<subtitle num="01" heading="Office of the Secretary"> <chapter num="01" heading="Hearing Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Applicability of COMAR 28.02.01."> <text>COMAR 28.02.01 applies to all proceedings before the Department of State Police in which the legal rights, duties, statutory entitlements, or privileges of specific parties are required by law or constitutional right to be determined after a Departmental hearing.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Exceptions."> <text>COMAR 28.02.01 does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Personnel grievance hearings, conferences, informal investigations, or other proceedings in which hearings are not required by law; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Proceedings before the Department for which specific regulations governing the hearings have been adopted.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, §§10-205, 10-206, 10-208, 10-218, and 10-122; Public Safety Article, §2-205; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 24, 1997 (24:4 Md. R. 295)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Public Information Requests"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General."> <text>This chapter sets out procedures for filing requests with the Department of State Police for the inspection and copying of records under State Government Article, §§10-611—10-630, Annotated Code of Maryland. It is the policy of the Department to facilitate public access to the records of the Department, when access is allowed by law, by minimizing costs and time delays to persons requesting information.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Act” means State Government Article, §§10-611—10-630, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Applicant” means a person requesting disclosure of public records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Custodian” means an authorized person employed by the Department having personal custody and control of public records of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Official custodian” means the person who is responsible for the maintenance, care, and keeping of the public records of the Department. Unless otherwise provided by law, the Department head is the official custodian of the Department's records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Person” means and includes a person, corporation, partnership, firm, association, or government agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Public Records.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Public records” means all paper, correspondence, forms, books, photographs, photostats, films, microfilms, sound recordings, maps, drawings, or other written documents, regardless of physical form or characteristics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Public records” includes all copies made or received by the Department in connection with the transaction of public business and includes the salaries of all employees of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>“Public records” does not mean sociological data, as defined in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Sociological data” means any of the following information concerning a person about whom a record is maintained by the Department of State Police:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Social Security number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Personal address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Personal phone number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Any information obtained by a personal history investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Any information obtained through a doctor's examination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Any score from a GED certificate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Any transcript or information obtained from a high school, college, or other approved educational institution; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Any information regarding marital status or dependents.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Working day” means a day other than Saturday, Sunday, or a State holiday.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Written Documents.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Written documents” means all books, papers, maps, photographs, cards, tapes, recordings, computerized records, and other documentary materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Written documents” does not mean sociological data, as defined in this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Who May Request."> <text>Any person may request to inspect or copy public records of the Department.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Necessity for Written Request."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Inspections.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as otherwise provided in this regulation, the custodian shall generally make public records available for inspection by an applicant without demanding a written request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The custodian shall require a written request if the custodian reasonably believes that the Act or any other law may prevent the disclosure of the record to the applicant or that a written request will materially assist the Department in responding to the request.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Copies. If the applicant is requesting a copy of a public record, the custodian may require a written request by the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Contents of Written Request."> <text>A written request shall contain the applicant's name and address, shall be signed by the applicant, and shall reasonably identify by brief description the record sought.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Filing Written Request."> <text>A written request shall be addressed to the custodian of the record. If the custodian is unknown to the applicant, the request may be addressed to the Secretary of State Police.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Response to Written Request."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the custodian decides to grant a written request for inspection, the custodian shall produce the record for inspection immediately or within a reasonable period, not to exceed 30 days from the date of the request when that period of time is needed to retrieve the information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the custodian decides to deny the written request, the custodian shall do so within 30 days of the written request and, immediately upon deciding to deny the request, notify the applicant of the denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a requested public record is not in the custody or control of the person to whom written application is made, that person shall, within 10 working days of the receipt of the request, so notify the applicant. If that person knows the name of the custodian of the record or the location or possible location of the record, this information shall also be given to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>With the consent of the applicant, any time limit imposed by §§A—C of this regulation may be extended for an additional period not to exceed 30 days.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Notification of Persons Who May Be Affected By Disclosure."> <text>Unless prohibited by law, the custodian may notify any person who could be adversely affected by disclosure of a record to the applicant that a request for inspection or copying of the record has been made. The custodian may consider the views of that person before deciding whether to disclose the record to the applicant.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Records Temporarily Unavailable."> <text>If a requested public record is in the custody and control of the person to whom written application is made but is not immediately available for inspection or copying, the custodian shall, within 10 working days of the receipt of the request, so notify the applicant and set a date and hour within a reasonable time for inspection or copying.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Records Destroyed or Lost."> <text>If a requested record has been destroyed or lost, the custodian to whom the application is made shall, within 10 working days of the request, notify the applicant of this fact and explain in the response the reasons why the records cannot be produced.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Review of the Denial."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a written request is denied by the custodian for a reason other than that the record is temporarily unavailable, the applicant may, within 30 days after receipt of the notice of the denial, request an administrative hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the applicant requests a hearing, the hearing shall be conducted by a hearing officer designated by the Office of Administrative Hearings in accordance with COMAR 29.01.01. The Secretary shall issue the final decision of the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the hearing results in a total or partial denial of the written request, the applicant may file an appropriate action in the circuit court under State Government Article, §10-623, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the applicant chooses not to request a hearing under §A of this regulation, the applicant may file an action for judicial enforcement under State Government Article, §10-623, Annotated Code of Maryland, without exhausting that administrative remedy.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Disclosure Against Public Interest."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If, in the opinion of the Secretary, disclosure of a public record that is otherwise required to be disclosed under the Act would do substantial injury to the public interest, the Secretary may temporarily deny the request in writing and apply within 10 working days of the denial to the appropriate circuit court for an order permitting continued denial or restriction of access.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Notice of the application filed with the circuit court shall be served on the applicant in the same manner that is provided for service of process by the Maryland Rules of Procedure.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fee Schedule.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The fee schedule for copying and certifying copies of records is provided in this section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Copies. The fee for each copy is 25 cents per page if reproduction is made by a photocopying machine within the Department. The Secretary or the Secretary’s designee may charge a reasonable fee for the reproduction of photographs. If records cannot be adequately reproduced by photocopying (for example, magnetic tapes, blueprints, and microfilm), the fee for copies is based on the actual cost of reproduction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Certification of Copies. If a person requests that a copy of a record be certified as a true copy, an additional fee of 75 cents per page shall be charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Minimum Fee Charged. A charge is not made if the total amount of the fee would be $1 or less.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Notwithstanding §A of this regulation, if the fee for copies, printouts, photographs, or certified copies of a record are specifically prescribed by a law other than the Act or this regulation, the prescribed fee shall be charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the custodian is unable to copy a record within the Department, the custodian shall make arrangements for the prompt reproduction of the record at public or private facilities outside the Department. The custodian shall either collect from the applicant a fee to cover the actual cost of reproduction or direct the applicant to pay the cost of reproduction direct to the facility making the copy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Before copying a record, the custodian shall estimate the cost of reproduction and either obtain the agreement of the applicant to pay the cost or demand prepayment of any estimated fee before reproducing the record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, the official custodian may charge reasonable fees for official or employee time expended searching for requested records or for any time expended preparing records for inspection and copying.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The official custodian may not charge any search or preparation fee for the first 2 hours of official or employee time that is needed to respond to a request for information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Upon request, the official custodian may waive or reduce any fee charged pursuant to this regulation if the custodian determines that the waiver or reduction is in the public interest. The official custodian shall consider, among other relevant factors, the ability of the applicant to pay the cost or fee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If the applicant requests that copies be mailed or delivered to the applicant, the custodian may charge the applicant for the cost of postage or delivery to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Time of Inspection."> <text>An applicant may inspect any public record that the applicant is entitled to inspect during the normal working hours of the Department.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Place of Inspection."> <text>The place of inspection shall be the place where the document is located unless the custodian, after taking into account the applicant's expressed wish, determines that another place of inspection is more suitable and convenient.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">General Provisions Article, §§4-201, 4-205, and 4-206; Public Safety Article, §2-205; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 24, 1997 (24:4 Md. R. 295)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13A amended effective June 21, 2004 (31:12 Md. R. 914); December 21, 2015 (42:25 Md. R. 1547)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Correction or Amendment of Personal Records"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter sets out procedures to implement State Government Article, §10-625, Annotated Code of Maryland, for persons in interest to request the correction or amendment of personal records in the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter does not apply to criminal history record information as defined in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-201, Annotated Code of Maryland. Procedures for correction or amendment of criminal history record information are provided under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-224, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Who May Request."> <text>A “person in interest” as defined in State Government Article, §10-611(e), Annotated Code of Maryland, may request the Department to correct or amend any personal records pursuant to State Government Article, §10-625, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Contents of Request."> <text>The person in interest shall request the correction or amendment in writing. Each request shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Identify the personal records the person is seeking to correct or amend;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>State the precise correction or amendment requested;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>State the reason the correction or amendment is sought; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Include a statement that the personal records are to the person's belief currently inaccurate or incomplete.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Filing the Request."> <text>A request for correction or amendment of the records shall be filed with the Department by addressing it to the custodian of the record. If the custodian is unknown to the person in interest, the request may be addressed to the Office of the Secretary, Department of State Police, 1201 Reisterstown Road, Pikesville, Maryland 21208-3899.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Return of Request."> <text>A request for correction or amendment is considered filed with the Department when received only to the extent that it reasonably complies with Regulation .03 of this chapter. If a request does not reasonably comply with Regulation .03 of this chapter, it shall be returned to the person with an explanation of the reason for the return and a statement that, upon completion, it may be refiled with the Department.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Response to Request."> <text>Within 30 days after the completed request for correction or amendment that complies with Regulations .03 and .04 of this chapter is received, the custodian of the record shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Make the requested correction or amendment and inform the person in writing of the action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Inform the person in writing of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department's refusal to make the requested correction or amendment, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The reason for the refusal; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Inform the person in writing that the request will not be acted on because:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The person is not a person in interest,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The records sought to be corrected or amended are not personal records,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The person requesting the correction or amendment is not entitled to inspect the records under State Government Article, §§10-615—10-617, Annotated Code of Maryland, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Of any other reason that is authorized by law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Refusal of Request."> <text>If the Department's final determination under Regulation .06 of this chapter is to refuse the requested correction or amendment, as authorized by Regulation .06B of this chapter, the person in interest may file with the Department a concise statement of the reasons for:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The requested correction or amendment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Disagreement with the Department's refusal to make the correction or amendment.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Requirements for Statement of Disagreement."> <text>The statement specified in Regulation .07 of this chapter shall be filed on pages not exceeding 8-1/2 x 11 inches in size. Only one side of the page shall contain the statement. Not more than 5 pages will be accepted by the Department in connection with a single request for correction and amendment.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Information Provided to Third Parties."> <text>When the Department discloses to a third party information from personal records about which a statement in compliance with Regulations .07 and .08 of this chapter has been filed, the Department shall furnish a copy of the statement to the third party.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Administrative Review."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may request an administrative review within the Department, by filing a request for review with the Secretary, if the person has been denied:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An amendment or correction of a record;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The right to file a statement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The right to have a statement to a third party forwarded pursuant to Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for review shall be filed within 30 days of the date the person is advised of the Department's action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The review proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland, and the administrative hearing regulations of the Department outlined in COMAR 29.01.01.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, §10-613; Public Safety Article, §2-205; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 24, 1997 (24:4 Md. R. 295)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Hazardous Material Security"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes the procedures to enforce compliance by a facility with the Hazardous Material Security Act, Environment Article, Title 7, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland, and COMAR 26.27.01.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Administrative law judge” has the meaning stated under COMAR 28.02.01.02B(1).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Civil penalty” means a statutorily authorized monetary penalty imposed for a violation of a statute or regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Facility.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Facility” means a location in the State in which a hazardous material is stored, dispensed, used, or handled.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Facility” does not include:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A railroad, rail train, or rail car regulated under 49 U.S.C. Subtitle IV, Part A; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A retail distributor whose principal business is to sell or offer for sale, at the retail level, commercial fertilizer intended for agricultural use.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Hearing” means a contested case hearing, as defined by the Administrative Procedure Act, State Government Article, §§10-201—10-227, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Person” means a person who owns, operates, maintains, or causes to operate or maintain a facility in this State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Referring Agency” means the Department of the Environment.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“State” means the State of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Written Referral for Enforcement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the Referring Agency, through an audit, inspection, or investigation, determines that a facility is not in compliance with the Hazardous Material Security Act, Environment Article, Title 7, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland, or COMAR 26.27.01, the Referring Agency shall refer each violation to the Department for enforcement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Referring Agency’s written referral shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Include the name, address, and telephone number of the authorized representative from the Referring Agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be signed by an authorized representative of the Referring Agency and dated;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Contain the following identification on the facility:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Full name and address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Name of owner or operator, or both; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Advise the Department of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Specific violations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Brief statement of facts; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Statement of the law upon which a violation is based.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notice of Violation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of the Referring Agency’s written referral, the Secretary shall give notice of the violation and civil penalty assessed against a facility to a person by any method allowed for service of a summons under the Maryland Rules.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The notice of violation shall contain:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Factual description of each violation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Civil penalty imposed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Statement of law or regulation on which each violation is based; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Appeal procedures.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Records deemed confidential by law shall be handled as confidential.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Enforcement and Penalty."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In addition to any other remedies available by law or in equity, the Department may impose a civil penalty against a person who violates the Hazardous Material Security Act, Title 7, Subtitle 7 of the Annotated Code of Maryland, or COMAR 26.27.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The civil penalty may not exceed $1,000 per violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Each day a violation occurs is a separate offense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A civil penalty imposed is payable to the Maryland Community Right-to-Know Fund under COMAR 26.26.01 and collected in a manner provided at law for the collection of debts.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Department may refer debts to the Central Collection Unit of the Department of Budget and Management in accordance with State Finance and Procurement Article, Title 3, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If a person who is liable to pay a penalty fails to pay after a demand for penalty is made by the Department, the amount, together with any interest and any costs that may accrue, shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A lien in favor of the State on a property, real or personal, of the person; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Recorded in the office of the clerk of court for the county where the property is located.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Appeal Process and Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>After receiving written notice from the Department of the violation and penalty assessed against the facility, a person may submit a written appeal to the Secretary within 30 calendar days from receipt of the written notice of violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a person fails to submit a written appeal to the Department within 30 calendar days of receipt of the written notice of violation, the person is deemed to have waived all rights to an appeal and the proposed action and assessed civil penalty shall both become final.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the person timely submits a written appeal to the Secretary, the Secretary will transfer the written appeal to the Office of Administrative Hearings for a hearing in accordance with the Department’s administrative hearing regulations under COMAR 29.01.01.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A hearing before an Administrative Law Judge of the Office of Administrative Hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Administrative Procedure Act, State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Department’s administrative hearing regulations under COMAR 29.01.01.01;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Rules of Procedure of the Office of Administrative Hearings under COMAR 28.02.01; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>This chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Environment Article, §§7-701—7-709, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 3, 2014 (41:4 Md. R. 306)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Petition for Declaratory Ruling"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Declaratory ruling” means a ruling made by a promulgating authority with respect to the manner in which the promulgating authority would apply a regulation or order of the promulgating authority, or a statute that the promulgating authority enforces, to a person or a property based on a given set of facts.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Person” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An individual, receiver, trustee, guardian, personal representative, fiduciary, or representative of any kind;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A partnership, firm, association, corporation, or other entity; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A political subdivision of the State or an instrumentality of a political subdivision.