of CHRI within a criminal justice agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Reporting of CHRI as required by Criminal Procedure Article, §10-214, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Transmittal of CHRI between criminal justice agencies in order to permit the initiation of subsequent criminal justice proceedings against a person relating to the same offense; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Disclosure of CHRI during preparation for or during the conduct of a public judicial proceeding by the State's Attorney, Attorney General, a law enforcement officer, or other person authorized by law to conduct criminal investigations or to prosecute persons accused of criminal offenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Fingerprinting.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Fingerprinting” means a method of identifying an individual using impressions of the minute ridge formations or patterns on an individual’s fingers and thumbs, based on the accepted premise that no two individuals have the same ridge formations or impressions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Fingerprinting” may be performed:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Manually, using ink and paper; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Electronically, using a Livescan device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Fingerprinting service fee” means a cost paid to the agency collecting demographic data and performing fingerprinting for an applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Juvenile” means a child under 18 years old as defined in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-801, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Nonconviction criminal history record information” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Arrest information without disposition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Information disclosing that a law enforcement agency elected not to refer a matter to a prosecutor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A prosecutor has elected not to initiate a criminal proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A criminal proceeding has been indefinitely postponed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>An acquittal; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A dismissal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Noncriminal justice agency” means a government or private agency that is not a criminal justice agency defined under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-210(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, and receives CHRI for licensing and employment purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Noncriminal justice purpose” means the use of CHRI for licensing and employment purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Private party petitioner” means a nongovernmental employer, employment agency, membership association, landlord (including a public housing authority), or duly designated agent licensed, chartered, or registered in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, or in the District of Columbia.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Rap Back Program” means the State program that will inform an employer or other designated entity when an individual who has undergone a criminal history records check and whose fingerprints are retained by the Central Repository after the criminal history records check is subsequently arrested or is the subject of another reportable event pursuant to COMAR 12.15.01.19.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Reportable event” means an event specified under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-215, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Reporting” means the transmittal of CHRI by a criminal justice agency or a repository to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository (Central Repository)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall perform functions and other tasks delegated by the Secretary to ensure the accuracy, completeness, and security of CHRI in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Central Repository Authority.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>With the approval of the Secretary, or a designee, the Central Repository has the authority to enter into an agreement:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>With an agency that by law or regulatory process has the authority to access or contribute to CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>That complies with Criminal Procedure Article, §10-217, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>With the approval of the Secretary, or a designee, the Central Repository has the authority to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To perform audits of a criminal or noncriminal justice agency with respect to CHRI to ensure the completeness and accuracy of information reported, maintained, or disseminated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inspect and evaluate procedures and facilities relating to the privacy and security of CHRI in an agency bound by these regulations, and to enforce sanctions agreed upon with the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Deny a criminal or noncriminal justice agency access to CHRI unless access is in accordance with an approved agreement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Refuse acceptance of CHRI from a criminal justice agency unless the information is submitted in accordance with an approved agreement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Right of an Individual to Inspect the Individual's CHRI."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Access to CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual may inspect the individual’s CHRI maintained by a criminal justice agency, except if the CHRI or part of the CHRI is relevant to a pending criminal proceeding.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The exception in §A(1) of this regulation does not affect the right of inspection and discovery permitted by rule of court or by statute.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>CHRI that was recorded before January 1, 1978 is subject to the right of access and challenge in accordance with this subtitle.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>When a request is made to review CHRI, a criminal justice agency shall make a reasonable search for the CHRI maintained under the criminal justice agency’s authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A criminal justice agency requested to provide access to CHRI that cannot be located after a reasonable search has no further obligation to provide CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A fee, established in Regulation .15 of this chapter, shall be charged an individual for each request to review that individual's CHRI, except if the individual files a verified certificate of indigence with the agency requested to provide the individual’s CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Filing Request to Review CHRI. An individual may file a request to obtain and to review the individual’s CHRI with the Central Repository or other locations designated by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Filing Request to Review CHRI with a Criminal Justice Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Until CHRI is filed with the Central Repository, an individual may file a request to review a portion of the individual’s CHRI with the criminal justice agency, other than the Central Repository, collecting and maintaining the CHRI that has not been filed with the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A request to review is subject to the procedures of the criminal justice agency maintaining the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A criminal justice agency maintaining CHRI shall adopt procedures for individual review and challenge of CHRI that comply with applicable federal and State law and regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An individual held in custody at a law enforcement agency, detention center, or correctional facility as the result of a court action may file a request to review the individual’s CHRI with the criminal justice agency detaining the individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Before an individual may review the individual’s CHRI, the individual shall be identified by fingerprint comparison with the Central Repository record according to procedures established by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An attorney may review a client's CHRI if the attorney:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Satisfactorily establishes the client’s identity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Presents written authorization from the attorney's client; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Pays the fee established in Regulation .15 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An individual requesting to review CHRI shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the request using an application form or electronic format that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is authorized by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is properly completed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Includes a complete set of legible fingerprints; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward the properly completed form to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Upon receipt of a proper request to review CHRI, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Verify the identity of the applicant by fingerprint comparison and other available identifiers; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If identification is verified and CHRI is found, provide a copy of the CHRI to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Denial of a Request to Review CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository or a criminal justice agency may deny a request to review CHRI if the Central Repository or criminal justice agency determines that the individual is not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The subject of the CHRI; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Entitled to review the CHRI under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-226, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Central Repository or a criminal justice agency denies a request to review CHRI, the Central Repository or criminal justice agency denying the request shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide written notification of the denial, including the reason for the denial;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Send the written notification of denial to the individual making the request within 30 days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide the individual written notification of the individual's right to appeal the denial of the request to review CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The Central Repository or a criminal justice agency receiving a request to review CHRI shall retain a copy of the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>An individual may only challenge the following concerning CHRI:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completeness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Content;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Accuracy; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Dissemination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Right of an Individual to Challenge a Denial to Review CHRI."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a request to review CHRI is denied pursuant to the procedures under Regulation .05 of this chapter, the individual may challenge the denial except if the request to review CHRI was denied by the courts.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Challenge to Denial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual challenging a denial of a request to review CHRI shall submit:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The challenge to the Central Repository using an application form authorized by the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A complete set of fingerprints taken at a location designated by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The challenge shall be filed within 10 days of the date of the denial to review CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Designate a review officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Set a date to conduct the review that is within 30 days of the date the challenge was received by the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within the 30-day period before the date of the review, compare the full set of fingerprints submitted by the individual submitting the challenge with the fingerprints on the arrest record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall issue a written decision stating whether the individual filing the challenge is or is not the individual in the record and provide copies of the decision to the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Individual submitting the challenge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon receipt of a decision under §D of this regulation the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Maintain a copy of the decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Send a copy of the decision to a criminal justice agency affected by the denial to review CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If the Secretary, or a designee, decides that the the individual submitting the challenge is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The subject of the CHRI, the the individual submitting the challenge:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>May submit the Secretary’s decision to the agency denying the request to review CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon receipt of the Secretary’s decision by the appropriate agency, shall be permitted to review the applicable CHRI; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not the subject of the CHRI, the individual submitting the challenge of the denial may not review the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The individual submitting the challenge of the denial to review CHRI or the agency maintaining the CHRI may appeal the decision of the Secretary in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act, State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Right of an Individual to Challenge Completeness, Content, Accuracy, and Dissemination of CHRI."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual having reviewed CHRI may only challenge the following related to CHRI:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completeness;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Content;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Accuracy; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Dissemination.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Challenge to Completeness, Content, Accuracy, or Dissemination of CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual challenging CHRI under this regulation shall submit the challenge using a form authorized by the Central Repository to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Agency responsible for the location where the individual reviewed the CHRI, if other than the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of the challenge form, the Central Repository shall examine the part of the individual's CHRI that has been challenged under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As part of the examination under §B(2) of this regulation, the Central Repository may require a criminal justice agency that was the source of challenged CHRI to verify the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Central Repository shall notify the individual submitting the challenge under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In writing of the results of the examination and decision concerning the basis of the challenge; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Within 90 days after the date the challenge was received by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the challenge or any part of the challenge is rejected by the Central Repository, the notification under §B(4) of this regulation shall include information concerning the individual's right to appeal the Central Repository’s rejection of the challenge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Correction of CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the Central Repository determines that the individual’s challenge under this regulation is valid, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make the appropriate correction on the Central Repository's CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Notify the criminal justice or other agency responsible for the CHRI requiring correction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency receiving notification under §C(1)(b) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Correct the agency’s CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide certification to the Central Repository that the correction was made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If requested by the individual whose CHRI was corrected, the agency disseminating the individual’s CHRI shall provide the individual with the names of noncriminal justice agencies or persons to whom the CHRI was disseminated during the 12 months immediately preceding the date the individual reviewed the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Notice of Correction.