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Promulgating authority” means the promulgating authority’s designee or an officer or unit of the Department that is authorized by law to adopt regulations subject to State Government Article, §§10-101—10-139, Annotated Code of Maryland, or adjudicate contested cases subject to State Government Article, §§10-201—10-207, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Who May File."> <text>Any interested person may file a petition for a declaratory ruling with respect to the applicability to any person, property, or state of facts of any regulation promulgated by any unit of the Department, of an order of a unit of the Department, or of any statute enforceable by any unit.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Where to File."> <text>A petition with respect to the applicability of any regulation, order, or statute enforceable by any unit of the Department shall be filed with the Secretary of the Department of State Police for consideration and disposition.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Petition Format."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A petition for Declaratory Ruling shall be filed in writing and clearly marked to indicate that it is being filed pursuant to this regulation. It shall describe in detail:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The interest of the petitioner in making the request;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The issues involved;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A statement of the facts;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A list of documents or statements the petitioner believes should be considered; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A sworn statement by the petitioner that the facts contained in the petition are true to the best of the person’s knowledge and belief.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A petition for Declaratory Ruling shall include the petitioner’s:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Address;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Telephone number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>E-mail address; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Facsimile number, if available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Consideration and Disposition."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall consider the petition and may, at his discretion, issue the declaratory ruling requested. The Secretary may require argument on the petition. Any declaratory ruling issued shall plainly state that it is a declaratory ruling pursuant to this regulation. A written answer from the Secretary or any employee of the Department to an inquiry may not be construed to be a declaratory ruling unless made in conformity with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As to the petitioner, a declaratory ruling shall be binding upon the Secretary as to any transaction covered thereby, entered into before the date of the declaratory ruling, and any transaction entered into in reliance upon the declaratory ruling unless, after the issuance of the declaratory ruling and before any affected transaction, a change in the legal basis of the declaratory ruling is made by statute, regulation, or judicial decision. With prospective effect only, a declaratory ruling may be revoked, altered, or amended by the Secretary, at any time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary may publish declaratory rulings of general interest, subject to protection of the identity of the petitioner and any confidential information contained in the petition for declaratory ruling.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">State Government Article, §§10-301—10-305, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 27, 2015 (42:8 Md.R. 608)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="02" heading="Motor Vehicles"> <chapter num="01" heading="Vehicle Inspection"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Certification of Safety Equipment Repair Orders."> <text>Visual Inspection and Certification of Safety Equipment Repair Orders. In accordance with Transportation Article, §23-105, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division of the Department of State Police has established the following procedures for visual inspection and certification of certain equipment and mechanism defects on certain types of State-registered motor vehicles or trailers by the State Police and police departments.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Defects Which May Be Certified by Visual Inspection."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following guidelines have been established to provide the owner of any vehicle with a means of having certified by police departments, instead of an authorized inspection station, safety equipment repair orders which contain only the defects or combination of defects listed below:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>54—Windshield wipers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>55—Headlights, but not for aim;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>56—Taillights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>57—Horn;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>60—Bumper(s)/rear protector frames;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>61—Glass;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>62—Load cover;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>64—Stoplights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>65—Tag light(s);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>66—Dash lights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>68—Rearview mirrors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>69—Door latch/handle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>70—Fuel system, cap only;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>71—Turn signals;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>73—Hood/catch(es);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>76—Fender(s) flaps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>78—Hazard warning lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>79—Parking lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>80—Side marker lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>82—Emergency warning lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>83—Back-up lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>84—Reflectors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>86—Low air warning device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>87—Clearance lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>88—Identification lamps.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division of the State Police will certify visual defects on commercial vehicles over 10,000 pounds GVW only during operational hours at scale houses.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Certification of Post-Manufacture Window Tinting.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as noted in §C(2) of this regulation, the Department of State Police will no longer certify post-manufacture window tinting. The certification of post-manufacture window tinting shall only be done at authorized inspection stations for that class of vehicle by a registered inspection mechanic.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inspection and certification of post-manufacture window tinting involving a medical exemption shall be referred to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division of the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="State Police Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Visual inspection and certification of the defects shall be conducted at all State Police installations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Due to limited parking and traffic conditions, Barrack M, JFK Highway, is excluded from these procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Other Police Department Certification."> <text>Visual inspection and certification of the defects will be conducted by all local police departments desiring to participate in the program.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Defects Other Than Those Listed."> <text>If a repair order contains any of the defects listed above and any other defect, the vehicle owner or agent shall be advised that certification shall be performed by an authorized inspection station for that class of vehicle.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Inspection and Certification Procedures."> <text>All the inspections and certifications shall be performed at the installation and as follows:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>State Police Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Certification shall be performed by adequately trained State Police personnel. If any ASED police personnel are at an installation, they will conduct, upon request, the inspections and certifications.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All certifications shall be conducted only during daylight hours. Certifications may not be conducted during inclement weather.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Upon determining that the equipment or mechanism has been repaired and is in compliance with established safety standards, the certification portion of the repair order will be completed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The signature of the member certifying the repair orders will be entered in the space for the signature of the registered mechanic or police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date of inspection will be the date of the actual certification and physical inspection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The name of the inspection station will be Department of State Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The station number or agency code will be the location designator assigned to the installation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The address of the inspection station will be the installation name.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>After certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The No. 3 (inspection station/police department) copy will be retained by the installation and routinely forwarded to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The No. 4 (owner/agent) copy will be returned to the vehicle owner or agent for his records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The No. 5 (State Police Compliance) copy will be returned to the vehicle owner or agent to be forwarded to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Local Police Department Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Certification should be performed by adequately trained personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At the discretion of the Department, any internal reporting procedures may be followed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All certifications shall be conducted only during daylight hours. Certifications may not be conducted during inclement weather.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Upon determining whether the equipment or mechanism has been repaired and is in compliance with safety standards, the certification portion of the repair order will be completed as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The signature of the member certifying the repair orders will be entered in the space for the signature of the registered mechanic or police officer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The date of inspection will be the date of the actual certification and physical inspection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The name of the inspection station will be the name of the police department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The station number or agency code will be the location designator assigned to the department;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The address of the inspection station will be the address of the installation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>After certification:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The No. 3 (inspection station/police department) copy will be retained by the installation and routinely forwarded to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The No. 4 (owner/agent) copy will be returned to the vehicle owner or agent for his records;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The No. 5 (State Police Compliance) copy will be returned to the vehicle owner or agent to be forwarded to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Defect 54—Windshield Wipers (Not Applicable to Motorcycles or Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The windshield wipers shall be inspected for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Control;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Condition of blades and arms; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any missing part.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The wipers are inoperative or cannot be controlled or operated by the driver;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>There is an arm broken or missing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>There is insufficient tension on the arm to hold the blade against windshield;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The blades are excessively worn or deteriorated and do not clean the windshield;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The wipers are incapable of cleaning the original arc on the windshield; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The arms fail to return to park position.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Defects."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Defects:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>55—Headlights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>56—Taillights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>64—Stoplights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>65—Tag light(s);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>78—Hazard warning lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>79—Parking lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>80—Side marker lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>82—Emergency warning lamp;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>83—Back-up lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>87—Clearance lamps;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>88—Identification lamps.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Lamps shall be of an approved type and inspected for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Proper function;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Aiming—except headlights;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Mounting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Cracked or broken lenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Vehicle is not equipped with minimum lamps required by State law (see Regulation .22, Diagrams 1—6);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Any bulb in a lamp required to be inspected fails to function properly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>There are improperly connected circuits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A lens is incorrectly installed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A lens is cracked, broken, or damaged to the point that any portion of the lens is missing or cracked to a degree that a light contrary to law is exhibited (white light to the rear);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A lens marked left or right is not properly installed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A lens is rotated, upside down or wrong side out;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Any lens does not correspond with the name stamped on the light body unless it is an approved type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>A lens is obscured or shielded by a nontransparent material or headlamp equipped with after-market clear, tinted, or screen-type cover;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Any lamp is not securely attached to the vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Any lamp is emitting a color contrary to the provisions of the Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland (taillights shall be red, stoplights shall be red or amber, tag lights shall be white);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Any lamp or lens is turned so that its light is not properly directed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Any lamp, lens, or reflector is not of an approved type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Back-up lamp operates when vehicle is in forward gear; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Back-up lamp not lit when in reverse gear.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The use of tape or paint is not an approved method of repair for a cracked, broken, or damaged lens referenced in §C(5) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Defect 57—Horn (Not Applicable to Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The horn shall be inspected for mounting and sound and have a means of sounding which is readily accessible to the operator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if the horn:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is loose;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fails to function;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Produces a loud or harsh sound;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is not equipped with an actuating device within arm's reach of the operator.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Defect 60—Bumpers, Rear Protector Frame (Not Applicable to Motorcycles)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Bumpers shall be inspected for broken or missing parts, abnormal protrusions, and sharp edges or conditions that could be hazardous to persons.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The bumpers shall be securely mounted to the vehicle and shall be capable of absorbing a reasonable degree of impact.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Bumpers shall be the original equipment or equivalent to it and extend to the extreme sides of the vehicle.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Bumper extensions or modifications to compensate for suspension changes are not acceptable on:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Class A passenger vehicles;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Class M multipurpose vehicles;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Mandatory front bumpers of class E 1/2 and 3/4 ton trucks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Rear bumpers of class E 1/2 and 3/4 ton trucks, even though rear bumpers are not required on this type of truck.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Each truck with a gross vehicle weight registered over 10,000 pounds, except truck tractors and vehicles engaged in drive-away/tow-away operations, and every trailer or semitrailer with a gross weight of 3,000 pounds or more to be operated upon a highway shall be equipped with a permanent metal frame or bumper attached to the underside of the rear of the vehicle. The bumper or rear protector frame may not be any wider than the width of the vehicle. It may not be more than 30 inches above the highway when moving, and shall be constructed of heavy gauge steel. The maximum transverse distance from the widest part of the vehicle at the rear to the frame or bumper may not exceed 18 inches. The frame shall be constructed so as not to interfere with lights or other warning devices.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Any truck, trailer, or semitrailer so constructed and maintained that the body, chassis, or other parts of it afford the protection required by this regulation shall be considered to be in compliance with this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The provisions of this regulation may not apply to truck tractors, pole trailers, vehicles engaged in drive-away/tow-away operations, or to vehicles where the installation of the required frame would prevent operation of the vehicle in its designed use.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The bumpers are broken or missing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>There are abnormal protrusions or conditions which could be hazardous to persons;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The bumpers are not mounted securely or capable of absorbing a reasonable degree of impact;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The bumpers are not the original equipment or equivalent, or do not extend the full width of the vehicle except that front bumpers on vehicles over 10,000 pounds gross vehicle weight registered, except school vehicles, need not extend to extreme sides of the vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The bumpers are modified or extended to compensate for suspension changes or modifications (applicable to class A passenger, class M multipurpose, and class E 1/2 and 3/4 ton trucks);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The bumpers or the vehicle frame side rail are higher from the ground than 20 inches for class A passenger vehicles;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The bumpers or the vehicle frame side rail are higher from the ground than 28 inches for class E 1/2 and 3/4 ton trucks and class M vehicles (if class E 1/2 or 3/4 ton trucks do not have a rear bumper then the bottom of the frame side rails may not be higher from the ground than 28 inches);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Trailers or semitrailers are not equipped with a rear protector frame as required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>The bumper, rear protector frame, or the vehicle frame side rail is higher from the ground than 30 inches for trucks and multipurpose passenger vehicles with a gross vehicle weight registered over 10,000 pounds and trailers and semitrailers with a gross weight of 3,000 pounds or more; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>On a truck used for spraying agriculture crops, the bumper, rear protector frame, or the vehicle frame side rail is higher from the ground than 32 inches.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Defect 61—Glass (Not Applicable to Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Vehicle Glazing — Windshield, Side and Rear Windows.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All glazing material shall be checked for the manufacturer's trademark and the words “American Standard” or the letters “AS” followed by a number indicating the positions in the vehicle in which the material may be used. Reference American National Standard for Safety Glazing Materials for Glazing Motor Vehicles and Motor Vehicle Equipment Operating on Land Highways — Safety Standard, Standard ANSI/SAE Z26.1-1996, Approved by American National Standards Institute (August 11, 1997).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All glass used in the windshield shall be marked AS-1, in addition to the trademark or name of the manufacturer. AS-2 glass may be used in any other position on the vehicle other than the windshield. In some earlier models or foreign cars, the windshield marking does not contain the designation AS-1. However, if the windshield glass is approved by the U.S. D.O.T. for highway use, it shall be acceptable under these standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any questions regarding glazing shall be referred to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division of the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Definitions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Acute area” means that windshield area 8 inches wide by 5 inches high located directly in front of the driver, centered vertically on the steering wheel of the vehicle and horizontally in the center of the critical area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Cloudiness” means any degree of visible discoloration or separation, except tinting that does not affect clear vision.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Critical area” means the normal windshield wiper sweep, except the area obscured by the hood, fenders, or rearview mirror.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Discoloration” means a condition which impairs the transparency of the glazing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Noncritical area” means all windshield area outside the critical area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Normal windshield wiper sweep” means the area of the windshield cleaned by the windshield wiper, excluding the return position on both passenger’s and driver’s sides.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Windshield — Driver's Side. Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cloudiness exceeds 1 inch from the top or side or 1 inch into the critical area from the bottom or, if the windshield is divided, exceeds 1/2 inch from the center divider;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The acute area contains any one crack, nick, pit, chip, star break, half moon, or bull's-eye fracture in excess of 1/4 inch in diameter or length, or any combination of individual cracks, nicks, pits, chips, star breaks, half moons, or bull's-eye fractures which cumulatively exceed 1/4 inch in diameter or length, or any permanent condition which significantly interferes with the driver's vision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The critical area contains wiper blade scratches which are severe enough to distort vision, or any one crack, nick, pit, chip, star break, half moon, or bull's-eye fracture in excess of 1/2 inch in diameter or length, or any combination of individual cracks, nicks, pits, chips, star breaks, half moons, or bull's-eye fractures which cumulatively exceed 1/2 inch in diameter or length, or any permanent condition which significantly interferes with the driver's vision except in the permitted cloudy area; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The noncritical area contains any intersecting cracks or any one crack or combination of individual cracks extending inward more than 2 inches separately or cumulatively from the outer frame on flat or curved windshields or over 4 inches on wraparound windshields, or any one crack, nick, pit, chip, star break, half moon, or bull's-eye fracture in excess of 3/4 inch in diameter or length, or any combination of individual cracks, nicks, pits, chips, star breaks, half moons, or bull's-eye fractures which cumulatively exceed 3/4 inch in diameter or length, or any permanent condition which significantly interferes with the driver's vision except in the permitted cloudy area.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Windshield — Passenger's Side. Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Cloudiness exceeds 2 inches from the top or side or extends more than 2 inches into the critical area from the bottom or, if the windshield is divided, exceeds 1/2 inch from the center divider;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The critical area contains wiper blade scratches which are severe enough to distort vision, or any one crack, nick, pit, chip, star break, half moon, or bull's-eye fracture in excess of 1/2 inch in diameter or length, or any combination of individual cracks, nicks, pits, chips, star breaks, half moons, or bull's-eye fractures which cumulatively exceed 1/2 inch in diameter or length, or any permanent condition which significantly interferes with the driver's vision except in the permitted cloudy area;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The noncritical area contains any intersecting cracks or any one crack or combination of individual cracks extending inward more than 4 inches separately or cumulatively from the outer frame on flat or curved windshields or over 6 inches on wraparound windshields, or any one crack, nick, pit, chip, star break, half moon, or bull's-eye fracture in excess of 1-1/2 inches in diameter or length, or any combination of individual cracks, nicks, pits, chips, star breaks, half moons, or bull's-eye fractures which cumulatively exceed 1-1/2 inches in diameter or length, or any permanent condition which significantly interferes with the driver's vision except in the permitted cloudy area.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The windshield and all windows shall be inspected for cracks, sharp edges, obstructions, discoloration, modification, unauthorized material, proper glazing material, and conditions which interfere with vision. Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>There are breaks, cracks, discolorations, modifications, or scratches in the windshield (see Regulation .22, diagram 7);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The window on the driver's side of the vehicle does not open and close as designed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any window shows sharp edges, is badly scratched, broken, discolored, modified, has been replaced with other than proper safety glazing material, or shows conditions which interfere with vision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Posters, stickers, or other nontransparent materials on the windshield or other windows of the vehicle are in violation of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Except as provided in §E(4)(b) of this regulation, a vehicle may not be equipped with any sign, poster, card, sticker, or other nontransparent material on the windshield, side wings, or side or rear windows of the vehicle.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>This does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Materials placed on the windshield or rear window, within a 7-inch square area in the lower corner, or on the side windows of the vehicle to the rear of the driver, if the materials are placed so as not to interfere with the driver’s clear view of traffic;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Direction, destination, or termini signs on any passenger common carrier motor vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>An electronic toll collection device placed in the windshield of a vehicle in accordance with guidelines established by the Maryland Transportation Authority; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Security stickers authorized by a federal or State government agency that measure not more than 2 inches high and not more than 4 inches long, and are placed at the upper edge of the center of the windshield;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>All vehicles equipped with permitted signs, posters, cards, stickers or other nontransparent materials on windows to the rear of the driver must be equipped with an outside rearview mirror on each side; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The vehicle is designed to obstruct visibility and is not equipped with an outside rearview mirror on both sides.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Tinting.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as noted in §F(2) of this regulation, the certification of post-manufacture window tinting shall only be performed at authorized inspection stations for that class of vehicle by a registered inspection mechanic.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The inspection and certification of post-manufacture window tinting involving a medical exemption shall be referred to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division of the Department of State Police. Regulations governing the application of post-manufacture window tinting on vehicles and the requirements for a medical exemption are listed in §F(3)—(7) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Post-manufacture window tint is acceptable on the following vehicles in the listed locations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Passenger cars, convertibles, and station wagons:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>All side and rear windows of these vehicles are regulated windows requiring at least 35 percent light transmittance after the application of post-manufacture window tint and the vehicle is equipped with an outside rearview mirror on each side.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Post-manufacture window tint may not be applied to the windshield below the AS1 line or below 5 inches from the top of the windshield, whichever is less.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Light trucks, vans, and multipurpose passenger vehicles except multipurpose passenger vehicles noted in §F(4) of this regulation:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>All side windows of these vehicles to the immediate right and left of the driver are regulated windows requiring at least 35 percent light transmittance after the application of post-manufacture window tint.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Post-manufacture window tint may not be applied to the windshield below the AS1 line or below 5 inches from the top of the windshield, whichever is less.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Windows of these vehicles to the rear of the driver may be tinted with post-manufacture window tint to any degree of darkness.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>When equipped with permitted post-manufacture window tint on any side or rear window, the vehicle must be equipped with an outside rearview mirror on each side.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Post-manufacture window tint is prohibited on the following vehicles in the listed locations:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The application of post-manufacture window tint to the windshield or windows to the immediate right and left of the driver is prohibited on the following vehicles:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Trucks over 10,000 pounds GVWR, truck tractors, and buses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Multipurpose passenger vehicles which have a seating capacity for 16 or more passengers including the driver, or were previously registered as a school vehicle or a passenger bus, and used to primarily transport passengers, or exceed 10,000 pounds GVWR and are used in the furtherance of a commercial enterprise; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Limousines.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Windows of these vehicles to the rear of the driver may be tinted with post-manufacture window tint to any degree of darkness provided the vehicle is equipped with an outside rearview mirror on each side.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The application of post-manufacture window tint is prohibited on all windows and the windshield of a school vehicle.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The following post-manufacture window tint is prohibited on any window or windshield of any vehicle:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A mirrored, one-way vision, or sparkling effect tint;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A red, yellow, or amber color tint; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Changes to a red, yellow, or amber color tint.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Medical Exemption. Transportation Article, §22-406, Annotated Code of Maryland, provides an exemption for a person who must be protected from the sun for medical reasons from having a light transmittance of at least 35 percent on regulated windows equipped with post-manufacture window tint. The law requires the owner to have, in the vehicle at the time the vehicle is stopped by a police officer, a written certification that details the owner’s medical need for tinted windows, from a physician licensed to practice medicine in the State. A vehicle owner whose vehicle is undergoing an inspection, or has been issued a safety equipment repair order for defect #61 “TINT”, and indicates to the authorized inspection station their compliance with a medical exemption, shall be referred to the Automotive Safety Enforcement Division of the Department of State Police for examination of the vehicle owner’s medical documentation and the vehicle’s post-manufacture window tint. If the owner meets the requirements specified in Transportation Article, §22-406, Annotated Code of Maryland, for the medical exemption and the vehicle is compliant with all post-manufacture window tinting regulations in this chapter, excluding the light transmittance requirement of regulated windows equipped with post-manufacture window tint, the Division shall be authorized to certify the safety equipment repair order for defect #61 “TINT”. A medical exemption is not applicable to vehicles listed in §F(4) and (5) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Defect 62—Load Cover."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Covers shall be inspected for presence, size, condition, and proper mounting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Securement hardware shall be inspected for presence and condition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Do not certify if the cover:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is missing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Does not fully cover the top of the vehicle bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Contains a hole, rip, tear, or broken mesh which would permit any part of the load to blow, fall, or spill from the bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is not securely attached to the bed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Do not certify the load cover if the securement hardware is missing, broken, or damaged.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Defect 66—Dash Lights (Not Applicable to Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Dash lights shall be of an approved type and inspected for proper function and illumination of operational instruments.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Any bulb in a lamp required to be inspected fails to function properly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>There are improperly connected circuits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The instrument panel is not lighted sufficiently to permit the operator to view the operational instruments of the vehicle.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Defect 68 — Rearview Mirror (Not Applicable to Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Mirrors shall be inspected for mounting and providing proper view to the rear.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if the inside mirror:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is loosely mounted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Does not provide a clear view of the highway at least 200 feet to the rear;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is cracked, broken, has sharp edges, or is clouded to the extent that rear vision is obscured;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is very difficult to adjust or will not maintain a set adjustment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Do not certify if the outside mirror:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is loose enough that rear vision is impaired;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is obscured by the windshield pillar;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is cracked, pitted, or clouded to the extent that rear vision is obscured.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Do not certify a motorcycle if it is not equipped with two rearview mirrors, one on left and one on right handlebar, with a reflective area of at least 7 square inches each. Mirrors on 1978 or newer motorcycles with a plane surface shall have at least 12.5 square inches of reflective surface or, if convex, at least 10 square inches of reflective surface. The mirrors shall be securely mounted, regular in shape (circular, oval, rectangular, or square) and may not contain sharp edges, projections, or irregular indents capable of producing injury.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Defect 69—Door Latch and Door Handle (Not Applicable to Motorcycles or Trailers)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A door latch and door handle shall be inspected for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Operation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ability to work freely and cleared of obstruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ability to hold the door tightly closed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Electric push button or ring and cable means of opening the door are acceptable provided they are readily accessible.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The door handles are missing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The latches are inoperative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The door has broken hinges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The doors are wired or held closed by any means not equivalent to the original design.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Defect 70—Fuel System (Applicable to Fuel Tank Cap Only)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The fuel tank cap shall be inspected for proper fit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fuel tank cap is not a proper fit; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fuel tank cap is missing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Defect 71—Turn Signals."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Directional signals shall be of an approved type and inspected for functioning, mounting, color, and positioning. This includes motorcycles if equipped with signals. Motorcycles manufactured after January 1973 shall be equipped with turn signals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The lamp is not an approved type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The lamp is not in an approved position (see Regulation .22, diagrams 1—6):</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The lamp is not functioning properly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The lamp is not properly directed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The lamp is not clearly visible;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The lamp has a cracked or broken lens;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The operating system is not of an approved type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The operating system is not functioning properly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>A self-cancelling mechanism does not function properly;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A 1962 or newer model is not equipped with approved turn signals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Defect 73—Hood and Hood Catches (Not Applicable to Trailers and Motorcycles)."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Hood and hood catches shall be inspected for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Coverage of engine compartment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Attachment to the vehicle;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Height of air scoop;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Type of latch and keeper; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Operating condition of same.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hood does not cover at least the top of the engine compartment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The hood is attached by a means other than the original design or equivalent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The air scoop or bubble is higher than 1/3 the vertical height of the windshield (see Regulation .22, diagram 8);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The hood latch or keeper is not original equipment or equivalent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The hood is not equipped with a safety latch;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The latch or keeper is not in proper operating condition;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The latch fails to hold the hood securely closed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An acceptable hood latch or keeper is a stud and safety pin type that requires pressure to be applied to remove the pin.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Defect 76—Fenders and Flaps."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fenders shall be securely attached to the vehicle and inspected for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Tears;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sharp or jagged edges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Sufficient coverage of the wheel and tire, both from the body outward and to the front and rear of tires and wheels.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Buses or commercial motor vehicles, including semitrailers and trailers, shall be equipped with suitable metal protectors or substantial flexible flaps behind the rear-most wheels of the vehicle or combination to prevent the projection of rocks, dirt, water, or other substances to the rear and to minimize side spray.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This regulation may not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Any farm tractor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Any vehicle registered as a farm truck;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Uncoupled truck tractors;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Pole trailers; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Other vehicles where the construction is such that complete freedom around the wheel area is necessary to secure the designed use of the vehicle (see Regulation .22, diagrams 9—11).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Do not certify if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The fender has tears, sharp or jagged edges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The fender is not securely fastened to the body;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The fender does not extend outward from the body to cover the top of the wheel and tire;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The rear of all fenders does not extend downward to the horizontal centerline of the wheel (extreme bottom edge of fender or rear quarter panel);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The front of all fenders does not extend forward to at least within a 45-degree angle of the horizontal centerline;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Fenders have been extended downward to compensate for suspension modifications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A motorcycle rear fender is improperly mounted or missing (front fender is not required);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A commercial vehicle or trailer is not equipped with flaps as required.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Fenders may be extended outward to compensate for tire or wheel changes provided the extension:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provides required coverage of wheels and tires;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is constructed of substantial materials;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is securely attached to the fenders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has all edges rolled to eliminate sharp or jagged edges.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Defect 84—Reflectors."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Every motor vehicle, trailer, and semitrailer shall be equipped on the rear with two or more red reflectors in addition to, or as a part of, the tail lamps. However, motorcycles need only be equipped with one reflector. Buses and trucks, trailers, and semitrailers 80 inches or more in overall width shall also be equipped on each side with two reflectors: one amber at or near the front, and one red at or near the rear. Motor vehicles, trailers, semitrailers, and pole trailers 30 feet or more in overall length shall be equipped on each side with one amber reflector centrally located with respect to the length of the vehicle. Pole trailers shall be equipped with one amber reflector at or near the front of the load.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Do not certify if the reflector is missing, broken, or obscured from view.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".21" heading="Defect 86—Low Air Warning Device."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This regulation is applicable to all vehicles equipped with an air braking system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The warning device, or devices, shall signal low air pressure in the braking system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Do not certify if a warning device fails to function when air pressure falls below 60 psi.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".22" heading="Diagrams."> <text>See Diagram 1</text> <text>See Diagram 2</text> <text>See Diagram 3</text> <text>See Diagram 4</text> <text>See Diagram 5</text> <text>See Diagram 6</text> <text>See Diagram 7</text> <text>See Diagram 8</text> <text>See Diagram 9</text> <text>See Diagram 10</text> <text>See Diagram 11</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Transportation Article, §23-105, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 759)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08A and B amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10E, F, G, and H amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11A and E amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .18 amended effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 adopted effective October 3, 1988 (15:20 Md. R. 2334)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective October 25, 1993 (20:21 MD. R. 1655)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.01 to 29.02.01, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective February 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C adopted effective August 28, 1995 (22:17 Md. R. 1322)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1526); February 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective August 28, 1995 (22:17 Md. R. 1322)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10H amended effective August 28, 1995 (22:17 Md. R. 1322)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 amended effective February 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11C, F amended effective August 28, 1995 (22:17 Md. R. 1322)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14D amended effective February 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Motor Vehicle Accident Reports"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Copies of Police Investigated Accident Reports."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with the provisions of Public Safety Article, §2-308, Annotated Code of Maryland, the following procedures will prevail concerning the conditions under which reports of specific motor vehicle accidents may be made available upon request to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>To allow a reasonable time for reports from the field to be received and processed by the Central Records Division, requests for copies of the reports will not be considered until at least 20 days after the date of the accident. Requests received before this time interval may be returned to the sender.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Copies of State Police investigated accident reports may be obtained either through the Central Records Division or reviewed at the installation in the area of the occurrence. To allow a reasonable time for reports to be received and processed, requests for review of the reports at the installation in the area of the occurrence will not be considered until at least 5 days after the date of the accident. Requests received before this time interval will be denied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Requests for copies of accident reports shall be accompanied by a self-addressed stamped envelope along with a nonrefundable check or money order in the amount of $4 for conducting each document search being requested, payable to the Maryland State Police. Any check or money order received by the Maryland State Police that is not for the exact amount of the transaction, or a check or money order that is made payable to an agency other than the Maryland State Police will be returned.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The following information shall be furnished on all requests:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Exact date of the accident;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Driver's name (exact spelling);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a fatal accident, deceased's name (exact spelling);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Pedestrian or bicyclist's name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>County;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Route number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Date of accident and MAARS report number, if known.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §2-308, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 759)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B—E amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01C—E amended effective December 6, 1993 (20:24 Md. R. 1865)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.02 to 29.02.02, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01D amended effective February 8, 1999 (26:3 Md. R. 176)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Law Enforcement Weighing of Vehicles."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Application. This regulation governs the method for obtaining various weights of vehicles, as required by the Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, and as accomplished by law enforcement officers in the State, when using wheel load weighers, axle-load scales, and vehicle scales.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Definitions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Axle-load scale” means a scale, permanently installed in a fixed location, having a load-receiving element specially adapted to determining the combined weight of all wheels of a vehicle on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A single axle; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A group of consecutive axles.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Law enforcement weighing” means the weighing of vehicles to determine compliance with those weights allowed in Transportation Article, Titles 13 and 24, Annotated Code of Maryland, and by permits issued by the State Highway Administration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Vehicle scale” means a scale adapted to weighing vehicles and possessing a platform or platforms on which all wheels of the vehicle may rest simultaneously.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Weight enforcement officer” means a member of the State Police, or other law enforcement agency, who has been certified by the Secretary of State Police to weigh vehicles for enforcement purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Wheel load weigher” means a compact, self-contained, portable weighing device specially adapted to determine the wheel loads or axle loads of vehicles for the enforcement of weight laws.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Tolerance. Police officers involved in law enforcement weighing shall apply the maximum applicable weight tolerance authorized by the Transportation Article.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Use of Axle-Load Scales.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approaches to axle-load scales shall be straight, level, and in the same plane with the load-receiving elements of the scale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Approaches at each end of the scale shall be of sufficient length to ensure the level positioning of vehicles during weight determinations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>After positioning an axle or group of consecutive axles of a vehicle on an axle-load scale, the brakes of the vehicle shall be released and reapplied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A weight reading may not be taken until the weight indicator is stable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Use of Vehicle Scales.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Approaches shall be straight, level, and in the same plane with the load-receiving elements of the scale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Approaches at each end of the scale shall be of sufficient length to ensure the level positioning of vehicles during weight determinations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>After the vehicle has been positioned, the brakes of the vehicle shall be released and reapplied. If the vehicle configuration requires a repositioning, the brakes shall be released and reapplied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A weight reading may not be taken until the weight indicator is stable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Use of Wheel Load Weighers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The weighing location shall be reasonably level. The roadway cross section may not exceed a 5 percent grade.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Wheel load weighers shall be employed on surfaces of sufficient firmness to prevent shifting of the scales.