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A criminal justice agency or other agency required to correct CHRI under §C(2) of this regulation that had disseminated CHRI before the CHRI was corrected shall give written notice of the correction to the person receiving the uncorrected CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The person receiving notification under §D(1) of this regulation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Make the correction to the CHRI in the person’s possession; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide certification that the correction has been made to the agency making notification under §D(1) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Appeal.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a challenge to the completeness, content, accuracy, or dissemination is denied by the Central Repository, the individual may appeal the decision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Use a form authorized by the Central Repository to appeal a denial of a challenge under this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>File the appeal within 30 days of the date of the denial of the challenge with the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Criminal justice agency that contributed to or created the CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Designate a hearing officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Set a hearing date within 30 days of the date the appeal was received by the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure that the date set for the hearing is within 60 days of the date the appeal was received by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the individual filing an appeal under this regulation does not appear at the hearing on the date set under §F of this regulation, the appeal shall be denied by the hearing officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>At the appeal hearing, the individual filing the appeal and a criminal justice agency affected by the appeal may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be represented by an attorney;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Introduce additional evidence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Interrogate persons responsible for recording or maintaining the CHRI under review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Appeal of a Hearing Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall provide a written decision stating the outcome of the appeal hearing under §F of this regulation to the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Individual filing the appeal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a decision under §I(1)(b) of this regulation, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Retain a copy of the written decision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Disseminate a copy of the written decision to a person affected by the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Appeal Decision.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a decision under §I of this regulation concludes that the challenge to the completeness, content, accuracy, or dissemination of the CHRI is valid, the written decision shall direct that the CHRI is to be corrected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository and the criminal justice agency contributing to or maintaining the CHRI shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Correct the CHRI maintained by the agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Certify to the Secretary, or a designee, that the CHRI was corrected.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>A criminal justice agency required to correct CHRI under §J of this regulation, that had disseminated the CHRI before being corrected, shall give written notice to the person receiving the uncorrected CHRI of the correction, and the person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Make the correction to the person’s CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Certify to the disseminating agency that the correction was made.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>A party to an appeal of the decision under §I of this regulation may appeal the decision in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Central Repository records relating to the individual's right to review and challenge shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Centrally maintained in the place and manner designated by the Secretary, or a designee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Retained for a minimum of 4 years, except for the respective fingerprint card that shall be retained for a minimum of 15 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Collection."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall collect and store CHRI from criminal justice agencies or CHRI repositories in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall maintain CHRI to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Reflect processing of an individual through the criminal justice system; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ensure complete, accurate, confidential, and secure CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall maintain information related to a juvenile arrest as confidential in accordance with Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-828(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Shall maintain information related to a juvenile separately from adult CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May only disseminate information related to a juvenile to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Department of Juvenile Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Comply with an order of a court upon good cause shown; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A law enforcement agency for investigation and prosecution of the juvenile.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Reporting."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each criminal justice agency or CHRI repository shall report CHRI to the Central Repository in accordance with Criminal Procedure Article, §10-215, Annotated Code of Maryland, and the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Information concerning an arrest or the issuance of an arrest warrant shall be reported within 72 hours after the arrest is made or the warrant is issued; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Information concerning another reportable event not included under §A(1) of this regulation shall be reported within 60 days after the date of the reportable event.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A criminal justice agency shall report CHRI to the Central Repository in a manner that ensures the CHRI:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Accurately identifies the offender through fingerprint comparison or other compelling information;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Accurately tracks the individual through the criminal justice system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conforms to federal and State laws and regulations; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Complies with Central Repository procedures for collection, reporting, maintenance, and dissemination of CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall specify the content, format, and media for CHRI reported to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Fingerprint Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fingerprints for each juvenile and adult arrested shall be submitted to the Central Repository within 72 hours of the arrest.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An adult who has been arrested shall be fingerprinted according to procedures approved by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A juvenile who has been arrested shall be fingerprinted according to procedures approved by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The arresting law enforcement agency or the agency responsible for processing an arrested individual shall complete and submit available information according to procedures approved by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Central Repository may authorize an agency to electronically submit arrest information and fingerprint images to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Dissemination of CHRI — General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository and a criminal justice agency shall collect, report, maintain, and disseminate CHRI in accordance with federal and State laws and regulations pursuant to Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Noncriminal Justice Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except under §A(2) of this regulation, only the Central Repository may disseminate CHRI to a noncriminal justice agency or individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository, through agreement with a criminal justice agency, may:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Designate a criminal justice agency as a location where a noncriminal justice agency or individual may initiate a request for the Central Repository to provide CHRI for a noncriminal justice purpose.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Authorize a criminal justice agency to disseminate to a noncriminal justice agency or individual CHRI maintained by the criminal justice agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a criminal justice agency is authorized to disseminate CHRI under §B(1) of this regulation, the criminal justice agency shall maintain a log of each recording in the log the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date the request was made;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Purpose of the request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>CHRI disseminated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Person receiving the information; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Date the CHRI was disseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Central Repository shall maintain a log recording:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A criminal justice agency authorized to disseminate CHRI for noncriminal justice purposes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The name of the agency or individual receiving the CHRI for noncriminal justice purposes from the authorized criminal justice agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository or a criminal justice agency or individual authorized to access CHRI may not confirm the existence or nonexistence of CHRI to a person that is not eligible to receive the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A log required to be kept under this chapter shall be maintained for at least 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The use of CHRI by an authorized agency or individual:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is limited to the specific purpose stated in this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not be disseminated further without specific authorization by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>In addition to another remedy or penalty authorized by law, the Secretary, or a designee, may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Determine that an individual or agency is in violation of the provisions of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Initiate the necessary action to enforce compliance with this chapter, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Terminating authorization to access CHRI;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Revoking an agreement between the agency and the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Criminal or civil proceedings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Dissemination of CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary, or a designee, shall review agreements to determine if continued dissemination of CHRI based on the agreements is consistent with current law, regulation, and policy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Secretary, or a designee, determines that continued dissemination under an agreement is not consistent with current law, regulation, or policy, the Secretary, or a designee, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Revoke the agreement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Terminate access to CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Send written notice of the revocation to the individual, agency, private employer, or organization stating the reasons for the revocation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An individual, agency, private employer, or organization whose access is terminated by the Secretary, or a designee, may appeal the action in accordance with the State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Dissemination of CHRI — Criminal Justice Agency."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with requirements under Regulation .13B of this chapter, the Central Repository or a criminal justice agency shall disseminate CHRI to a criminal justice agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A criminal justice agency may request CHRI from the Central Repository or a criminal justice agency only if the CHRI is used:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>In the performance of the agency’s function as a criminal justice agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For the purpose of hiring or retaining the criminal justice agency’s employees.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Dissemination Between Criminal Justice Agencies.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for provisions under §C(4) of this regulation, a criminal justice agency may not disseminate CHRI to another criminal justice agency unless the criminal justice agency disseminating the CHRI has requested and received from the Central Repository verification that the CHRI to be disseminated is complete, accurate, and current.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before a criminal justice agency or the Central Repository disseminates CHRI to a criminal justice agency, the criminal justice agency or the Central Repository shall verify the identity of the criminal justice agency requesting the CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A criminal justice agency or the Central Repository may verify the identity of a criminal justice agency using information available from the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If a criminal justice agency requesting CHRI demonstrates to the criminal justice agency maintaining the requested CHRI or the Central Repository that a delay in the receipt of CHRI will unduly impede necessary action by the requesting criminal justice agency or will violate or materially impair a substantive right of the individual who is the subject of the CHRI, the disseminating criminal justice agency or the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Provide the requested CHRI without meeting requirements under §C(2) and (3) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Record the transaction in the respective criminal justice agency’s log including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Date the request for CHRI was made;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>CHRI disseminated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Criminal justice agency receiving the CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Date the CHRI was disseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If a request for CHRI is made by a criminal justice agency from another state, dissemination shall be limited to the purposes for which CHRI is disseminated to a criminal justice agency in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Central Repository shall maintain a log of requests under §D of this regulation including the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Date the request for CHRI was made;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>CHRI disseminated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Criminal justice agency receiving the CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Date the CHRI was disseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Dissemination of CHRI — Noncriminal Justice Agency."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except for provisions under §B of this regulation, the Central Repository may not disseminate to a noncriminal justice federal, State, or local government agency:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conviction CHRI, except:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the recipient of the CHRI is expressly authorized by statute, ordinance, executive order, or court rule, decision, or order to grant, deny, suspend, revoke, or terminate a license, employment, or other right or privilege; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the statute, ordinance, order, or rule specifies the existence or nonexistence of a prior conviction or other criminal conduct as a condition to the grant, denial, suspension, revocation, or termination of the license, employment, right, or privilege.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Nonconviction CHRI except:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the recipient of the CHRI is expressly authorized by statute, ordinance, executive order, or court rule, decision, or order to grant, deny, suspend, revoke, or terminate a license, employment, or other right or privilege; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the statute, ordinance, executive order, or court rule, decision, or order specifies access to nonconviction CHRI in consideration of the decision to grant, deny, suspend, revoke, or terminate a license, employment, right, or privilege.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository may disseminate conviction and nonconviction CHRI to the following for the purpose and under the conditions stated:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To determine suitability for employment or eligibility for security clearances:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Department of Personnel; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Other appointing authority of a federal, State, or local unit of government.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To defend a client in a pending criminal proceeding:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Maryland Public Defender; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Defense counsel of record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A bail bondsman working with a client who is the subject of the CHRI, if authorized by the Maryland Rules of Practice and Procedure of the Court of Appeals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Department of Juvenile Services for the purposes of carrying out statutory duties.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Research, Evaluation, and Statistical Analysis.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To conduct research, evaluation, and statistical analysis of criminal activity:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The Maryland Justice Analysis Center of the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A person or agency engaged in legitimate research, evaluation, or statistical analysis activities, pursuant to an agreement with the Secretary or the Chief Judge of the Court of Appeals; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Other office, board, commission, or task force and the designated agents of these organizations established and granted CHRI access by Executive Order of the Governor or directive of the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Results of research, evaluation, and analyses derived from CHRI may not include the name of any individual or any other unique identifiers relating to the individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A person or agency under contract with a criminal justice agency to provide specific services required by the criminal justice agency to perform criminal justice functions pursuant to an agreement with the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The Attorney Grievance Commission and subunits, the Board of Law Examiners and subunits, the Commission on Judicial Disabilities, and a judicial nominating commission for the purpose of exercising respective functions in connection with lawyer discipline, bar admissions, judicial discipline, and judicial selection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Under Md. Rule §4-263, a State's attorney or other State prosecutor, for the purpose of defending a client in a pending criminal proceeding, shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Without the necessity of a request, disseminate CHRI to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The public defender; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Defense counsel of record; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Document dissemination of CHRI under §C(1) of this regulation according to §D(1) and (2)(b)—(e) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>For CHRI disseminated to a noncriminal justice agency, the Central Repository or the criminal justice agency disseminating the CHRI shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Verify the identity of the person requesting to receive the CHRI for noncriminal justice purposes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain a log of a request including the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date the request for CHRI was made;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Purpose for which the request was made;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>CHRI disseminated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Recipient of the CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Date the CHRI was disseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A fee, as specified in Regulation .15 of this chapter, shall be charged for each request for CHRI for a noncriminal justice purpose.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Dissemination of CHRI — Private Party Petitioner."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as otherwise authorized under this chapter, the Central Repository may not disseminate to a private party petitioner the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conviction CHRI concerning current or prospective employees, occupants of leased real property, volunteers, or members of an association, except if the private party petitioner convincingly demonstrates to the Central Repository that the subject of the requested CHRI could, in the subject's status as an employee, occupant of the leased real property, volunteer, or member of the association, have the capability to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Jeopardize the life or safety of an individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cause significant loss or damage by illegally accessing or misusing the fiscal or nonfiscal assets of the employer, landlord, association or its members, or the public; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Otherwise engage or participate in criminal conduct in violation of State, local, and federal law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Nonconviction CHRI except if the private party petitioner is expressly authorized by statute, ordinance, executive order, or court rule, order, or decision specifying the right to access nonconviction CHRI and the purpose and conditions for access.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall establish a procedure for a private party to petition for access to conviction CHRI consistent with §A(1) of this regulation that includes a requirement for a petitioner to list the instances when access is necessary and the reason for accessing CHRI consistent with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository shall deny access to CHRI under §A of this regulation if the private party petitioner is otherwise authorized under law, regulation, or agreement to access CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A fee, as specified in Regulation .15 of this chapter, shall be charged for each request for access to CHRI for a noncriminal justice purpose.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Fees — CHRI Checks for Noncriminal Justice Purposes."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person requesting CHRI, for noncriminal justice purposes, of CHRI maintained by the Central Repository shall submit a nonrefundable CHRI access fee of $18 with each request for an individual CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A nonrefundable fee to cover the costs of providing the requested CHRI shall be submitted with each request to access CHRI for research, evaluation, and statistical analysis for noncriminal justice purposes as defined in Regulation .13 of this chapter. The fee shall be comprised of costs, when applicable, for computer programming, computer processing, computer output media, handling, shipping, and other associated expenses based upon current rates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Fingerprinting Service Fee.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall collect a nonrefundable fingerprinting service fee of $20 for each request for an individual CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository shall collect the fingerprinting service fee to cover the cost for Central Repository to collect demographic data about an applicant and perform fingerprinting for an applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Central Repository shall collect the fingerprinting service fee only if the Central Repository collects the demographic data about the applicant and performs fingerprinting for an applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Central Repository shall display a current list of fees and the specified amount of each fee at a Central Repository location operated for the purpose of applying for a CHRI check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The following chart contains the fees collected by Central Repository for a noncriminal justice CHRI check:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Central Repository requires payment to be made as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Method:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certified check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cashier's check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Money order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Personal check; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Credit card;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant shall make a check or money order payable to the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A Maryland government unit may pay fees by interagency fund transfer authorization.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Requests for national CHRI access passing through the Central Repository to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) require the submission of an additional fee as specified by the FBI to cover the FBI's costs for processing the request.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Security."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository hereby incorporates by reference the specific federal regulations regarding security of CHRI under 28 CFR §20.20.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A criminal justice agency is responsible for reporting a breach of physical or operational security concerning CHRI to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If there is a breach of the physical security of CHRI or a failure to meet physical security standards for CHRI required by federal or State statute or regulation or Central Repository procedures relating to the physical security of CHRI, the Central Repository shall ensure that the breach is corrected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If there is a failure to comply with personnel policies relating to CHRI established by federal or State statute or regulation or Central Repository procedures relating to CHRI, the Central Repository shall ensure that the failure is corrected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If there is a breach of the operational security of the Criminal Justice Information System as defined in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, or a failure to meet the operating security standards of federal or State statute or regulation or Central Repository procedures relating to the security of CJIS, the Central Repository shall ensure that this breach is corrected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If the privacy or confidentiality of CHRI has been intentionally or inadvertently abused or the potential for abuse exists, the Central Repository shall ensure that the abuse or potential for abuse is corrected.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Auditing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Audit of CHRI.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As required by applicable federal and State statutes and regulations, criminal justice agencies, CHRI repositories, and noncriminal justice agencies shall be audited by the Central Repository for compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and agreements related to the security, dissemination, completeness, and accuracy of CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository shall conduct audits of a random sample of State and local criminal justice agencies, CHRI repositories, and noncriminal justice agencies to ensure that CHRI is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Accurate and complete; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Collected, reported, and disseminated in accordance with the provisions of Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>At a minimum, the audit shall evaluate compliance with applicable rules, regulations, agreements, and laws pertaining to physical, personal, and operational security, dissemination, completeness, and accuracy of CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>As required, other methods, procedures, and standards for auditing criminal justice agencies, CHRI repositories, and noncriminal justice agencies may be established by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Criminal justice agencies, CHRI repositories, and noncriminal justice agencies shall retain and provide access to CHRI source documents, dissemination logs, security manuals, and other CHRI related information as deemed necessary to perform the audit in §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except for provisions under §D of this regulation, information required under §B of this regulation shall be retained by an agency subject to a Central Repository CHRI audit according to the agency’s approved records retention schedule.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Information required under §B of this regulation related to employment shall be destroyed as soon as the employee who is the subject of the information is no longer employed by the agency.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Agreements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Agreements between the Central Repository and a criminal justice agency, CHRI repository, noncriminal justice agency, other agencies, private employers, organizations, and individuals shall incorporate the principles and requirements of applicable federal and State laws and regulations pertaining to the privacy, security, completeness, accuracy, and dissemination of CHRI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agreement shall be in writing and signed by the individual, agency, private employer, organization, or repository, and the Secretary, or a designee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Issuance of a Revised Printed Statement (State Rap Back Program)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If an employer or regulatory authority is authorized by State statute to receive a revised printed statement, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Enroll the employer or regulatory authority in the State Rap Back Program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain a record of each previously processed individual who works for, or is regulated by an authorized employer or regulatory authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Issue a revised printed statement for each previously processed individual when new information is added to the individual’s CHRI indicating:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An arrest;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The issuance of an arrest warrant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The filing of a charging document;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A disposition of conviction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>A verdict of not criminally responsible; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A disposition of probation before judgment; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Send the revised printed statement to the employer, the regulatory authority, and the covered individual who is the subject of the printed statement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Annual Review of Previously Processed Individuals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At least annually the Central Repository shall prepare and distribute a list of previously processed individuals to each employer or regulatory authority enrolled in the State Rap Back Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>From the list of previously processed individuals required under §B(1) of this regulation, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Employer shall delete an individual who no longer works for and may not resume work for the employer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Regulatory authority shall delete an individual who is no longer licensed by the regulatory authority.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The employer or regulatory authority shall return the adjusted list required under §B(2) of this regulation to the Central Repository within 15 working days of receipt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Central Repository shall cease sending revised printed statements when notified that the previously processed individual has been deleted from the annually prepared list.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Designated Law Enforcement and Other Agencies Approved for Fingerprinting."