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All axles shall be weighed on the same plane. Groups of consecutive axles less than 12 feet apart shall be weighed simultaneously.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Wheel load weighers shall be employed in multiples of two. An entire axle shall be weighed at the same time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Before each weighing the weight indicator shall be positioned on zero.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The wheels of the vehicle shall be driven straight upon each wheel load weigher and placed within the active weighing area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>After positioning the vehicle on the wheel load weighers, the brakes of the vehicle shall be released and reapplied.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If the weight indicator falls between graduations, it shall be rounded to the lower graduation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Shifting Loads. The tolerance for loads that may shift is stated in Transportation Article, Title 24, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Directing Vehicle to Scales.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When it is not possible or feasible to weigh a vehicle by any of the methods described in this regulation, a law enforcement officer may require the operator of a vehicle to travel to the nearest appropriate private or State-owned scale, which complies with the standards of §K(5), (6), and (7) of this regulation for the purpose of weighing the vehicle. This includes, but is not limited to, vehicles operating on a State Highway Administration permit and vehicles using routes which bypass a scale location.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Normally, a distance of approximately 10 miles may be considered reasonable for requiring an operator or a vehicle to proceed to a scale for weighing. Ten miles is not to be considered an absolute distance, since unusual circumstances may require travel in excess of 10 miles.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Time Limits to Furnish Weighing Equipment.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If a police officer has reason to believe that a vehicle is overweight, he may require the operator to wait for an enforcement officer capable of doing law enforcement weighing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Under normal circumstances the operator will not be required to wait for more than 1 hour if the weight enforcement officer is on duty or more than 2 hours if the weight enforcement officer is off duty.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the police officer has reason to believe that the suspected overweight meets the off-loading requirements of Transportation Article, Title 24, Annotated Code of Maryland, the operator may be required to wait for a longer time than in §I(2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Prerogative of Operator. The operator of a vehicle may elect to have the vehicle weighed on a vehicle scale instead of the vehicle being weighed on wheel load weighers. The scale used shall be the nearest appropriate scale that meets the standards established in §K(5), (6), and (7) of this regulation. The cost of weighing on private scales may be borne by the requesting operator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Acceptability and Testing of Weighing Devices.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The specifications and tolerances for weighing devices used by law enforcement personnel shall be those for commercial and law enforcement devices as adopted by the National Conference on Weights and Measures, and included in the National Institute of Standards and Technology Handbook 44 except as it applies to the maintenance tolerances for wheel load weighers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The maintenance tolerance for wheel load weighers shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>0 to 9,999 pounds, plus or minus 2 percent of the known test load;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>10,000 pounds and above, plus or minus 1 percent of the known test load.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All weighing devices used in weight enforcement activities shall be periodically tested by one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Maryland Department of Agriculture, Weights and Measures Section;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Personnel of the State Police that have been certified by the Maryland Department of Agriculture, Weights and Measures Section.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The values of all weights or precision force measuring equipment used to determine the performance of weighing devices shall be certified periodically by comparison with Maryland State standards which are traceable to the National Standards or by comparison with the National Standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Wheel load weighers used by weight enforcement officers shall be certified semiannually by the State Police, or more frequently if considered necessary by the Secretary, to ensure the accuracy of the scales.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Axle-load and vehicle scales used by weight enforcement officers shall be certified semiannually by the Maryland Department of Agriculture, Weights and Measures Section.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Privately owned scales used for enforcement purposes shall be certified by the Maryland Department of Agriculture, Weights and Measures Section, within 6 months of the enforcement weighing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Certification of Weight Enforcement Officers, Equipment, and Methods.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Enforcement weighing done by weight enforcement officers shall use methods approved by the Secretary of State Police. Copies of these methods can be obtained from the Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Weighing done by weight enforcement officers shall use equipment that meets the certification requirements in §K(5), (6), and (7) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Weight enforcement officers shall meet the training requirements of, and be certified by, the Secretary of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>All weight enforcement officers shall use forms provided by the Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division. Completed forms will be forwarded to the Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division which shall be the central repository for weight violations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Commercial Vehicle Enforcement Division shall be responsible for monitoring procedures and equipment used by weight enforcement officers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Transportation Article, §24-111, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective May 15, 1981 (8:10 Md. R. 877)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03J amended effective February 4, 1991 (18:2 Md. R. 151)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective July 8, 1991 (18:13 Md. R. 1484)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.06 to 29.02.03, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01K amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1526)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Diesel Vehicle Emissions Control Program"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="General."> <text>The regulations found in COMAR 11.21.02 have been jointly adopted by the Department of State Police, the Department of the Environment, and the Department of Transportation, and will not be duplicated in Title 29. These regulations should be cited under COMAR 11.21.02.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Transportation Article, §§23-401—23-404, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 10, 2000 (27:13 Md. R. 1212)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="03" heading="Weapons Regulations"> <chapter num="01" heading="Regulated Firearms"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Adjudicated delinquent” means an act that was found to be a delinquent act, as defined in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-801(k), Annotated Code of Maryland, at an adjudicatory hearing, as defined in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §3-801(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Ammunition” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-133.1(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Antique firearm” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-201(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Assault long gun” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-301(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Assault pistol” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-301(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Assault weapon” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-301(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Central Repository” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(f)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Copycat weapon” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-301(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Crime Laboratory” means the Forensic Sciences Division, Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Crime of violence” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Dealer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Dealer’s license” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Designated law enforcement agency” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Detachable magazine” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §4-301(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“External safety lock” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-132(a)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Firearm” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(h), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Firearms Registration Section” means the operational unit of the Licensing Division, Department of State Police that is the primary repository for all files and records relating to the administration of firearms laws and is also responsible for the investigation and processing of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Applications to purchase or transfer a regulated firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Applications for a regulated firearms dealer’s license.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Firearms Safety Training Certificate” means a certificate, letter, or other written documentation verifying satisfactory completion of a Firearms Safety Training Course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Firearms Safety Training Course” means a firearms training course that satisfies the requisite minimum requirements of Regulation .29 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Fugitive from justice” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(k), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Gun show” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-130(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“Habitual drunkard” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(l), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Habitual user” of controlled dangerous substances has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(m), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(n), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Handgun Qualification License” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(o), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Integrated mechanical safety device” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-132(a)(6), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Manufacturer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Mental disorder” has the meaning stated in Health—General Article, §10-101(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Mental health facility” has the meaning stated in Health—General Article, §10-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“Minor” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §1-101(g), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Pepper mace” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-134(d)(1)(ii)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>“Permit” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-301(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Person” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §1-101(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Projectile” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Qualified Handgun Instructor” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(q), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(36)"> <text>“Qualified Handgun Instructor License” means a license issued by the Secretary in accordance with Regulation .38 of this chapter, certifying a person’s ability to instruct firearms training courses as a Qualified Handgun Instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(37)"> <text>“Regulated firearm” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(r), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(38)"> <text>“Rent” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(s), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(39)"> <text>“Rifling characteristics” means the number of lands and grooves in the barrel of a handgun, including right or left twist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(40)"> <text>“Secondary sale” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(t), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(41)"> <text>“Secretary” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(u), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(42)"> <text>“Seller” means a person who is selling, renting, or transferring a regulated firearm through a secondary sale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(43)"> <text>“Shell casing” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(4), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(44)"> <text>“Straw purchase” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(v), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter restricts the sale, rental, transfer, purchase, receipt, possession, and transport of regulated firearms and assault weapons in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer or other person may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Sell, rent, transfer, purchase, receive, or possess a regulated firearm in violation of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Participate in a straw purchase in violation of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Transport a regulated firearm into the State for the purpose of unlawfully selling or trafficking the regulated firearm; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Obliterate, remove, change, or alter the manufacturer’s identification mark or number on a firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except as provided in §D or E of this regulation, a person may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Possess, sell, offer to sell, transfer, purchase, or receive an assault weapon in the State; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Transport an assault weapon into the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The prohibitions in §C of this regulation do not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Personnel of the United States government or an agency or department of the United States while acting within the scope of official business;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A railroad police officer, authorized under 49 U.S.C. §28101 or Public Safety Article, Title 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, while acting within the scope of official business;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Possession, purchase, sale, manufacture, receipt for manufacture, shipment for manufacture, importation, and transport to or by a licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer who is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Providing or servicing an assault weapon or detachable magazine for a law enforcement unit or for personnel exempt under §D(1) or (2) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Acting to sell or transfer an assault weapon or detachable magazine to a licensed firearms dealer in another state or to an individual purchaser in another state through a licensed firearms dealer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Acting to return to a customer in another state an assault weapon transferred to the licensed firearms dealer or manufacturer under the terms of a warranty or for repair; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Receipt and possession of an assault weapon or detachable magazine by inheritance, in accordance with Regulation .10 of this chapter, if the decedent lawfully possessed the assault weapon and the person inheriting the assault weapon or detachable magazine is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Receipt of an assault weapon or detachable magazine by a personal representative of an estate for the purposes of exercising the representative’s powers and duties, if the representative is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Possession by a person who is retired in good standing from service with a law enforcement agency of the State or a local law enforcement agency in the State and is not otherwise prohibited from possessing an assault weapon or detachable magazine, if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The assault weapon or detachable magazine was purchased or obtained by the person for official use with the law enforcement agency before retirement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The assault weapon or detachable magazine is sold or transferred to the person by the law enforcement agency on retirement; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Possession or transport by an employee of an armored car company if the individual is acting within the scope of employment and has a permit issued under Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Possession, receipt, transfer, and shipping to or from:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An ISO 17025 accredited ballistics-testing laboratory approved by the National Institute of Justice; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A facility or entity that manufactures or provides research and development testing, analysis, or engineering for personal protective equipment or vehicle protection systems; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Possession or transport by an individual who lawfully possessed the assault pistol before June 1, 1994, if it was registered with the Secretary before August 1, 1994;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Possession or transport by individual who lawfully possessed, had a purchase order for, or completed an application to purchase the assault long gun or copycat weapon before October 1, 2013; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Possession, sale, offer for sale, or transfer by a dealer of an assault long gun or a copycat weapon that the dealer lawfully possessed on or before October 1, 2013.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>This chapter does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The sale, transfer, or possession of an antique firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A firearm modified to render it permanently inoperative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An unserviceable firearm sold, transferred, or possessed as a curio or museum piece;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Law enforcement personnel of any unit of the federal government or law enforcement personnel of the State or any local law enforcement agency in the State while acting within the scope of their official duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Members of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard while acting within the scope of their official duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A sale, rental, transfer, or use of a regulated firearm by a person authorized or required to do so as part of the person’s duties as a member of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An official police force or other law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The armed forces of the United States, including all official reserve organizations; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Maryland National Guard;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Purchases, sales, and transportation to or by a federally licensed firearm manufacturer, dealer, or importer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The transfer or possession of a regulated firearm or detachable magazine by a federally licensed firearm manufacturer, dealer, or importer for testing or experimentation authorized by the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>An organization that is required or authorized by federal law governing its specific business or activity to maintain firearms; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A signal pistol or other visual distress signal that the United States Coast Guard approves as a marine safety device.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Unless exempted pursuant to §D or E of this regulation, an assault pistol possessed in this State shall be registered with the Secretary on or before August 1, 1994. An assault pistol is presumed to be properly registered with the Secretary if it was purchased before June 1, 1994, and an application to purchase a regulated firearm was properly completed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A regulated firearm or assault weapon that is sold, rented, transferred, purchased, received, possessed, or transported in violation of this chapter may be seized as contraband and disposed of by a law enforcement agency.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An assault weapon seized as contraband shall be disposed of as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Turned over to the Secretary for disposal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Destroyed by the law enforcement agency that seized the assault weapon; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Retained for law enforcement purposes by the law enforcement agency that seized the assault weapon.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An assault weapon seized as contraband may not be sold or rented.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>This chapter supersedes any restriction that a local jurisdiction in the State imposes on the sale, transfer, or possession of a regulated firearm, and the State preempts the right of any local jurisdiction to regulate the sale of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Possession."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may not possess a regulated firearm if the person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is a habitual drunkard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is addicted to or a habitual user of a controlled dangerous substance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is a fugitive from justice;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has been convicted of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A crime of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any violation classified as a felony in this State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any violation classified as a misdemeanor in this State that carries a statutory penalty of more than 2 years; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Any violation classified as a common law offense where the person received a term of imprisonment of more than 2 years; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has received probation before judgment for a crime of violence, except for assault in the second degree or a case in which a person received probation before judgment for a disqualifying crime and that crime was expunged under Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has received probation before judgment for a domestically related crime, as defined in Criminal Procedure Article, §6-233, Annotated Code of Maryland, except when the crime was expunged under Criminal Procedure Article, Title 10, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has been found not criminally responsible under Criminal Procedure Article, §3-110, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Has been found incompetent to stand trial under Criminal Procedure Article, §3-106, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Has a mental health disorder and a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Has been involuntarily admitted to a mental health facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Is under the protection of a guardian appointed by a court under Estates of Trusts Article, §13-201(c) or 13-705, Annotated Code of Maryland, unless the appointment of the guardian was solely a result of a physical disability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Is a respondent against whom a current non ex parte civil protection order has been entered under Family Law Article, §4-506, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>Is a respondent against whom an order for protection, as defined in Family Law Article, §4-508.1, Annotated Code of Maryland, has been issued by a court of another state or a Native American tribe and is in effect;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Is younger than 30 years old and has been adjudicated delinquent by a juvenile court for committing an act that would be:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A crime of violence if committed by an adult;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A violation classified as a felony in this State if committed by an adult; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A violation classified as a misdemeanor in this State that carries a statutory penalty of more than two years if committed by an adult; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>Is prohibited from otherwise possessing a firearm by federal or State law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person younger than 21 years old may not possess a regulated firearm unless the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm and is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A member of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard and is performing official duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Required to possess a regulated firearm for employment purposes and holds a valid permit under Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Temporarily transferring or possessing a regulated firearm or ammunition and is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Under the supervision of another who is at least 21 years old or older and who is not prohibited by federal or State law from possessing a firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Acting with the permission of the parent or legal guardian of the person;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Temporarily transferring or possessing a regulated firearm or ammunition and is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Participating in marksmanship training of a recognized organization; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Under the supervision of a qualified instructor; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Possessing the firearm for self-defense or the defense of others against a trespasser into the person’s residence or a residence in which the person is an invited guest.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This section does not apply to a respondent transporting a regulated firearm if the respondent is carrying a civil protection order requiring the surrender of the regulated firearm and:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The regulated firearm is unloaded;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The respondent has notified the law enforcement unit, barracks, or station that the regulated firearm is being transported in accordance with the civil protection order; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The respondent transports the regulated firearm directly to the law enforcement unit, barracks, or station.