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository may designate State and local law enforcement agencies or other agencies to provide fingerprinting services for criminal justice and noncriminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A designated law enforcement agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide fingerprinting services according to requirements established in this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Verify the proof of identity of the individual requesting fingerprint services at the time the individual is fingerprinted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The following law enforcement agencies are designated by the Central Repository to provide fingerprinting services under this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Allegany County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Allegany County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cumberland Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Frostburg State University Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Frostburg Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Anne Arundel County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Anne Arundel County Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Annapolis Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Baltimore City:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Baltimore City Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>University of Maryland at Baltimore Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Morgan State University Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Coppin State University Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Baltimore County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Baltimore County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Towson University Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>University of Maryland at Baltimore County Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Baltimore County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Calvert County — Calvert County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Caroline County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Denton Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Federalsburg Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Greensboro Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Preston Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Ridgely Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Carroll County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Carroll County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hampstead Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Manchester Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Sykesville Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Taneytown Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Westminster Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Cecil County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Cecil County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Elkton Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>North East Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Rising Sun Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Charles County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Charles County Sheriff's Office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>La Plata Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Dorchester County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Dorchester County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cambridge Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Hurlock Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Frederick County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Frederick County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Brunswick Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Frederick City Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Thurmont Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Garrett County — Garrett County Sheriff's Office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Harford County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Harford County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Aberdeen Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Bel Air Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Havre de Grace Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Howard County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Howard County Sheriff's Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Howard County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Kent County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Kent County Sheriff's Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Chestertown Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Montgomery County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Montgomery County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Montgomery County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Montgomery County Division of the Maryland National-Capital Park Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Rockville City Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Takoma Park Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Chevy Chase Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>Prince George's County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Prince George's County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Prince George's County Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Berwyn Heights Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Bowie State College Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Bladensburg Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>District Heights Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Greenbelt Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Hyattsville City Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Landover Hills Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Laurel Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Prince George's County Division of the Maryland National-Capital Park Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Riverdale Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Mount Ranier Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>Queen Anne's County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Queen Anne's County Sheriff's Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Centreville Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>St. Mary's County — St. Mary's County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>Somerset County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Somerset County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Crisfield Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>University of Maryland Eastern Shore Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>Talbot County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Talbot County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Easton Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Oxford Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>St. Michael's Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>Washington County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Washington County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hagerstown Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fort Ritchie Office of Security and Intelligence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Hancock Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>Wicomico County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Wicomico County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Delmar Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fruitland Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Salisbury Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Salisbury State University Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>Worcester County:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Worcester County Sheriff's Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Berlin Police Department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Ocean City Police Department; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Pocomoke City Police Department;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>Except for John F. Kennedy Barrack M, all Department of State Police barracks;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>All Department of Natural Resources Police Force detachments; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>University of Maryland Police at College Park.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Central Repository may designate additional law enforcement agencies where fingerprint services under this regulation may be provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Approved Agency.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall designate an approved agency to provide fingerprinting services for noncriminal justice purposes under this regulation after the agency’s employees have satisfactorily completed approved training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository may require an employee of an approved agency receiving approved training to submit a set of fingerprints.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An employee of an approved agency may not perform fingerprinting services for the purpose of obtaining a printed statement under this chapter until the employee has satisfactorily completed approved training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A list of approved agencies may be found on the Department’s website.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Quality Control and Compliance Procedures.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall establish procedures to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Evaluate the quality of fingerprints taken by a designated law enforcement agency or an approved agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Monitor compliance with approved training requirements by an approved agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository may require retraining for an employee of an approved agency who takes an unsatisfactory number of fingerprints as determined by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Central Repository:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For just cause may remove an approved agency from the list of approved agencies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Shall notify, in writing, an agency that is removed from the list of agencies authorized to provide fingerprint services under this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-8A-27; Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 2, 1977 (4:5 Md. R. 384)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective December 1, 1978 (5:24 Md. R. 1798)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10E amended effective May 2, 1988 (15:9 Md. R. 1109)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.13 under COMAR 12.06.08 repealed effective July 9, 1990 (17:13 Md. R. 1612)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.16 adopted effective July 9, 1990 (17:13 Md. R. 1612)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773); September 1, 1994 (21:11 Md. R. 952)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B and G amended effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08C adopted effective September 1, 1994 (21:11 Md. R. 952)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09-1 adopted effective September 1, 1994 (21:11 Md. R. 952)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11D adopted effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective October 20, 2008 (35:21 Md. R. 1825)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12B amended effective September 27, 2004 (31:19 Md. R. 1433); March 24, 2008 (35:6 Md. R. 699)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12D amended effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13C adopted effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 adopted effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .14—.16 recodified to Regulations .15—.17 effective April 15, 1991 (18:7 Md. R. 773)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended effective April 10, 2006 (33:7 Md. R. 674)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14E amended effective March 24, 2008 (35:6 Md. R. 699)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15E amended effective March 30, 2015 (42:6 Md. R. 512)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19C, D repealed effective March 30, 2015 (42:6 Md. R. 512)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Criminal History Records Check of Individuals Who Care for or Supervise Children"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for processing a criminal history records check under Family Law Article, §§5-560—5-569, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Application” means the form submitted by a covered individual to obtain a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Approved agency” means a government or nongovernment agency, other than a law enforcement agency designated by the Secretary, where fingerprints may be taken.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Approved training” means Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services (Department) training of an employee of an approved agency to properly take fingerprints.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Authorization number” means the identifier given to an employer, a regulatory authority, or a licensed child placement agency that authorizes receipt of a printed statement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Central Repository” means the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Conviction” means a plea or verdict of guilty, or a plea of nolo contendere.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Covered Individual.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Covered individual” means an employer, employee, or other individual who is required, or who may be required, to obtain a criminal history records check under Family Law Article, §5-561, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Covered individual” includes an employee who is 14 years old or older as of the date of an application for a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Criminal History Records Check.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” means a record check of the criminal history record information (CHRI) maintained by the Central Repository or the Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” is limited to the existence of a criminal conviction, probation before judgment disposition, not criminally responsible disposition, or pending criminal charge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Disseminate” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Emergency out-of-home placement” means a local department places a child in the home of a private individual, including a neighbor, friend, or relative, as a result of a sudden unavailability of the child’s primary caretaker.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Employee” has the meaning stated in Family Law Article, §5-560, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Employer” has the meaning stated in Family Law Article, §5-560, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Facility” means a facility designated under Family Law Article, §5-561, Annotated Code of Maryland, whereby the employer and an employee are required to obtain a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Local Department” has the meaning stated in Family Law Article, §1-101(g)(1) and (2), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Previously processed” means an individual who has obtained a criminal history records check under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Printed statement” means a document issued by the Central Repository containing the results of a criminal history records check under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Private entity” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A nongovernment agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An employer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Reference number” is the preprinted identification number on a child care application for a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Regulatory authority” means a State, county, or local government agency responsible for licensing, registering, approving, or certifying a facility or a covered individual under Family Law Article, §5-561, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of Public Safety and Correctional Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>Valid Photo Identification Document.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Valid photo identification document” means a current, government-issued document containing the name, photograph, and date of birth of a covered individual that is used for positive identification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Valid photo identification document” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A Maryland driver's license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A driver's license issued by another state, the District of Columbia, a United States territory, or a foreign government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A United States passport;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A certificate of United States citizenship;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>A certificate of naturalization;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>A current foreign passport;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>An alien registration card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>A United States military identification card; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>An identification card issued by a state or local government agency, the District of Columbia, a United States territory, or a foreign government.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Application Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A covered individual applying for a printed statement shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Complete and submit an application to the Central Repository using a form approved by the Central Repository that provides identifying information, including the covered individual's Social Security number, that is used by the Central Repository to verify identity and preserve the security of information maintained by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit a complete set of legible fingerprints in a format approved by the Central Repository and the FBI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except for provisions under §B of this regulation, pay processing fees authorized under Family Law Article, §5-561(g), Annotated Code of Maryland, and Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The processing fee required under §A(3) of this regulation established under:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Regulation .04A of this chapter may be paid by an employer or other party; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Family Law Article, §5-561(h)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be reimbursed by a local department of social services to an adult who is a covered individual residing in a foster care home.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When to Apply.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employee shall apply for a criminal history records check on or before the first day of actual employment at a facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employer shall apply for a criminal history records check on or before the first day of actual operation of a facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Not later than 5 working days after a child, committed to a local department of social services, is placed by that department with an adult relative, a covered individual under Family Law Article, §5-561(c) or (e), Annotated Code of Maryland, shall apply for a printed statement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A covered individual seeking to adopt a child through a local department of social services or licensed child placement agency shall apply for a printed statement on or before the submission of the application for adoption.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Fingerprinting Process.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A covered individual applying for a printed statement shall have a complete set of legible fingerprints taken in a format approved by the Central Repository at a designated law enforcement agency or approved agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before being fingerprinted, a covered individual shall present a valid photo identification document.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>After verifying identification of a covered individual, a designated law enforcement agency or approved agency shall fingerprint the covered individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Payment of the Fingerprinting Fee.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The fee, if any, for taking fingerprints shall be paid directly to the designated law enforcement agency or approved agency providing the fingerprinting service.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The fee under §D(4)(a) of this regulation excludes the processing fees under Family Law Article, §5-561, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Rejection of Illegible Fingerprints.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If a covered individual's fingerprints are rejected as illegible by the Central Repository or the FBI, the covered individual shall be refingerprinted by the designated law enforcement agency or approved agency taking the rejected fingerprints.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If the Central Repository rejects a covered individual's fingerprints a second time as illegible, the Central Repository may decide to waive the fingerprint requirement and require other documentation for use to complete the criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Previously Processed Individual.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Resuming Work for Same Employer.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A previously processed individual who ceases working and later resumes work for the same employer is not required to resubmit an application with fingerprints and fees under §A of this regulation if the employer has maintained the previously processed individual's name on the Central Repository's list of previously processed individuals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Upon resuming work, an employer may require a previously processed individual to obtain a national criminal history records check and pay the applicable fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Additional or Subsequent Employment.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Except as provided under Family Law Article, §5-564(d)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, and §E(2)(b)—(d) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An employee who has been previously processed shall submit an application, with fingerprints and the State and federal processing fees, when applying to work for another employer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A criminal history records check contained in a printed statement may not be redisseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>An employee may request, using a form approved by the Central Repository, that the Central Repository send a copy of the State and national printed statement under Regulations .06 and .07 of this chapter to an additional or subsequent employer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A request under §E(2)(b) of this regulation shall contain identifying information, including the:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Reference number from the most recent child care application that included fingerprints; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Authorization number of an employer who is to receive a printed statement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The Central Repository shall issue a copy of the printed statement if:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A written request from the previously processed individual is received by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>The written request is received within 180 days of the date of the receipt of the most recent child care application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>The most recent child care application included fingerprints and the required processing fees.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Access to Fingerprinting Services.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for legal holidays, a designated law enforcement agency and approved agency shall establish a schedule for fingerprinting services and make the schedule available to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository shall provide fingerprinting services and process an application for the printed statement during regular State office hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Payment of Processing Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall collect the nonrefundable fees for a printed statement authorized under Family Law Article, §5-561, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 12.15.01.15.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §C of this regulation, processing fees shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Due at the time the application and fingerprints are submitted to the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except under §B(3) of this regulation, payable to the Central Repository in the form of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certified check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cashier’s check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Money order; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Personal check; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Rendered by an alternative method approved in writing by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository may establish a separate processing fee payment procedure for a government agency or private organization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A covered individual is not required to pay a processing fee to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Update and issue a revised printed statement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Contest a criminal conviction, probation before judgment disposition, not criminally responsible disposition, or a pending criminal charge reported in a Maryland printed statement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Request a copy of a printed statement to be submitted to an additional or subsequent employer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Designated Law Enforcement Agencies and Approved Agencies for Fingerprinting."> <text>The Central Repository may designate State and local law enforcement or other approved agencies to provide fingerprinting services according to provisions under COMAR 12.15.01.20.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Conducting the Criminal History Records Check."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall process an application for a criminal history records check according to provisions in Family Law Article, §§5-563 and 5-564, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Subject to Regulation .07 of this chapter, the Central Repository shall issue separate printed statements containing the results of the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>State criminal history records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>National criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Processing a Criminal History Records Check Received From the FBI."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, the Central Repository shall issue a printed statement to a regulatory authority and a covered individual that discloses the results of a national criminal history records check received from the FBI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall distribute a printed statement according to federal law and regulations governing dissemination of FBI identification records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Limits of Disclosure in a Printed Statement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall issue a printed statement to a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Licensed child placement agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Private entity.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except for necessary administrative or personal identification information and the date on which the criminal history records check was completed, the printed statement shall only contain a statement that the Central Repository did or did not conduct a criminal history records check according to requirements under Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A printed statement issued under this regulation shall be issued according to federal law and regulation governing the dissemination of FBI identification records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Issuance of a Revised Printed Statement."> <text>A revised statement shall be processed and distributed according to provisions under COMAR 12.15.01.19.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Confidentiality and Dissemination of Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A criminal history records check conducted by the Central Repository is confidential and may not be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Used for a purpose other than that for which it is disseminated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Redisseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The results of a criminal history records check may be disseminated only to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A covered individual who is the subject of the criminal history records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An employer, appropriate regulatory authority, licensed child placement agency, or private entity involved in the licensing, registration, hiring, certification, or approval process authorized by statute or regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Confidential information obtained from the Central Repository shall be maintained in a manner to ensure that only a person authorized under Family Law Article, §§5-563(b) and 5-564(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, and this chapter have access to that information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An employer, regulatory authority, private entity, or licensed child placement agency authorized to receive a printed statement from the Central Repository under these regulations for a covered individual shall provide the covered individual, who is the subject of the printed statement, with a copy of the printed statement if the covered individual requests a copy of the printed statement.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Right of a Covered Individual to Appeal the Findings in a Printed Statement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A covered individual may appeal the findings in a printed statement containing a conviction, probation before judgment disposition, not criminally responsible disposition, or pending charge received from the FBI by complying with applicable federal regulations to challenge and seek to correct a record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A covered individual may appeal the content of a printed statement containing a conviction, probation before judgment disposition, not criminally responsible disposition, or pending charge occurring in the State according to provisions under COMAR 12.15.01.07.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Referrals of Alleged Violations of Law."> <text>A criminal violation under Family Law Article, §5-566, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be referred to the State's attorney of the jurisdiction where the alleged violation occurred.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Emergency Out-of-Home Placement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>When a child is subject to an emergency out-of-home placement, a local department may request that a designated State or local law enforcement agency authorized under Regulation .05 of this chapter, or other agency approved by the Department, perform a federal name-based records check on an individual described in Family Law Article, §§5-561(c)(4), (5)(ii), and (6)(ii), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agency performing a federal name-based records check under §A of this regulation may provide the results of the federal name-based records check to the local department making the request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Within 15 calendar days after a local department receives the results of a federal name-based records check, a representative of the local department shall submit to the Department a complete a set of fingerprints for each individual subject to a federal name-based records check according to §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When the Department receives a complete set of fingerprints for an individual subject to the federal name-based records check from a local department, the Department shall perform a criminal history records check authorized under Family Law Article, §5-564, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Department shall perform a criminal history records check authorized under Family Law Article, §5-564, Annotated Code of Maryland, according to Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A local department shall immediately remove a child subject to an emergency out-of-home placement if an individual required to submit to a federal name-based records check does not comply with a requirement to submit to the federal name-based records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>When a child’s emergency out-of-home placement is denied as a result of a criminal history records check required under this regulation, the individual with the criminal history records check that is the basis for the denial may appeal the action as provided under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-227, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An individual required to submit to a criminal history records check under this regulation shall pay the fees established under Family Law Article, §5-561(h), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Family Law Article, §§5-560—5-569; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 under COMAR 12.06.11 adopted as an emergency provision effective September 24, 1986 (13:21 Md. R. 2316); emergency status extended at 14:2 Md. R. 125; emergency status expired March 15, 1987</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 under COMAR 12.06.11 adopted effective June 1, 1987 (14:11 Md. R. 1261)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 under COMAR 12.06.11 Criminal Background Investigations for Employees and Employers of Child Care Facilities repealed effective April 12, 1993 (20:7 Md. R. 642)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 under COMAR 12.15.02 Criminal Background Investigations for the Employee and Employer of a Child Care Facility adopted effective April 12, 1993 (20:7 Md. R. 642)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08, Criminal Background Investigations for the Employee and Employer of a Child Care Facility, repealed and Regulations .01—.12, Criminal History Records Check of Individuals Who Care for or Supervise Children, adopted effective October 6, 1997 (24:20 Md. R. 1404)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective March 7, 2011 (38:5 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13 adopted effective March 7, 2011 (38:5 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Criminal History Records Check for Individuals Who Work for an Adult Dependent Care Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for processing a criminal history records check under Health-General Article, §§19-1901—19-1912, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter does not apply to a background check conducted by a private agency under Health-General Article, Title 19, Subtitle 19, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Adult dependent care program” has the meaning stated in Health-General Article, §19-1901(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Application” means the form submitted for a covered individual to obtain a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Approved agency” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Approved training” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Central Repository” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Conviction” means a plea or verdict of guilty, plea of nolo contendere, disposition of probation before judgment, or disposition of not criminally responsible.