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>This section supersedes any restrictions that a local jurisdiction in the State imposes on the possession by a private party of a regulated firearm, and the State preempts the right of any local jurisdiction to regulate the possession of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Lost or Stolen Firearms."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a regulated firearm is lost or stolen, the owner of the firearm shall report the loss or theft to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after the owner first discovers the loss or theft.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>On receipt of a report of a lost or stolen regulated firearm, a local law enforcement agency shall report to the Secretary and enter into the National Crime Information Center database, as prescribed by the Secretary and to the extent known, the caliber, make, model, manufacturer, and serial number of the firearm and any other distinguishing number or identification mark on the regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A dealer or any other person who sells or transfers a regulated firearm shall notify the purchaser or recipient of that regulated firearm at the time of the purchase or transfer that the purchaser or recipient is required to report a lost or stolen regulated firearm to the local law enforcement agency within 72 hours after discovery of the loss or theft.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="New Residents of the State."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person who moves into the State with the intent of becoming a resident shall register all regulated firearms within 90 days after establishing residency by submitting a registration application in the format prescribed by the Secretary. This regulation does not apply to a person who became a resident of the State prior to October 1, 2013.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The registration application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The make, caliber, model, type, finish, barrel length, serial number, country of origin, and date of manufacture of each regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $15, regardless of the number of firearms registered.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Ammunition."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may not possess ammunition if the person is prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm under Regulation .03A of this chapter or Public Safety Article, §5-133(b)—(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person who violates this section may be punished by imprisonment for a period of not more than one year, or a fine of not more than $1,000, or both.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Magazine Capacity."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, a person may not manufacture, sell, offer for sale, purchase, receive, or transfer a detachable magazine that has a capacity of more than ten rounds of ammunition for a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This section does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A .22 caliber rifle with a tubular magazine;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A law enforcement officer or a person who retired in good standing from service with a law enforcement agency of the United States, the State, or a law enforcement agency in the State; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An exemption listed in Regulation .02D of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Straw Purchases."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may not knowingly or willfully participate in a straw purchase of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person may not complete an application to purchase or transfer a regulated firearm with the intent to sell, rent, loan, or transfer that regulated firearm to another individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person may not use another person to purchase or receive a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A person may not transport a regulated firearm into the State with the intent to illegally sell, rent, or transfer the regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A dealer or person may not sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm to a person whom the dealer or person knows or has reasonable cause to believe is a participant in a straw purchase.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>This regulation does not apply to a person purchasing a regulated firearm as a gift pursuant to Regulation .09 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Gifts."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person does not participate in a straw purchase in violation of Regulation .08 of this chapter when purchasing a regulated firearm as a gift if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The recipient of the gift is a resident of the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The recipient of the gift is not prohibited from purchasing or possessing a regulated firearm by State or federal law; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Except to the extent provided in §§B and C of this regulation, both the purchaser and the recipient of the gift shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland, pertaining to the possession, sale, rental, transfer, purchase, or receipt of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a gift of a regulated firearm is in the form of a gift certificate, then only the recipient of the gift must comply with the requirements of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland, pertaining to the possession, sale, rental, transfer, purchase, or receipt of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a gift of a regulated firearm is to the person’s spouse, parent, grandparent, grandchild, brother, sister, son, or daughter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The recipient shall complete an application to purchase or transfer a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The recipient shall submit the application to the Secretary within 5 days after receipt of the regulated firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Secretary shall waive the regulated firearm application fee of $10.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Inheritance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>For the transfer or receipt of a regulated firearm by inheritance, the recipient shall submit a completed firearm application to the Secretary in the prescribed format.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>For the transfer of a regulated firearm by inheritance to a recipient who is younger than 21 years old:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The title of the firearm may be transferred to the recipient;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The estate shall retain possession of the firearm until the recipient is 21 years old; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>On receipt of the firearm, the recipient shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Secondary Sales."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A secondary sale is a transaction in which neither party is a dealer or involved in the dealing or repairing of firearms as a regular course of trade or business.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person may not sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant whose firearm application is disapproved or is placed on hold because of an open disposition of criminal proceedings against the firearm applicant, unless the disapproval or hold is subsequently withdrawn by the Secretary or overruled by a court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A purchaser, lessee, or transferee who the person knows or has reasonable cause to believe is prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm under Regulation .03 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A purchaser, lessee, or transferee who is visibly under the influence of alcohol or drugs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person may not sell, rent, transfer, or purchase a regulated firearm until after 7 days following the time the firearm application is completed by the applicant and submitted to the Secretary by a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The following procedure shall be used for all secondary sales of regulated firearms.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant shall complete a firearm application as prescribed in Regulation .16 of this chapter, except for the signature, which shall be completed in the presence of a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The regulated firearm to be purchased shall be transported by the seller to a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The firearm shall be transported unloaded, with no ammunition being readily available, and in a locked box, enclosed case, or enclosed holster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The seller shall contact the dealer or the designated law enforcement agency before removing the firearm from the vehicle and advise the dealer or the designated law enforcement agency that the applicant is applying for a secondary sale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The firearm may not be worn or carried into a dealer’s place of business or a designated law enforcement installation without prior notification to the dealer or the designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The applicant shall sign the firearm application in the presence of the seller and dealer or the seller and designated law enforcement agent.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The dealer or the designated law enforcement agency shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Review and verify the applicant information on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Review and verify the seller information on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Review and verify the regulated firearm information on the application to ensure that a sale of a handgun manufactured after January 1, 1985, is permitted only if the handgun is on the handgun roster;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Ensure that the applicant understands the declarations on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Review and verify the signatures and the date on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Sign and date the application as a reviewer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Submit the application and the application fee to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>The seller shall complete the sale, rental, or transfer of the firearm within 90 days after the firearm application is marked by the Secretary as not disapproved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>After completing the sale, rental, or transfer, the seller shall submit a copy of the completed application with a signature verifying the sale, rental, or transfer to the Secretary within 7 days after delivery of the regulated firearm in accordance with Regulation .12 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>If the sale, rental, or transfer of the firearm is not completed within 90 days, the seller shall return the firearm application to the Secretary within 7 days.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An applicant for a secondary sale of a regulated firearm through a dealer shall pay the dealer a processing fee not exceeding $20.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Reports of Sales."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Sales, Rentals, and Transfers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A sale, rental, or transfer of a regulated firearm shall be reported to the Firearms Registration Section within 7 days after the completed sale.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A dealer or person who sells, rents, or transfers a regulated firearm shall submit notification of the completed transaction to the Firearms Registration Section in the manner prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The notification shall contain an identifying description of the regulated firearm, including its caliber, make, model, manufacturer’s serial number, and any other special or peculiar characteristic or marking by which the firearm may be identified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer shall submit to the Firearms Registration Section, with the proper notification, applications held by the dealer that have been disapproved by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A dealer shall submit to the Firearms Registration Section, with the proper notification, applications held by the dealer that have expired pursuant to the 90-day limit of Regulation .19 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary shall maintain a permanent record of notifications received of completed sales, rentals, and transfers of regulated firearms in the State.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Sale or Transfer After Seven-Day Waiting Period."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a dealer or person does not receive notification of disapproval or a hold for an open disposition of a criminal proceeding within the 7-day waiting period after submission of the regulated firearm application, then the dealer or person may sell, rent, or transfer the regulated firearm in accordance with all other applicable provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The dealer or person shall submit the firearm application at the time that the purchase or transfer is completed and shall include a notation that the firearm was purchased or transferred before the application was marked as not disapproved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receiving a firearm application that contains a notation that the firearm was purchased or transferred before the application was marked as not disapproved, the Secretary shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the application is not disapproved after the investigation under Regulation .18 of this chapter, mark the application as not disapproved and notify the dealer or person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the application is disapproved after the investigation under Regulation .18 of this chapter, mark the application as disapproved, notify the dealer or person, and notify the applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The sale or transfer of a regulated firearm to a law enforcement officer or a member of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard shall be processed as any other sale or transfer. The 7-day waiting period is in effect unless certification is received from the individual’s commanding officer that the firearm is to be used in an official capacity.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Sales to Minors."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may not sell, rent, or transfer a firearm, a regulated firearm, ammunition, pepper mace, or other deadly weapon to a minor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person may not sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm to a person who is younger than 21 years old.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Out-of-State Purchases."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person who purchases a regulated firearm from an out-of-State, federally-licensed importer, manufacturer, or dealer shall have the out-of-State importer, manufacturer, or dealer ship the regulated firearm to a dealer in this State for processing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A purchase pursuant to this regulation shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A regulated firearm application is required to purchase, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The regulated firearm application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The regulated firearm application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The dealer’s name, address, telephone number, and identification number, and the salesperson’s name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The seller’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, Social Security number, date of birth, race, sex, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The make, caliber, model, type, finish, barrel length, serial number, country of origin, and date of manufacture of the regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Whether the firearm is new or used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>For a handgun manufactured after January 1, 1985, whether it is listed on the handgun roster;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>For a handgun manufactured on or before December 31, 2002, whether it was sold, offered for sale, rented, or transferred with an external safety lock;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>For a handgun manufactured on or after January 1, 2003, whether it is equipped with an approved integrated mechanical safety device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>For a handgun, including a replacement handgun as described under 27 CFR §178.147, which was shipped or transported by a manufacturer on or after October 1, 2000 and has not been sold, rented, or transferred to a person not licensed as a dealer, a statement by the dealer as to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The date of manufacture;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The name of the manufacturer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The federal firearms license number of the manufacturer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Whether a shell casing was included in the box with the handgun; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Authorization by the applicant to the Maryland Department of Health, or any other similar agency or department of another state, to disclose to the Department of State Police information as to whether the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suffers from a mental disorder and has a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has been involuntarily committed to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not participating in a straw purchase; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The application shall contain the following required statement: “Any false information supplied or statement made in this application is a crime which is punishable by imprisonment for a period of not more than 3 years or a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The application must include a signature by the applicant and be witnessed by a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $10.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If a firearm applicant is a corporation, a corporate officer who is a resident of the State shall complete and execute the firearm application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A regulated firearm application that is marked as not disapproved by the Secretary is valid only for the purchase, rental, or transfer of the firearm listed on the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The Secretary shall adopt a continuation form which shall be used for the purchase of more than one regulated firearm at the same time. The information on the continuation form must match the information provided on the firearm application pursuant to §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — False or Omitted Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Any false information supplied or statement made in the application is a crime which may be punished by imprisonment for a period of not more than 3 years, or a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant shall not provide false information on a regulated firearm application, or omit significant information on the application, or cause false information to be given in connection with the verification investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Any knowing material omission or false statement may be considered grounds for disapproval of an application or for criminal prosecution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant for the purpose of determining whether the applicant may purchase or receive a regulated firearm and whether the information and statements on the application are true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In conducting the investigation, the Secretary may request the assistance of the Police Commissioner of Baltimore City, the chief of police in any county maintaining a police force, or the sheriff in any county not maintaining a police force.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Information discovered during the investigation may be used against an applicant who has provided false or misleading information or has omitted information on the application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".19" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Expiration."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A firearm application expires 90 days after the application is marked by the Secretary as not disapproved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer or person shall complete the sale, rental, or transfer of a regulated firearm before the application expires.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After the expiration of the 90-day limit, the application is void and the dealer or person shall return the application to the Firearms Registration Section within 7 days, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary shall void a firearm application that is returned as an incomplete sale, rental, or transfer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>After the expiration of the 90-day limit, the prospective purchaser may submit another regulated firearm application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".20" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Disapproval."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the Secretary disapproves a regulated firearm application, the Secretary shall provide written notice of the disapproval to the dealer or prospective seller, lessor, or transferor within seven days after receiving a properly completed application. The written notice shall contain the reasons the application was disapproved.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>After providing written notice to the dealer or prospective seller, lessor, or transferor, the Secretary shall provide written notice of the disapproval to the applying purchaser, lessee, or transferee. The written notice shall contain the reasons the application was disapproved and a statement of the applicant’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".21" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person whose regulated firearm application is disapproved may submit a written request to the Secretary for a hearing within 30 days after the date that the written notice of disapproval was sent by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the Secretary shall grant a hearing within 15 days and the hearing shall be held in the county of the legal residence of the person requesting the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing and any subsequent proceedings of judicial review shall be conducted in accordance with Regulation .22 of this chapter and State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".22" heading="Regulated Firearm Application — Conduct of Hearing."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant may be represented at a hearing by an attorney-at-law licensed to practice in Maryland. The attorney shall file a notice of appearance and, when appropriate, a notice of substitution before the hearing or at the attorney’s first appearance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The notice of appearance remains in effect until the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Applicant files a written revocation of the attorney’s authority;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Attorney files a written statement of the attorney’s withdrawal from the case;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Attorney states on the record at the hearing that the attorney is withdrawing from the case; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Hearing officer receives notice of the attorney’s disqualification or death.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After filing a notice of appearance in accordance with this regulation, and as long as the notice remains in effect, copies of all written communications or notices shall be sent to the attorney of record. Service on the applicant’s attorney is service on the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The hearing resulting from the appeal of a disapproval of the application to purchase or transfer a regulated firearm shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act and COMAR 28.02.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The review of the record by the administrative law judge consists of a review of all information available to the Secretary which formed the basis for the decision to disapprove the application, as well as any additional information that may be required by the State, the administrative law judge, or other sources.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The decision by the administrative law judge after a hearing or review of the record shall be issued in writing or stated for the record, and shall be accompanied by findings of fact and conclusions of law. A copy of the written decision shall be mailed or delivered to the applicant or the applicant’s attorney of record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The applicant may appeal the final decision to the circuit court under the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The burden of proof for the disapproval of an application to purchase a regulated firearm is the responsibility of the State.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".23" heading="Multiple Purchases — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §§B and C of this regulation, a person may not purchase more than one regulated firearm in a 30-day period.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The restriction in §A of this regulation does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A law enforcement agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency authorized to perform law enforcement duties;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A state or local correctional facility;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A private security company licensed to do business within the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A purchase of an antique firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A purchase by a dealer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>An exchange or replacement of a regulated firearm by a dealer or seller for a regulated firearm purchased from the dealer or seller by the same person seeking the exchange or replacement within 30 days immediately before the exchange or replacement; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A person whose regulated firearm is stolen or irretrievably lost and who considers it essential that the regulated firearm be replaced immediately, if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The person provides the dealer with a copy of the official police report or an official summary of the report, a copy of which shall be attached to the application to purchase or transfer a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The official police report or official summary of the report contains the name and address of the regulated firearm owner, a description of the regulated firearm, the location and date of the loss or theft, and the date on which the loss or theft was reported to the law enforcement agency; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The date of the loss or theft as reflected on the official police report or official summary of the report occurred within 30 days immediately before the attempt to replace the regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person may apply for a multiple purchase of regulated firearms if the purchase of the regulated firearms is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A bulk purchase from an estate sale;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For a private collection or a collector series;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For the purpose of taking advantage of a dealer’s discounted price available only for a multiple purchase and:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The purchase does not exceed two regulated firearms; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The purchaser will not purchase a regulated firearm during the following 30-day period, unless approved for a multiple purchase under §C(1) or (2) of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For other similar purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".24" heading="Multiple Purchases — Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .23B of this chapter, a multiple purchase application is required to purchase more than one regulated firearm in a 30-day period.