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Covered individual” means an eligible employee or other individual as defined in §B(13) and (14) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” means a record check of the Central Repository criminal history record information under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Department” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Disclosure statement” means the part of the application that contains a sworn statement or affirmation of the existence of a criminal conviction or pending criminal charge without a final disposition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Disseminate” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Eligible Employee.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Eligible employee” has the meaning stated in Health-General Article, §19-1901(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Eligible employee” includes an employee 14 years old or older as of the date of the application for a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Other Individual.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Other individual” means an individual who is not an eligible employee but for whom a criminal history records check may be requested under Health-General Article, §19-1912, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Other individual” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A volunteer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An individual 14 years old or older as of the date of the application for a criminal history records check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Other individual” does not include an individual licensed or certified under the Health Occupations Article, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Previously processed” means a covered individual who has obtained a criminal history records check under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Printed statement” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Program” means an adult dependent care program as defined in Health-General Article, §19-1901(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Secretary” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Valid photo identification document” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Application Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An adult dependent care program shall apply for a printed statement for a covered individual by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completing and submitting to the Central Repository an application approved by the Central Repository that provides identifying information that is used by the Central Repository to verify identity and preserve the security of the information maintained by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submitting a complete set of legible fingerprints in a format approved by the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Paying the processing fee authorized under Health-General Article, §§19-1902(c) and 19-1904(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, and established by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>When to Apply.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An adult dependent care program shall apply for a printed statement for an eligible employee before that eligible employee may begin to work for the program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An adult dependent care program shall decide if and when to submit an application for a printed statement for another individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Fingerprinting Process.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A covered individual shall have a complete set of legible fingerprints taken in a format approved by the Central Repository at a designated law enforcement agency or approved agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Before being fingerprinted, a covered individual shall present a valid photo identification document to the designated law enforcement agency or approved agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A designated law enforcement agency or approved agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Verify the covered individual’s identification; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Fingerprint the covered individual in a format approved by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A fingerprinting fee, if any, that does not include the fee authorized under Health-General Article, §§10-1902(c) and 19-1904(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, is to be paid directly to the designated law enforcement agency or approved agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Rejection of Illegible Fingerprints.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Central Repository may waive the requirement for a complete set of legible fingerprints to be submitted as part of the application under Health-General Article, §19-1904(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Except under provisions of §C(5)(a) of this regulation, a covered individual, whose fingerprints are rejected as illegible, shall be refingerprinted by the designated law enforcement agency or approved agency taking the illegible fingerprints.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Previously Processed Individual.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Resuming Work for the Same Program. A previously processed individual, who ceases working for a program and later resumes work for the same program is not required to resubmit an application with fingerprints and fees under §A of this regulation if the program retained the previously processed individual on the Central Repository's list of previously processed individuals under COMAR 12.15.01.19.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Additional or Subsequent Employment for Another Adult Dependent Care Program.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An application for a printed statement, fingerprints, and applicable fees are required for a previously processed individual who applies to work for a program that the previously processed individual has not worked for in the past.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Information contained in a printed statement may not be redisseminated, other than to a person specified in Regulation .08B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Access to Fingerprinting Services.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except for legal holidays, a designated law enforcement agency or approved agency shall establish a schedule for providing fingerprinting services and make the schedule available to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Repository shall provide fingerprinting services and process an application for a printed statement during regular State work day office hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Payment of Processing Fee."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall collect a nonrefundable fee for a a printed statement authorized under Health-General Article, §§19-1902(c) and 19-1904(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, and established in COMAR 12.15.01.15.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided under §C of this regulation, the processing fee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be paid by the program at the time the application and fingerprints are submitted by the program to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Except under §D of this regulation, be payable to the Central Repository in the form of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Certified check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Cashier’s check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Money order;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Personal check; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Rendered by an alternative method approved in writing by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository may establish a separate processing fee payment procedure for a government agency or a program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Payment of the processing fee for a covered individual is not required to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Update and issue a revised printed statement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Contest a printed statement under Health-General Article, §19-1908, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Designated Law Enforcement Agencies and Approved Agencies for Fingerprinting."> <text>A designated law enforcement agency shall provide fingerprinting services according to requirements established under COMAR 12.15.01.20.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Conducting the Criminal History Records Check."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository shall process an application for a printed statement according to provisions under Health-General Article, §§9-1904, 19-1905, and 19-1907, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall issue a printed statement under this chapter only to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An adult dependent care program; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A covered individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Issuance of a Revised Printed Statement."> <text>A revised printed statement shall be issued according to provisions established under COMAR 12.15.01.19.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Confidentiality and Dissemination of Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A criminal history records check conducted by the Central Repository is confidential and may not be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Used for a purpose other than that for which it is disseminated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Redisseminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The results of a criminal history records check may only be disseminated to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A covered individual who is the subject of a criminal history records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An adult dependent care program involved in the hiring or approval process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Confidential information obtained from the Central Repository shall be maintained to ensure that only a person authorized under Health-General Article, §19-1907(c), Annotated Code of Maryland, and this chapter have access to the information.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Right of a Covered Individual to Appeal the Findings in a Printed Statement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Requesting an Appeal of the Findings in a Printed Statement.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A covered individual may appeal the content of a printed statement issued under provisions of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A covered individual shall contact the Central Repository, in writing, requesting to appeal the content of the covered individual’s printed statement under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Central Repository shall conduct a hearing within 20 working days of the receipt of the written request from a covered individual, unless the requesting covered individual waives the hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository may deny a request to appeal a printed statement if the Central Repository has a record of a conviction of a crime or a certified copy of the conviction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If an appeal concerns a pending charge or other criminal history record information, the Central Repository may deny the appeal if the Central Repository:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has a certified copy of the court docket from the court showing that the charge has not been finally adjudicated; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Finds the other criminal history record information is accurate and complete.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Issue a decision regarding the appeal within 5 working days of the hearing's conclusion or the date the hearing is waived by the covered individual making the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notify the covered individual, in writing, of the decision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If an appeal under this regulation is sustained, the Central Repository shall comply with provisions under COMAR 12.15.01.07 for correcting CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Referrals of Alleged Violations of Law."> <text>A criminal violation under Health-General Article, §19-1909, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall be referred to the State's attorney of the jurisdiction where the alleged violation occurred.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Health-General Article, §§19-1901—19-1912; Correctional Services Article, §2-109; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 19, 1997 (24:10 Md. R. 710)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Criminal History Record Information Checks for Applicants for Hazardous Materials Endorsements — Commercial Driver's Licenses"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures to obtain the required CHRI check if an individual is applying for a hazardous materials endorsement, new or renewal, for a commercial driver's license.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Scope."> <text>This chapter applies to a new applicant for and a current holder of a commercial driver's license with a hazardous materials endorsement.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Access fee” means a cost paid to the Central Repository for conducting a CHRI check and providing CHRI to an applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Applicant” means an individual submitting information to the Central Repository to obtain CHRI for a CDL—HME.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Collection” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Commercial driver's license (CDL)” has the meaning stated in the Transportation Article, §16-815, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Criminal History Record Information (CHRI).</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Criminal history record information (CHRI)” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Criminal history record information (CHRI)” obtained for the purposes of an HME includes a check of State records conducted by the Central Repository and national records conducted by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Criminal Justice Information System—Central Repository (Central Repository)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedures Article, §10-213, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Electronic imaging” means a method of digitally recording and producing copies of an individual's fingerprints.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Fingerprinting” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Fingerprinting service fee” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03 .</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Hazardous Materials.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Hazardous materials” means any substance or material that could adversely affect the safety of the public, handlers, or carriers during transportation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Hazardous materials” includes substances and materials identified in the United States Department of Transportation's Hazardous Materials Table (49 CFR Parts 100—185).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Hazardous materials endorsement (HME)” means a State-issued authorization for the holder of a CDL to operate a motor vehicle transporting hazardous materials.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Transportation Security Administration (TSA)” means the United States Department of Homeland Security, Transportation Security Administration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="CDL—HME CHRI Check — Application."> <text>An applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Provide the Central Repository, in a format determined by the Central Repository, the following concerning the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fingerprints for federal and State comparison;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A completed Maryland Motor Vehicle Administration (MVA) approved CDL—HME application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A certified certificate of birth; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A valid Maryland CDL; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Pay the fees under Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="CDL—HME CHRI Check — Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall submit to the Central Repository at the time of application the fees as provided in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Threat Assessment Fee. The Central Repository collects the threat assessment fee under COMAR 12.15.01.15 and submits the fee, less a $2 handling charge, to the TSA.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>FBI Fee. The Central Repository collects the FBI fee under COMAR 12.15.01.15 and submits the fee, less a $2 handling charge, to the FBI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Central Repository collects and retains the Central Repository access fee under COMAR 12.15.01.15.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Fingerprinting Service Fee. The Central Repository collects and retains the fingerprinting service fee under COMAR 12.15.01.15.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Application Processing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall submit the request to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall accept an applicant's properly completed fingerprints and application and the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Conduct the State CHRI check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Forward the appropriate information and fee to the FBI to conduct the national CHRI check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Receive notice from the FBI confirming receipt of the request made to the FBI to conduct a national CHRI check;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Prepare a printed statement of the applicant's State CHRI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>According to Criminal Procedures Article, §§10-201—10-234, Annotated Code of Maryland, forward the printed statement prepared under §B(4) of this regulation to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Threat Assessment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The TSA performs a threat assessment to determine if the applicant qualifies for a CDL—HME.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The TSA conducts the threat assessment and notifies the applicant of the decision according to policy and procedures established by the TSA.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An applicant notified that the TSA has disqualified the applicant from holding an HME may apply, according to procedures established by the TSA, to the TSA for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A waiver of the TSA requirements; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal of the TSA decision to disqualify the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Use of CHRI Information."> <text>An applicant or other person receiving CHRI from the Central Repository under this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>May not disseminate the CHRI to an unauthorized person; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Shall only use the CHRI for the purposes described under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Challenges to CHRI Received from the Central Repository."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Under the provisions of Criminal Procedures Article, §10-223, Annotated Code of Maryland, an applicant may challenge the completeness, contents, or accuracy of the contents of the Central Repository printed statement produced according to Regulation .06B(4) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A challenge of the completeness, contents, or accuracy of the contents of a Central Repository printed statement shall be made by the applicant and processed by the Central Repository according to procedures under COMAR 12.15.01.07.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After the Central Repository processes a challenge and makes a decision and that decision results in a change, or changes, to the original Central Repository printed statement, the Central Repository shall forward a revised printed statement according to provisions under Regulation .06B(5) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221; Transportation Article, §16-815; Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-8A-27; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 10, 2006 (33:7 Md. R. 674)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04A amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Use of Private Provider Services for Non-Criminal Justice Purposes"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes minimum requirements and procedures for a private provider to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes for the Central Repository.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Authorization certificate” means a document issued by the Central Repository to a private provider authorizing the private provider to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Criminal history records check” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.02.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Criminal history record information (CHRI)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Criminal Justice Information System—Central Repository (Central Repository)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Criminal justice purposes” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“FBI” means the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Network Livescan Applicant Technical Interface Document” means the written minimum specifications for processing a request for a criminal history records check for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Non-criminal justice purpose” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Private provider” means a person performing fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Private provider agreement” means a legally binding document that describes the responsibilities of the Central Repository and a private provider authorizing the private provider to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Record” means any printed, written, or electronic document or file used or created for the purposes of collecting and transmitting fingerprint images and demographic data to the Central Repository for a request for a criminal history records check for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Private Provider Performing Fingerprinting Services and Demographic Data Collection."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository may authorize a private provider to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for a request for a criminal history records check for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall establish minimum administrative and operational requirements for private providers to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Electronic transmission of an individual's fingerprints and demographic data to the Central Repository for a criminal history records check for non-criminal justice purposes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Completion of forms required for a request for a criminal history records check by obtaining information about the individual being fingerprinted; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Collection of fees and payment of invoices according to Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Except for purposes under §E of this regulation, a private provider authorized to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes under this chapter shall make the private provider's fingerprinting services available to a person requesting a criminal history records check for non-criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A private provider may not perform fingerprinting services or demographic data collection for the following purposes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sex offender registration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Hazardous materials endorsements—commercial driver's licenses; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Criminal justice purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Private Provider Agreement and Authorization Certificate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private provider may not provide fingerprinting services or demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes unless the private provider meets requirements under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Before the Central Repository enters into a private provider agreement with or issues an authorization certificate, original or renewal, to a private provider requesting to perform fingerprinting and demographic data collection under this chapter, the private provider shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit a written application to the Central Repository in a format established by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide the Central Repository with documentation indicating that the private provider or the private provider’s staff has at least 5 cumulative years providing fingerprinting services and demographic data collection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Demonstrate the ability to electronically transmit fingerprint images and demographic data using a secure encrypted connection that meets requirements set forth in the Network Livescan Applicant Technical Interface Document maintained by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Demonstrate compliance with requirements under Regulation .05 of this chapter for the location where Central Repository authorized fingerprinting services and demographic data collection are performed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Provide documents to support the existence of a current surety bond as provided under Regulation .09 of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Demonstrate that a criminal history records check was performed on the private provider's employee as required under Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository shall issue an authorization certificate to a private provider meeting the requirements of this chapter that:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is valid for 3 years from the date of issuance, unless suspended by the Central Repository; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be renewed every 3 years upon application by a private provider, unless the Central Repository has suspended the authorization certificate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A private provider shall notify the Central Repository within 10 business days of a change in the information submitted as part of an original or renewal application under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A private provider issued an authorization certificate under this chapter shall display the certificate at the location where the fingerprinting services and demographic data collection are performed.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Private Provider Business Location Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before the Central Repository enters into a private provider agreement with or issues an original or renewal authorization certificate to a private provider, the Central Repository shall review a private provider's location plan.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A private provider's location plan, at a minimum, shall have:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A Livescan machine that is approved by the Central Repository;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A waiting area that, at a minimum, includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A reception desk; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Seating for individuals requesting a criminal history records check;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A method of securing and maintaining records that meets Central Repository requirements; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Electronic connections, electric power supply, and office climate control that meet manufacturer and Central Repository requirements.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private provider authorized to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection under this chapter shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Retain records related to a request for a criminal history records check for 90 days from the date of the request; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Then destroy the records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Records, at a minimum, include the following for the individual being fingerprinted and supplying demographic data:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The individual's name and address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The date that the individual was fingerprinted and provided the demographic data;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of a driver's license or other acceptable identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The processing control number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The fingerprint image;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The type of transaction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The authorization number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The matrix code associated with transaction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A record of fees collected; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A record of payment to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A private provider shall ensure confidentiality of records that are stored and destroyed according to requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Records are subject to inspection by the Central Repository or the FBI.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A private provider may not receive CHRI.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private provider shall collect fees as specified under COMAR 12.15.01.14 for performing fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes on behalf of the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall submit a monthly invoice to each private provider for requests for criminal history records checks processed by the private provider and submitted to the Central Repository during the preceding month.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of the invoice under §B of this regulation, the private provider shall forward payment to the Central Repository within 7 business days of receipt of the invoice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A private provider may charge fees for providing fingerprinting services and demographic data collection in addition to fees as specified under COMAR 12.15.01.15.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a private provider charges fees in addition to those required under COMAR 12.15.01.15, the private provider shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Identify, report, and control the additional fees separately from those required to be collected by the Central Repository under COMAR 12.15.01.15; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include in any public notice of the availability of fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The fees required under COMAR 12.15.01.15; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The additional fees charged by the private provider.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Criminal History Records Check for Private Provider Employees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>As part of the application for an original or renewal authorization certificate, a private provider shall include the fingerprints and demographic data for each individual performing or supervising fingerprinting services and demographic data collection authorized under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall conduct a criminal history records check of each individual identified by the private provider as performing or supervising fingerprinting services or demographic data collection authorized under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Central Repository may consider CHRI received under §B of this regulation when determining:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To authorize a private provider to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection under this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The conditions of the private provider agreement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Surety Bond."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private provider requesting authorization to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes shall have a surety bond of $10,000, in a form approved by the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A private provider shall provide the Central Repository with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A certificate from the bonding company listing the individuals of the private provider's company who are covered by the bond;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agreement from the bonding company that the bonding company shall give the Central Repository at least 60 days’ notice by registered or certified mail of cancellation of the private provider's bond; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As part of the agreement under §B(2) of this regulation, written assurance that the bond will be in full force and effect for a period of at least 60 days after notice of cancellation is given to the Central Repository.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The bond value shall increase to 10 percent of the total amount invoiced to the private provider the previous fiscal year if the invoiced amount exceeded $100,000.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>After an original or renewal authorization certificate is issued, the private provider shall maintain the required surety bond throughout the period the private provider is authorized to perform fingerprinting services and demographic data collection for non-criminal justice purposes under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Suspension of an Authorization Certificate."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository may suspend an authorization certificate granted under this chapter, if the Central Repository determines that the private provider:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Perpetrated a fraud against the Central Repository or the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Created the impression that the private provider is associated with or is a part of the Central Repository or another State agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conducted business in a manner that is detrimental to the interests of the Central Repository, the State, or the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has not met the administrative or operational requirements for authorization under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has more than a 2 percent rejection rate of fingerprint impressions as determined by the Central Repository or FBI; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Failed to forward payments to the Central Repository as required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The private provider may reapply for an authorization certificate after 6 months from the date of a suspension.