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, the multiple purchase application shall be attached to the application to purchase a regulated firearm and forwarded to the Secretary by a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The multiple purchase application shall be submitted by a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The multiple purchase application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The number of regulated firearms to be purchased;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The type of regulated firearms to be purchased;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A brief statement as to the purpose of the multiple purchase, which shall satisfy one of the requirements in Regulation .23C of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not participating in a straw purchase; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The application must include a signature by the applicant and be witnessed by a dealer or a designated law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An individual who has already been designated as a collector by the Secretary pursuant to Regulation .25 of this chapter is not required to complete and submit a multiple purchase application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".25" heading="Multiple Purchases — Collectors."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person shall be designated as a collector by the Secretary before applying for a multiple purchase of regulated firearms as a collector.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person may submit an application to be designated as a collector if the person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Devotes time and attention to acquiring certain types of regulated firearms for the enhancement of the collector’s personal collection; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Possesses a Federal Collector’s License (Curio and Relics).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The designated collector application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The designated collector application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A description of the nature of the applicant’s collecting activities;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>If a designated collector application is approved or denied by the Secretary, the Secretary shall provide written notification to the person within a reasonable time after receiving a properly completed application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Secretary shall revoke without prejudice a person’s designated collector status by written notification, either in person or by mail to the person’s last known address, if the person is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Under indictment for a crime of violence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Arrested for any violation that would prohibit the purchase or possession of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A person whose designated collector application is denied or whose designated collector status is revoked may submit a written request to the Secretary for a review of the decision within 30 days after the date that the written notice of denial or revocation was sent by the Secretary.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The person may request a review of the decision in writing or may request a hearing before the Commander of the Licensing Division, the Supervisor of the Firearms Registration Section, or the denying officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The person shall be granted a review of the denial or revocation within 30 days after the person’s request for review.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".26" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, a person shall possess a valid Handgun Qualification License before the person may purchase, rent, or receive a handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person is not required to possess a Handgun Qualification License if the person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Possesses valid credentials or retirement credentials from a law enforcement agency of the United States, the State, or any local law enforcement agency in the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is an active or retired member of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard, and possesses a valid military identification card; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Purchases, rents, or receives an antique, curio, or relic firearm, as defined in federal law or in determinations published by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person who has a valid permit issued under Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland may submit a written request to the Secretary for a Handgun Qualification License without submitting the Handgun Qualification License application or fee under Regulation .28 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".27" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Eligibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Exemptions. A person is not required to possess a Handgun Qualification License to purchase a handgun if the person satisfies one of the exceptions set forth in Regulation .26B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Qualifications. In accordance with Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, a person is eligible for issuance of a Handgun Qualification License only if the person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is 21 years old or older;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is a resident of the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is not prohibited from possessing a handgun under Regulation .03 of this chapter or otherwise prohibited from purchasing or possessing a handgun under federal or State law.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".28" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A Handgun Qualification License application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Handgun Qualification License application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s completion of, or exemption from, a Firearms Safety Training Course within the previous 3 years, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A complete set of the applicant’s fingerprints, taken and submitted in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Authorization by the applicant to the Maryland Department of Health, or any other similar agency or department of another state, to disclose to the Department of State Police information as to whether the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suffers from a mental disorder and has a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has been involuntarily committed to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $50.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A Handgun Qualification License expires 10 years from the date of issuance.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".29" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Training Requirement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, an applicant shall complete a Firearms Safety Training Course and submit a Firearms Safety Training Certificate issued by a Qualified Handgun Instructor. The submission of the Firearms Safety Training Certificate shall constitute proof that the applicant satisfactorily completed a Firearms Safety Training Course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant does not need to complete a Firearms Safety Training Course if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has satisfactorily completed a firearms training course approved by the Secretary as an exemption from the Firearms Safety Training Course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has satisfactorily completed a course of instruction in competency and safety in the handling of firearms as prescribed by the Department of Natural Resources under Natural Resources Article, §10-301.1, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is a Qualified Handgun Instructor in accordance with Regulation .37 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is an honorably discharged member of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is a former law enforcement officer of the State or a local law enforcement agency in the State who has successfully completed initial law enforcement training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Is an employee of an armored car company and has a permit issued under Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Lawfully owns a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A Firearms Safety Training Course shall consist of a minimum of 4 hours of instruction by a Qualified Handgun Instructor and include the following minimum curricula.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>State Firearm Law. Overview of the State firearm laws, including discussion of what constitutes a regulated firearm, how to properly purchase or transfer a firearm, where allowed to carry or transport a firearm, when necessary to possess a carry permit, and who is prohibited from possessing firearms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Home Firearm Safety. Overview of handgun and firearm safety in the home, including discussion of access to minors, locking and storing of firearms, and use of safety devices, such as secure lock boxes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Handgun Mechanisms and Operation. Overview of the proper operation and safe handling of a handgun, including cleaning and maintenance, the loading and unloading of ammunition, and the differences between revolvers and semi-automatic handguns.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Operation and Handling Demonstration. Orientation that demonstrates the applicant’s safe operation and handling of a firearm, including a practice component in which the applicant safely fires at least one round of live ammunition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".30" heading="Handgun Qualification License — False or Omitted Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall not provide false information on an application for a Handgun Qualification License, or omit significant information on the application, or cause false information to be given in connection with the verification investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any knowing material omission or false statement may be considered grounds for denial of a license or for criminal prosecution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".31" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant for the purpose of determining whether the applicant satisfies the criteria for issuance of a license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Information discovered during the investigation may be used against an applicant who has provided false or misleading information or has omitted information on the application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".32" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Issuance and Denial."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(h), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Secretary shall issue a Handgun Qualification License or provide a written denial of the application within 30 days after receiving a properly completed application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A properly completed application satisfies all the requirements prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written denial provided by the Secretary shall contain the reasons the application was denied and a statement of the applicant’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>In accordance with Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(h)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland, an individual whose fingerprints have been submitted to the Central Repository, and whose application has been denied, may request that the record of the fingerprints be expunged by obliteration.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".33" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Replacement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may submit a written request to the Secretary for a replacement license if the license is lost or stolen.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for a replacement Handgun Qualification License must be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of $20.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly submitted request, the Secretary shall issue a replacement license within a reasonable time if the applicant is not otherwise disqualified from possessing a Handgun Qualification License.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".34" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A Handgun Qualification License may be renewed for successive periods of 10 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Handgun Qualification License renewal application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Handgun Qualification License renewal application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The identification number from the applicant’s prior Handgun Qualification License;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The renewal application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $20.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly submitted renewal application, the Secretary shall issue a renewed Handgun Qualification License within a reasonable time if the applicant is not otherwise disqualified from possessing a Handgun Qualification License.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".35" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary may revoke a Handgun Qualification License on a finding that the licensee no longer satisfies the qualifications set forth in Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary shall provide written notification to a person whose Handgun Qualification License is revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written notice of revocation shall contain the reasons the license was revoked and a statement of the person’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A person whose Handgun Qualification License is revoked shall return the license to the Licensing Division, Department of State Police within 5 days after receipt of the notice of revocation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".36" heading="Handgun Qualification License — Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person whose original or renewal Handgun Qualification License application is denied or whose Handgun Qualification License is revoked may submit a written request to the Secretary for a hearing within 30 days after the date that the written notice of denial or revocation was sent by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the Secretary shall grant a hearing within 15 days and the hearing shall be held in the county of the legal residence of the person requesting the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing and any subsequent proceedings of judicial review shall be conducted in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".37" heading="Qualified Handgun Instructor — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person is a Qualified Handgun Instructor if the person has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A valid Qualified Handgun Instructor License issued by the Secretary in accordance with Regulation .38 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Been recognized by the Maryland Police and Correctional Training Commissions; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A valid instructor certification issued by a nationally recognized firearms organization.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Qualified Handgun Instructor shall provide proof of certification or qualification to the Secretary before providing instruction to an applicant for a Handgun Qualification License or a handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon a person’s satisfactory completion of an applicable firearms training course, a Qualified Handgun Instructor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide the person a Firearms Safety Training Certificate that includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The person’s name and date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The instructor’s name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Whether the completed course was a Firearms Safety Training Course or a Handgun Permit Training Course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The length in hours of the course;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The date of course completion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The location of the training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>A declaration certifying that the course met the minimum standards prescribed by the Secretary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>A declaration certifying that the person completed the course; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submit the requisite information to the Licensing Division, Department of State Police, as prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".38" heading="Qualified Handgun Instructor License — Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a person has not been recognized by the Maryland Police and Correctional Training Commissions or does not have a valid certification issued by a nationally recognized firearms organization, then the person shall obtain a Qualified Handgun Instructor License before acting as a Qualified Handgun Instructor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Qualified Handgun Instructor License application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Qualified Handgun Instructor License application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s formal training in the care, safety, and use of handguns, including a minimum qualification score of 80 percent on a practical police course; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s minimum of 1 year of experience in instruction in the care, safety, and use of handguns.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the Secretary shall issue a Qualified Handgun Instructor License to the applicant within a reasonable time.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A Qualified Handgun Instructor License expires 4 years from the date of issuance.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".39" heading="Qualified Handgun Instructor License — Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A Qualified Handgun Instructor License may be renewed for successive periods of 4 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Qualified Handgun Instructor License renewal application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Qualified Handgun Instructor License renewal application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s experience in instruction in the care, safety, and use of handguns within the past 4 years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed renewal application, the Secretary shall issue a renewed Qualified Handgun Instructor License within a reasonable time.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".40" heading="Qualified Handgun Instructor License — Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary may revoke a Qualified Handgun Instructor License for cause. Sufficient cause may include, but is not limited to, evidence of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Unsafe range practices;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>False reporting of Firearm Safety Training Course completion or Handgun Permit Training Course completion;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Falsification of permit applicant qualification scores;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Failure to satisfy the minimum requirements of training courses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Conviction for a criminal offense that would preclude the licensee from purchasing or possessing a firearm; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Conviction for a criminal offense involving the distribution, use, or possession of a controlled substance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary shall provide written notification to a person whose Qualified Handgun Instructor License is revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written notice of revocation shall contain the reasons the license was revoked and a statement of the person’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A person whose Qualified Handgun Instructor License is revoked shall return the license to the Licensing Division, Department of State Police within 10 days after receipt of the notice of revocation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".41" heading="Qualified Handgun Instructor License — Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person whose original or renewal Qualified Handgun Instructor License application is denied or whose Qualified Handgun Instructor License is revoked may submit a written request to the Secretary for an informal review within 10 days after receipt of the notice of denial or revocation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the informal review shall be conducted by a person designated by the Secretary who shall sustain or reverse the initial action and provide written notification of the decision to the person who requested the informal review within 30 days after the informal review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An informal review is not subject to State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".42" heading="Dealers — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person shall lawfully possess a dealer’s license issued by the Secretary before the person engages in the business of selling, renting, or transferring regulated firearms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer’s license is required for each place of business where regulated firearms are sold.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A dealer may not sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant whose firearm application is disapproved or is placed on hold because of an open disposition of criminal proceedings against the firearm applicant, unless the disapproval or hold is subsequently withdrawn by the Secretary or overruled by a court;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A purchaser, lessee, or transferee who the dealer knows or has reasonable cause to believe is prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm under Regulation .03 of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A purchaser, lessee, or transferee who is visibly under the influence of alcohol or drugs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A dealer may not sell, rent, transfer, or purchase a regulated firearm until after 7 days following the time a firearm application is completed by the applicant and submitted to the Secretary by the dealer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".43" heading="Dealers — Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Recordkeeping.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A dealer shall keep records of all acquisitions, receipts, sales, rentals, transfers, and other dispositions of firearms affected in connection with the dealer’s business, including a copy of all firearm applications, for a minimum of 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The records shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The name and address of each person from whom the dealer acquires a firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The name and address of each person to whom the dealer sells, rents, transfers, or otherwise disposes of a firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The make, caliber, model, type, finish, barrel length, serial number, country of origin, and date of manufacture of each firearm acquired, sold, rented, transferred, or otherwise disposed of; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The date of each acquisition, receipt, sale, rental, transfer, or other disposition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The records shall be maintained in alphabetical or chronological order, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Records maintained under 18 U.S.C. §923(g)(1)(a) may be used to satisfy the requirements of this section, if the Secretary is granted access to those records.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer shall respond within 48 hours after receipt of a request from the Secretary for information contained in the records required to be kept under this regulation when the information is requested in connection with a bona fide criminal investigation. The information shall be provided in the manner required by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When the Secretary provides written notification to a dealer, the dealer shall submit to the Secretary the information required to be kept under §A of this regulation for the time period specified by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary may inspect the inventory and records of a dealer at any time during the normal business hours of the dealer’s business. The Secretary shall inspect the records and inventory of a dealer at least once every 2 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The Secretary may make available to a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency any information obtained relating to the identities of persons who have unlawfully purchased or received firearms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>When a dealer’s business is discontinued and succeeded by a new dealer, the records required under §A of this regulation shall reflect the business discontinuance and succession and shall be delivered to the successor dealer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".44" heading="Dealer’s License — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A dealer shall have a valid dealer’s license conspicuously displayed at each place of business. The license shall identify the dealer and the location of the place of business.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer’s license is not transferable to a new place of business or another person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Change of Business Location.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before changing the physical location of a place of business, a dealer shall provide written notice to the Firearms Registration Section and surrender the dealer’s license for that place of business.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Unless cause exists to revoke the dealer’s license, the Secretary shall issue a new dealer’s license without charge to cover the new place of business for the remaining unexpired term of the surrendered license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The dealer’s license for the new place of business may be renewed under Regulation .49 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".45" heading="Dealer’s License — Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A dealer’s license application is required for each place of business where the applicant intends to sell or rent regulated firearms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer’s license application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The dealer’s license application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A clear and recognizable photograph of the applicant, taken and submitted in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application, unless the photograph has been submitted with an application within the preceding 5 years;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A complete set of the applicant’s fingerprints, taken and submitted in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application, unless the fingerprints have been submitted with a prior year’s application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A copy of the applicant’s current valid federal firearms license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A copy of the applicant’s current retail sales tax license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A copy of the applicant’s current trader’s license, if an inventory is maintained;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Authorization by the applicant to the Maryland Department of Health, or any other similar agency or department of another state, to disclose to the Department of State Police information as to whether the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suffers from a mental disorder and has a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has been involuntarily committed to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a firearm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The application shall contain the following required statement: “Any false information supplied or statement made in this application is a crime which is punishable by imprisonment for a period of not more than 3 years or a fine of not more than $5,000, or both.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The application must include a signature by the applicant and be notarized.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $50.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If an applicant is a corporation, a corporate officer who is a resident of the State shall complete and execute the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A dealer’s license expires on the first June 30 after its effective date, unless renewed under Regulation .49 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".46" heading="Dealer’s License — False or Omitted Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant may not provide false information on an application for a dealer’s license, or omit significant information on the application, or cause false information to be given in connection with the verification investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any knowing material omission or false statement may be considered grounds for denial of a license or for criminal prosecution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".47" heading="Dealer’s License — Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant for the purpose of determining whether the applicant possesses the qualifications for a license and whether the information and statements on the application are true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Information discovered during the investigation may be used against an applicant who has provided false or misleading information or has omitted information on the application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".48" heading="Dealer’s License — Issuance and Denial."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall issue a dealer’s license or provide a written denial of the application within a reasonable time after receiving a properly completed application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary shall deny a dealer’s license application if the Secretary determines that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Supplied false information or made a false statement on the application or during the course of the investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Did not properly complete the application in the form and manner prescribed by the Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Intends that a person who is not eligible to be issued a dealer’s license or whose dealer’s license has been revoked or suspended will:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Participate in the management or operation of the business for which the license is sought; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hold a legal or equitable interest in the business for which the license is sought.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary shall deny a dealer’s license application if the Secretary receives a written notification from the applicant’s licensed attending physician that the applicant suffers from a mental disorder and is a danger to the applicant or another.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the Secretary denies a dealer’s license application, the Secretary shall provide written notice of the denial to the person whose license was denied. The written notice shall contain the reasons the license was denied and a statement of the applicant’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A person whose dealer’s license application is denied may not engage in the business of selling, renting, or transferring regulated firearms, unless the denial has been subsequently withdrawn by the Secretary or overruled by a court.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".49" heading="Dealer’s License — Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A dealer’s license may be renewed for successive periods of 1 year. A renewal license expires each year on June 30.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer seeking a renewal license shall submit a renewal application on or before June 1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The renewal application shall include the information and comply with the provisions of Regulation .45 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The renewal application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $25.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly submitted renewal application, the Secretary shall issue a renewal license within a reasonable time if the applicant is not otherwise disqualified from possessing a dealer’s license.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".50" heading="Dealer’s License — Suspension or Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall suspend a dealer’s license if the dealer is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Under indictment for a crime of violence; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Arrested for a violation that would prohibit the purchase or possession of a regulated firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary may suspend a dealer’s license if the dealer is not in compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements of Regulation .43 of this chapter. The Secretary may lift this suspension after the dealer provides evidence that the violation has been corrected.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Secretary shall revoke a dealer’s license if the dealer:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Supplied false information or made false statements in the dealer’s license application or renewal application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is prohibited from possessing a regulated firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has knowingly or willfully manufactured, sold, or offered to sell a handgun not on the handgun roster in violation of Public Safety Article, §5-406, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has knowingly or willfully participated in a straw purchase of a regulated firearm; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Has sold, rented, transferred, transported, delivered, or acquired a regulated firearm without complying with all applicable State laws and regulations.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the Secretary suspends or revokes a dealer’s license, the Secretary shall provide written notice of the suspension or revocation to the person whose license was suspended or revoked. The written notice shall contain the reasons the license was suspended or revoked and a statement of the person’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A person whose dealer’s license is suspended or revoked may not engage in the business of selling, renting, or transferring regulated firearms, unless the suspension or revocation has been subsequently withdrawn by the Secretary or overruled by a court.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".51" heading="Dealer’s License — Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Application Denial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person whose initial or renewal dealer’s license application is denied may file an appeal to the circuit court of the county where the person’s place of business is to be located within 30 days after the date that the written notice of denial or revocation was sent by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Secretary or the applicant may appeal the decision of the circuit court to the Court of Special Appeals.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Suspension, Revocation, and Fines.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person whose dealer’s license is suspended or revoked or who is fined for a violation may submit a written request to the Secretary for a hearing within 30 days after the date that the written notice of suspension or revocation was sent by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the Secretary shall grant a hearing within 15 days.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing and any subsequent proceedings of judicial review shall be conducted in accordance with Regulation .22 of this chapter and State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".52" heading="Gun Shows — Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary has the sole authority to regulate the sale of regulated firearms at a gun show.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person shall be a resident of this State to sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm at a gun show in this State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person other than a dealer shall obtain a Temporary Transfer Permit in accordance with Regulation .53 of this chapter before the person displays a regulated firearm for sale, rental, or transfer at a gun show.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A dealer may not be issued a Temporary Transfer Permit. A dealer may conduct business at a gun show only if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All business conducted at the gun show is from a table or fixed display;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A legible photostatic copy of a valid dealer’s license is displayed prominently in public view as part of the table or display; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The dealer conducts business in compliance with the applicable provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A person who possesses a Federal Firearms License is considered to be engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail, and may not be issued a Temporary Transfer Permit. The person may not sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm in this State unless the person possesses a valid dealer’s license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A person who possesses a Federal Firearms License may sell, rent, or transfer a rifle or shotgun that is not a regulated firearm if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The purchase, rental, or transfer of the firearm is legal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The purchaser, lessee, or transferee of the firearm is a resident of Maryland, Pennsylvania, Delaware, or West Virginia.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A person attending a gun show may not sell, offer for sale, rent, or transfer any handgun manufactured after January 1, 1985, that is not on the handgun roster in compliance with Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 4, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".53" heading="Gun Shows — Temporary Transfer Permits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary has the sole authority to issue a Temporary Transfer Permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A Temporary Transfer Permit shall be prominently displayed in public view as a part of a table or fixed display of a person other than a dealer who displays a regulated firearm for sale, rental, or transfer at a gun show.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A Temporary Transfer Permit is valid only for the gun show for which it was issued and is not transferable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A Temporary Transfer Permit may not be voided or replaced with another Temporary Transfer Permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Application.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An application for a Temporary Transfer Permit shall be received by the Maryland State Police a minimum of 10 business days before the first day of the gun show to be attended by the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An initial application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $10.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An applicant may apply for up to four additional permits when submitting the initial application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An applicant may also apply for a Temporary Transfer Permit in person at the Firearms Registration Section during normal business hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Issuance and Denial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completely application, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant for the purpose of determining whether the applicant is prohibited by law from purchasing or possessing a firearm or is engaging in the business of a dealer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Secretary shall deny an application for a Temporary Transfer Permit if the information on the application is illegible, incomplete, or inaccurate.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Secretary shall deny an application for a Temporary Transfer Permit if the applicant is prohibited by law from purchasing or possessing a firearm or is engaging in the business of a dealer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The Secretary shall issue a Temporary Transfer Permit or provide a written denial of the application within 7 days after receiving a properly completed application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A written denial provided by the Secretary shall contain the reasons the application was denied and a statement of the applicant’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Appeal.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person whose Temporary Transfer Permit application is denied may submit a written request to the Secretary for a hearing within 30 days after the date that the written notice of denial was sent by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the Secretary shall grant a hearing within 15 days and the hearing shall be held in the county of the legal residence of the person requesting the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The hearing and any subsequent proceedings of judicial review shall be conducted in accordance with Regulation .22 of this chapter and State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>In addition to the initial Temporary Transfer Permit, four additional Temporary Transfer Permits may be issued each calendar year to the same applicant at no additional charge.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A person who displayed regulated firearms for sale, rental, trade, or transfer at more than five gun shows in a single calendar year shall obtain a dealer’s license in compliance with this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".54" heading="Gun Shows — Sales, Rentals, and Transfers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The sale, rental, or transfer of a regulated firearm at a gun show must take place from a table or fixed display.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer or other person may not transfer a regulated firearm sold or rented at a gun show until after 7 days following the time the firearm application is completed by the applicant and submitted to the Secretary in accordance with Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A sale, rental, or transfer of a regulated firearm from a table or fixed display shall comply with the applicable provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual wishing to purchase, rent, or receive a regulated firearm at a gun show shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Properly complete and submit a firearm application in accordance with this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A dealer or seller wishing to sell, rent, or transfer a regulated firearm at a gun show shall complete the requisite information on the firearm application. If the Temporary Transfer Permit holder is a private seller, then the seller shall write “TTP” in the section of the firearm application requiring a dealer identification number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Each application to purchase a regulated firearm must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $10.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If a firearm application is marked as not disapproved by the Secretary, the Secretary shall send the application to the dealer or prospective seller for transfer to the purchaser.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>If a firearm application is marked as disapproved by the Secretary, the Secretary shall comply with Regulation .20 of this chapter. The person whose application was disapproved may request a hearing under Regulation .21 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".55" heading="Pawnbrokers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a person attempts to redeem a previously pawned regulated firearm, the pawnbroker shall determine whether the person is the same individual who deposited the firearm with the pawnbroker as a pledge by requiring the person to display a driver’s license, an age of majority card, or other acceptable photographic identification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a person attempting to redeem a previously pawned regulated firearm is not the same individual who deposited the firearm with the pawnbroker, then the transfer of the regulated firearm shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If the period allowed for redemption of a pawned regulated firearm has elapsed and the pawnbroker offers the regulated firearm for sale or rental, then the transfer of the regulated firearm shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The pawnbroker shall notify the prospective transferee that the transferee is subject to the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The pawnbroker shall write on all pawn tickets issued for pawned regulated firearms: “This pawn ticket is transferable subject to the provisions of Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.”</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".56" heading="Public Auctions and Flea Markets."> <text>The sale, rental, or transfer of a regulated firearm at a public auction or a flea market shall comply with the provisions of this chapter and Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".57" heading="Handguns — Safety Devices."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A dealer may not sell, offer for sale, rent, or transfer a handgun manufactured on or before December 31, 2002, unless the handgun is sold, offered for sale, rented, or transferred with an external safety lock.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A dealer may not sell, offer for sale, rent, or transfer a handgun manufactured on or after January 1, 2003, unless the handgun is sold, offered for sale, rented, or transferred with an approved integrated mechanical safety device.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The provisions of this regulation do not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An antique firearm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A firearm modified to render it permanently inoperative;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A sale or transfer by a dealer or manufacturer to a lawful customer outside the State; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A purchase, sale, transfer, or transport to or by a dealer or manufacturer that provides or services a handgun for:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Personnel of the United States government or an agency or department of the United States government;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Members of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Law enforcement personnel of the State or any local law enforcement agency in the State while acting within the scope of their official duties; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An organization that is required by federal law or regulations governing its specific business or activity to maintain handguns and applicable ammunition.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".58" heading="Dealers — Security Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A licensed dealer may not conduct business and store firearms at a location unless:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The premises on which the licensed dealer operates is equipped with the security features specified in Public Safety Article, §5-145.1(a)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland, and §§B — D of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Outside business hours, the licensed dealer locks all firearms stored on premises in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A vault;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A safe; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A room or building that meets the requirements of Public Safety Article, §5-145.1(a)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland, and §§B — D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Video security equipment shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Record 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, without interruption;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide a date and time stamp for every recorded frame;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Record activity inside and outside the place of business to include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Each entrance and exit of the place of business; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Either:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Exterior parking areas leading up to and from the place of business; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Exterior corridors leading up to and from the place of business if the parking area is not continuous to the business;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Have limited and secured access to the stored footage in a format that can be easily accessed for investigational purposes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Retain recordings of security footage for a minimum of 90 days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Make footage available upon request by a law enforcement agency within 48 hours.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Burglary Alarm System Requirements. A security system shall be continually monitored and cover all perimeter entry and exit points.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Physical barriers may include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Bollards, concrete barriers, steel barricades, planters, landscape boulders, terrain, building construction, and elevation or another physical barrier that prevents intrusion into the building; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Security gates, screens, shutters, bars, security window film, or window grilles.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Inspection. The Secretary:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall inspect the security requirements of a licensed dealer at least once every 2 years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May inspect the security requirements at any time before being approved for a license, as a follow-up to a non-compliant inspection, during required inventory and record audits, and following a burglary/theft or attempts thereof.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Non-Compliance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person who violates this section is subject to a civil penalty not exceeding $1,000 imposed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In addition to the penalty imposed under §F(1) of this regulation, a person who knowingly and willfully violates this section is subject to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suspension of the person’s dealer’s license upon a second offense, with the suspension remaining in effect until compliance is regained; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Revocation of the person’s dealer’s license upon a third or subsequent offense.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Law Article, Title 4, Subtitle 3; Public Safety Article, §5-105; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective March 2, 1977 (4:5 Md. R. 383)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 repealed effective April 25, 1994 (21:8 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.15 adopted effective April 25, 1994 (21:8 Md. R. 675)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.03 to 29.03.01, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended and Regulations .16—.20 adopted as an emergency provision effective April 25, 1994 (21:8 Md. R. 669); adopted permanently effective September 12, 1994 (21:18 Md. R. 1513)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01, .02, and .08 amended and Regulation .21 adopted as an emergency provision effective December 23, 1994 (22:2 Md. R. 74); adopted permanently effective June 19, 1995 (22:12 Md. R. 903)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 5, 1997 (24:9 Md. R. 659)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); emergency status expired March 29, 2001</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 28, 2001 (28:10 Md. R. 951)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective July 7, 2003 (30:13 Md. R. 854)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1526)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1526)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05C amended effective July 7, 2003 (30:13 Md. R. 854)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .32C adopted effective July 7, 2003 (30:13 Md. R. 854)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective February 2, 2004 (31:2 Md. R. 86)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2216)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.32 repealed and new Regulations .01—.58 adopted as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772); adopted permanently effective December 23, 2013 (40:25 Md. R. 2071)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .45C amended December 12, 2024 (51:24 Md. R. 1082)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .58 repealed effective November 23, 2015 (42:23 Md. R. 1436)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .58 adopted effective December 12, 2024 (51:24 Md. R. 1082)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Handgun Permit Unit"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Board” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-301(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Central Repository” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-117.1(f)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Designated security personnel” means an individual who receives a handgun permit for employment purposes and is a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Holder of a special police commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Uniformed security guard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Special railway police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Watchman;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Private detective; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Guard in the employ of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>An armored car company;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A bank;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A savings and loan association;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A building and loan association; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>An express agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Handgun Permit Training Certificate” means a certificate, letter, or other documentation verifying satisfactory completion of a Handgun Permit Training Course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Handgun Permit Training Course” means a firearms training course that satisfies the requisite minimum requirements of Regulation .05 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Mental disorder” has the meaning stated in Health—General Article, §10-101(f), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Mental health facility” has the meaning stated in Health—General Article, §10-101(e), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Permit” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-301(d), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Qualified Handgun Instructor” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(q), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Public Safety Article, §5-306(a), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Secretary shall issue handgun permits under specified conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unless otherwise provided by law, a person shall have a valid permit in their possession to carry, wear, or transport a handgun.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A valid permit must satisfy all the requirements set forth in this chapter, including any limitations or restrictions imposed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A permit holder may not wear, carry, or transport a handgun while under the influence of alcohol or drugs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, all valid permits must be issued by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An armored car driver’s permit from another state is valid if the driver is on duty in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Qualifications. In accordance with Public Safety Article, §5-306, Annotated Code of Maryland, a person is eligible for issuance of a handgun permit only if the person:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is an adult;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is not prohibited from possessing a handgun under COMAR 29.03.01.03 or otherwise prohibited from purchasing or possessing a handgun under federal or State law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Has not been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor for which a sentence of imprisonment for more than 1 year has been imposed, unless the person has been pardoned or the United States Attorney General has granted relief;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has not been convicted of a crime involving the possession, use, or distribution of a controlled dangerous substance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is not presently an alcoholic, addict, or habitual user of a controlled dangerous substance, unless the habitual use of a controlled dangerous substance is under legitimate medical direction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has not exhibited propensity for violence or instability that may reasonably render the person’s possession of a handgun a danger to the person or another;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has a good and substantial reason to wear, carry, or transport a handgun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>If younger than 30 years old, has not been committed to a detention, training, or correctional institution for juveniles for longer than 1 year after an adjudication of delinquency by a juvenile court.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Investigation Criteria. The following areas will be a part of the investigation of every applicant and will be considered by the Secretary in determining whether a permit will be issued:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Age of the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Occupation, profession, or employment of the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Verification of the applicant’s qualifications;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Verification of the information supplied by the applicant in the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Information received from personal references and other persons interviewed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Information received from business or employment references as may be necessary in the discretion of the investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Criminal record of applicant, including any juvenile record for an applicant younger than 30 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Medical history of applicant as it may pertain to the applicant’s fitness to carry, wear, or transport a handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Psychiatric or psychological background of the applicant as it may pertain to the applicant’s fitness to carry, wear, or transport a handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>The applicant’s propensity for violence or instability which could reasonably render the applicant’s wearing, carrying, or transporting of a handgun a danger to the applicant or to others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>The applicant’s use of intoxicating beverages and drugs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>The reasons given by the applicant for carrying, wearing, or transporting a handgun, and whether those reasons are good and substantial; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Whether the permit is necessary as a reasonable precaution for the applicant against apprehended danger.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The handgun permit application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The permit application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s completion of, or exemption from, a Handgun Permit Training Course with at least 16 hours of instruction within the previous 2 years, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the permit application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A complete set of the applicant’s fingerprints, taken and submitted in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Authorization by the applicant to the Maryland Department of Health, or any other similar agency or department of another state, to disclose to the Department of State Police information as to whether the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suffers from a mental disorder and has a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has been involuntarily committed to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except as provided in §D of this regulation, the application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $75.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary shall not charge a fee to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A State, county, or municipal public safety employee who is required to carry, wear, or transport a handgun as a condition of governmental employment; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A retired law enforcement officer of the State or a county or municipal corporation of the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A handgun permit expires on the last day of the holder’s birth month following 2 years from the date of issuance.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Training Requirement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, a person applying to obtain or renew a handgun permit shall complete a Handgun Permit Training Course and submit a Handgun Permit Training Certificate issued by a Qualified Handgun Instructor. The submission of the Handgun Permit Training Certificate shall constitute proof that the applicant satisfactorily completed a Handgun Permit Training Course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant does not need to complete a Handgun Permit Training Course if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is a law enforcement officer or has retired in good standing from service with a law enforcement agency of the United States, the State, or any local law enforcement agency in the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is an active member, retired member, or honorably discharged member of the armed forces of the United States or the National Guard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is a Qualified Handgun Instructor in accordance with COMAR 29.03.01.37; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Has satisfactorily completed a firearms training course approved by the Secretary as an exemption from the Handgun Permit Training Course.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A Handgun Permit Training Course shall consist of a minimum of 16 hours of instruction by a Qualified Handgun Instructor for initial applicants or eight hours of instruction by a Qualified Handgun Instructor for renewal applicants, and shall include the following minimum curricula.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>State Firearm Law. Overview of the State firearm laws, including discussion of what constitutes a regulated firearm, how to properly purchase or transfer a firearm, where allowed to carry or transport a firearm, when necessary to possess a carry permit, and who is prohibited from possessing firearms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Home Firearm Safety. Overview of handgun and firearm safety in the home, including discussion of access to minors, locking and storing of firearms, and use of safety devices, such as secure lock boxes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Handgun Mechanisms and Operation. Overview of the proper operation and safe handling of a handgun, including cleaning and maintenance, the loading and unloading of ammunition, and the differences between revolvers and semi-automatic handguns, as well as training in nomenclature, sight alignment, position shooting, dry-firing, and range practice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Proficiency and Use Demonstration. Overview of handgun and firearm safety on the range, off the range, and while transporting or on duty. Orientation that demonstrates the applicant’s proficiency in the operation and use of a firearm, including a shooting component in which the applicant fires live ammunition and obtains a qualifying score of 70 percent as prescribed by the Secretary. Instruction on safety shall be integrated into every phase of the training.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Except as provided in §C(4)(b) of this regulation, the shooting component shall be at least 25 rounds and an applicant may not be required to fire in excess of 15 yards from the target during qualifications.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>For designated security personnel, the shooting component shall be conducted on a practical police course as approved by the Secretary. The shooting component shall be at least 50 rounds and an applicant may not be required to fire in excess of 25 yards during qualifications.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="False or Omitted Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall not provide false information on an application for a permit, or omit significant information on the application, or cause false information to be given in connection with the verification investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any knowing material omission or false statement may be considered grounds for denial of a permit or for criminal prosecution.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Investigation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant for the purpose of determining whether the applicant possesses the qualifications for a permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Information discovered during the investigation may be used against an applicant who has provided false or misleading information or has omitted information on the application.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Issuance and Denial."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In accordance with Public Safety Article, §5-306(a), Annotated Code of Maryland, the Secretary shall issue a permit or provide a written denial of the application within a reasonable time after receiving a properly completed application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A properly completed application must satisfy all the requirements prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written denial provided by the Secretary shall contain the reasons the application was denied and a statement of the applicant’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary may limit the geographic area, circumstances, or times of the day, week, month, or year in which a permit is valid or effective.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Change of Address or Employment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a permit holder’s address or employment changes, the permit holder shall provide written notification to the Secretary within 10 days of the change.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Failure to notify the Secretary within ten days may be grounds for revocation of the permit by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Lost or Stolen Permit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a handgun permit is lost or stolen, the permit holder shall provide written notification to the Secretary within 10 days after discovery of the loss or theft.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The written notification shall be accompanied by a notarized affidavit, under oath, stating that the permit has been lost or stolen.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Failure to notify the Secretary within 10 days may be grounds for revocation of the permit by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Replacement or Modification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may submit a request to the Secretary for a replacement permit if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The permit was lost or stolen; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The permit needs to be modified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A request for a replacement permit must be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of $10, unless the replacement permit is a result of action by the Handgun Permit Review Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly submitted request, the Secretary shall issue a replacement permit within a reasonable time if the applicant is not otherwise disqualified from possessing a handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A permit may be renewed for successive periods of 3 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The permit renewal application shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The permit renewal application shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The applicant’s name, address, driver’s license or photographic identification soundex number, place and date of birth, height, weight, race, sex, eye and hair color, occupation, and home and work telephone numbers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The identification number from the applicant’s prior permit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Proof of the applicant’s completion of, or exemption from, a Handgun Permit Training Course with at least 8 hours of instruction within the previous 2 years, in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the permit renewal application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A complete set of the applicant’s fingerprints, taken and submitted in the manner prescribed by the Secretary on the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Authorization by the applicant to the Maryland Department of Health, or any other similar agency or department of another state, to disclose to the Department of State Police information as to whether the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Suffers from a mental disorder and has a history of violent behavior;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Has been voluntarily admitted for more than 30 consecutive days to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Has been involuntarily committed to a mental health facility or an institution that provides treatment or services for individuals with mental disorders; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that the applicant is not prohibited under federal or State law from possessing a handgun; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A declaration by the applicant, under the penalty of perjury, that all information in the application is true and accurate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The renewal application must be accompanied by a nonrefundable payment of $50.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Upon receipt of a properly submitted renewal application, the Secretary shall issue a renewed permit within a reasonable time if the applicant is not otherwise disqualified from possessing a permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>To ensure adequate time for processing, a renewal application should be filed at least 90 days before the expiration date of the permit which is to be renewed.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Revocation."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary may revoke a permit on a finding that the permit holder:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>No longer satisfies the qualifications set forth in Public Safety Article, §5-306, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failed to carry the permit in the holder’s possession whenever the holder carried, wore, or transported a handgun.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary shall provide written notification to a person whose permit is revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A written notice of revocation shall contain the reasons the permit was revoked and a statement of the person’s appeal rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A person whose permit is revoked shall return the permit to the Licensing Division, Department of State Police within 10 days after receipt of the notice of revocation.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Appeal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Informal Review.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person whose original or renewal permit application is denied or whose permit is revoked or limited may submit a written request to the Secretary for an informal review within 10 days after receipt of the notice of denial, revocation, or limitation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Upon receipt of a valid request, the Secretary shall review the action under informal review and may include a personal interview of the person requesting the informal review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Secretary shall sustain, reverse, or modify the action under informal review and provide written notification to the person who requested the informal review within 30 days after receipt of the request for informal review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An informal review is not subject to State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Handgun Permit Review Board.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person whose original or renewal permit application is denied or whose permit is revoked or limited may submit a written request to the Board to review the decision of the Secretary within 10 days after receipt of the notice of denial, revocation, or limitation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A person whose original or renewal permit application is not acted on by the Secretary within 90 days after submitting the application to the Secretary may submit a written request to the Board for a hearing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3; Criminal Law Article, §4-202; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 26, 1976 (3:11 Md. R. 592)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective January 2, 1984 (10:25 Md. R. 2270)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective November 17, 1978 (5:23 Md. R. 1741); January 2, 1984 (10:25 Md. R. 2270)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective January 2, 1984 (10:25 Md. R. 2270)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 repealed and new Regulation .11 adopted effective October 29, 1990 (17:21 Md. R. 2530)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective October 29, 1990 (17:21 Md. R. 2530)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13 repealed and new Regulation .13 adopted effective October 29, 1990 (17:21 Md. R. 2530)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended effective January 2, 1984 (10:25 Md. R. 2270); October 29, 1990 (17:21 Md. R. 2530)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.07 to 29.03.02, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01, .02, .06—.09, .11, .13, and .14 amended effective July 17, 1995 (22:14 Md. R. 1053)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); amended permanently effective March 19, 2001 (28:5 Md. R. 552)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04D amended as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); amended permanently effective March 19, 2001 (28:5 Md. R. 552)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08A amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10G amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); amended permanently effective March 19, 2001 (28:5 Md. R. 552)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.14 repealed and new Regulations .01—.14 adopted as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2013 (40:21 Md. R. 1772); adopted permanently effective December 23, 2013 (40:25 Md. R. 2072)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Handgun Roster Board"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Antique firearm” means any:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Firearm (including any firearm with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system) manufactured in or before 1898; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Replica of any firearm described in §B(1) of this regulation if the replica:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Is not designed or redesigned for using rimfire or conventional centerfire ammunition, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Uses rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition which is no longer manufactured in the United States and which is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Board” means the Handgun Roster Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Handgun.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Handgun” means a pistol, a revolver, or any other firearm capable of being concealed on the person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Handgun” does not include a shotgun, a rifle, a short-barreled rifle, a short-barreled shotgun, or an antique firearm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Handgun Roster” means the roster of permitted handguns compiled by the Board under Public Safety Article, §5-406(a)(1), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Hearing” means a hearing held by the Board to determine whether a handgun should be placed on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Manufacture” means to engage in the licensed business of producing handguns from raw materials or assembling handguns from parts, or both of these, for sale or distribution, and to assign a Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms registered serial number to the frame or receiver. Nothing in this definition shall be construed to apply to any customizing services performed by a pistolsmith or gunsmith that do not remove any safety mechanisms of the handgun, reduce the overall size of the handgun, shorten the barrel length, or reduce the caliber to less than that of any model variation of the handgun previously approved by the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Objection” means a formal written opposition to the inclusion of a handgun on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Objector” means a person who files with the Board a written objection to the inclusion of a handgun on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Party of record” means any petitioner or objector.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Person” includes any individual, corporation, company, association, firm, partnership, society, or joint stock company.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Petition” means a formal written request to the Board for the inclusion of a handgun on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Petitioner” means a person who files with the Board a petition to have a certain handgun included on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Rifle” means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned and made or remade to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed metallic cartridge to fire only a single projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Short-barreled rifle” means a rifle having one or more barrels less than 16 inches in length and any weapon made from a rifle (whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise) if the weapon, as modified, has an overall length of less than 26 inches.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Short-barreled shotgun” means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than 18 inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun (whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise) if the weapon, as modified, has an overall length of less than 26 inches.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“Shotgun” means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned and made or remade to use the energy of the explosive in a fixed shotgun shell to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of State Police, or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Handgun Roster Board; Handgun Roster."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 4, Annotated Code of Maryland, there is a Handgun Roster Board within the Department of State Police. The office of the Handgun Roster Board is 1201 Reisterstown Road, Pikesville, Maryland 21208.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in §C of this regulation, a person may not manufacture for distribution or sale any handgun that is not included on the Handgun Roster compiled by the Board. A person may not sell or offer for sale in the State a handgun manufactured after January 1, 1985, that is not on the Handgun Roster. Compliance with the provisions of this section is not required until January 1, 1990.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This regulation does not interfere with:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A person's ability to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Manufacture, sell, or offer to sell a rifle or other weapon not defined as a handgun in Regulation .01B of this chapter,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Manufacture a prototype handgun model required for design, development, testing, and approval by the Board; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The manufacturing in the State of a handgun not on the Handgun Roster by a federally licensed gun manufacturer that is also licensed as a Regulated Firearms Dealer in the State for direct sale to a unit of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The federal government,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A state other than Maryland,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An out-of-State local government, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An out-of-State law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Powers and Duties of the Board."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Powers and Duties. The Board shall exercise the powers and perform the duties conferred upon it by statute or by other applicable law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Specific Powers and Duties.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board shall compile and publish in the Maryland Register annually a Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Board may place a handgun on the Handgun Roster upon petition or upon its own initiative. If an objection to the placement of a handgun on the Handgun Roster is not received within the time set by Regulation .12D(1) of this chapter, a handgun shall be officially placed on the Handgun Roster at the expiration of that time. If a timely objection is received and the Board dismisses the objection, the handgun shall be officially placed on the Handgun Roster when the objection is dismissed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Board shall send semiannually a copy of the Handgun Roster to all regulated firearms dealers that are licensed under Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 1, Annotated Code of Maryland, and to the main branch of each public library system in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Chairman."> <text>The Secretary shall serve as chairman of the Board.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Vice-Chairman; Acting Chairman."> <text>The Secretary shall appoint a vice-chairman to the Board. In the absence of the chairman, the vice-chairman shall