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 16, 2007 (34:14 Md. R. 1246)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B, C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06E amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08C amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective November 25, 2013 (40:23 Md. R. 1935)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Federal Bureau of Investigation, Next Generation Identification Rap Back Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes procedures for participation in the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Next Generation Identification Rap Back Program.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Criminal History Record Information (CHRI)” has the meaning stated in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Criminal History Records Check” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.15.01.03B(6).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Federal Bureau of Investigation, Next Generation Identification Rap Back Program (FBI Rap Back Program)” means the federal service that informs an authorized non-criminal justice government agency of subsequent criminal history record information for an employee or licensee during a specified term.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Non-criminal justice government agency” means a government agency that is not a criminal justice agency defined under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, and receives CHRI for licensing and employment purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Submitting Fingerprints to the FBI Rap Back Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Central Repository is responsible for submitting all fingerprints to the FBI Rap Back Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit the fingerprints of employees or licensees of authorized non-criminal justice government agency to the FBI; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Retain the fingerprints of an employee or licensee of authorized non-criminal justice government agencies for future submission to the FBI Rap Back program or for national fingerprint searches.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Issuance of a Revised Printed Statement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a non-criminal justice government agency is authorized by State statute to receive federal criminal history records information, the Central Repository shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Enroll the non-criminal justice government agency in the FBI Rap Back Program;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Maintain a record of each previously processed individual employed or licensed by the non- criminal justice government agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Distribute CHRI in accordance with the FBI Rap Back program and federal regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Pre-Notification of CHRI Release.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Central Repository shall electronically notify a non-criminal justice government agency enrolled in the FBI Rap Back Program of the availability of subsequent CHRI for an employee or a licensee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A non-criminal justice government agency notified under §B(1) of this regulation shall electronically respond to the Central Repository within 3 business days of receipt of notification from the Central Repository:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Confirming that the individual is currently an employee or a licensee and the CHRI should be released to the non-criminal government agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Advising that the individual is no longer an employee or a licensee and the individual should be removed from the non-criminal justice government agency FBI Rap Back Program service.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Annual Review of Previously Processed Individuals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>At least annually the Central Repository shall prepare and distribute a list of previously processed individuals to each non-criminal justice government agency enrolled in the FBI Rap Back Program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>From the list of previously processed individuals required under §C(1) of this regulation, the non-criminal justice government agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Delete an individual who no longer works for and may not resume work for the non-criminal justice government agency; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Delete an individual who is no longer licensed by the non-criminal justice government agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The non-criminal justice government agency shall return the adjusted list required under §C(2) of this regulation to the Central Repository within 15 working days of receipt.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Central Repository shall cease sending revised printed statements when notified that the previously processed individual has been deleted from the annually prepared list.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Except when prohibited by law, the Central Repository may charge a fee for providing the Rap Back Program service.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 30, 2015 (42:6 Md. R. 512)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="16" heading="Pretrial Detention and Services"> <chapter num="01" heading="Home Detention"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter creates policy and procedure for a home detention program under the Division of Pretrial Detention and Services of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services, under Correctional Services Article, §5-202, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Commissioner” means the Commissioner of Pretrial Detention and Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of Case Management Services, Baltimore City Detention Center, assigned to the Home Detention Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Division” means the Division of Pretrial Detention and Services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Electronic supervision” has the meaning stated in COMAR 12.02.26.02B.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Executive Director” means the Executive Director of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services' Central Home Detention Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Inmate” means an individual detained at the Baltimore City Detention Center in place of a bond payment, and pending trial in the District Court of Maryland for Baltimore City District or the Circuit Court for Baltimore City.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Pretrial services staff” means an employee designated by the Commissioner to coordinate screening and processing of referrals from the pretrial population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Program staff” means an employee designated by the Executive Director to work in the Central Home Detention Unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Unit” means the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services' Central Home Detention Unit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Organization and Staffing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Commissioner, in cooperation with the Commissioner of Correction, shall organize and operate a unified home detention unit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The program provides an alternative to the incarceration of select pretrial inmates charged with the commission of nonviolent crimes while awaiting trial. Participating inmates are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Personally supervised;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Monitored electronically; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Housed in approved residences with directed and controlled community access for purposes of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Treatment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Counseling; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Employment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The home detention program shall consist of the following programmatic elements:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Screening;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Placement;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Electronic monitoring;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Case work services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Employment and community services;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Substance abuse testing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Service fees.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Under Correctional Services Article, §5-201(c), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Division has the same authority with regard to the custody of its inmates and the operation of the Division of Pretrial Detention and Services as the Division of Correction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Eligibility Criteria for a Pretrial Detainee."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate may volunteer for placement in the home detention program. To be eligible for participation, the detainee shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be awaiting trial for an offense that is not identified under Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Have a residence in Maryland approved by Unit program staff;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Have no history of conviction and not be awaiting trial for child abuse or sexual abuse of a minor under Criminal Law Article, §§3-601 and 3-602, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Have had 3 years elapse since expiration of sentence or probation for a conviction for a crime of violence as defined under Criminal Law Article §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Have no documented history of escape or attempted escape within the last 10 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate committed for contempt of court may be eligible for home detention under §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Screening and Placement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pretrial services staff shall screen a defendant detained following a bail review hearing. If the defendant is not released by the reviewing judge and the inmate is eligible under Regulation .04A of this chapter, the inmate shall be recommended for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Pretrial services staff shall screen eligible detainees for home detention placement within 3 business days of the inmate's bail review hearing. An eligible inmate shall be recommended for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If pretrial services staff recommends a defendant for home detention placement the defendant's file shall be transferred to the Central Home Detention Unit within 1 business day of the recommendation. The defendant's file shall contain:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The statement of charges or committing documents;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A complete criminal history with all dispositions; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inmate background information which shall consist of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Residence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employment history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Military history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Health conditions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Substance abuse history;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Probation or parole status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Current detainers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Current open warrants; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pending trials.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Central Home Detention Unit shall process and make the appropriate decision concerning placement in the home detention program within 5 business days of the receipt of the defendant's file from pretrial services staff.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Commissioner or designee has final authority to approve the inmate for home detention placement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>On review and approval by the Commissioner or the Commissioner's designee, the defendant shall be transferred to the Central Home Detention Unit within 2 business days of the approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If a defendant is disapproved for program placement by the Commissioner, the screening process shall terminate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If a defendant is disapproved for program participation:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The rationale shall be recorded in the defendant's file;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Central Home Detention Unit shall return the defendant's file to pretrial services staff within 2 business days of the denial; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The defendant shall be notified by pretrial services staff within 5 business days of receipt of the defendant's file.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Executive Director shall ensure that a program inmate participates in program orientation established under COMAR 12.02.26.07A.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The inmate shall sign an acknowledgement that the inmate has received:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An explanation of the program rules; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Program equipment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Following orientation, program staff shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Transport the inmate to the inmate's residence; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Install the electronic supervision equipment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Supervision."> <text>The Commissioner shall establish minimum standards of supervision for an inmate assigned to home detention which shall include, but not be limited to, the requirements under COMAR 12.02.26.09.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Enforcement."> <text>By agreement with the Division of Correction, the Division's program is subject to the enforcement provisions under COMAR 12.02.26.04B—D and F—H except for those provisions that by their nature would not apply to the Division's inmates.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Collection and Disposition of Funds Received from a Home Detention Inmate."> <text>By agreement with the Division of Correction, the Division's program is subject to the provisions under COMAR 12.02.26.10 except for those provisions that by their nature would not apply to the Division's inmates.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Program Rules for an Inmate Assigned to Home Detention."> <text>By agreement with the Division of Correction, the Division's program is subject to the provisions under COMAR 12.02.26.08 except for those provisions that by their nature would not apply to the Division's inmates.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Discharge of an Inmate from Home Detention."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An inmate shall be discharged from home detention if the inmate:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has the pending charge or charges, for which the inmate is being detained, adjudicated by the District or circuit court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pays the bond amount previously set by the court; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has a charge placed against the inmate which disqualifies the individual under Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An inmate whose charges are adjudicated and is committed to either the Division of Correction or the Baltimore City Detention Center may remain on home detention if qualified under COMAR 12.02.26.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Correctional Services Article, §5-202, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.10 adopted as an emergency provision effective September 3, 1991 (18:19 Md. R. 2095); emergency status extended at 18:26 Md. R. 2828; adopted permanently effective March 30, 1992 (19:6 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective June 23, 2003 (30:12 Md. R. 789)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Resident Discipline" reason="Repealed — See COMAR 12.03.01"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—37 adopted as an emergency provision effective March 9, 2006 (33:7 Md. R. 652); emergency status extended at 33:19 Md. R. 1555</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.37 adopted effective September 11, 2006 (33:18 Md. R. 1506)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03F adopted effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2212)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective April 21, 2008 (35:8 Md. R. 807)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective July 2, 2018 (45:13 Md. R. 668)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle>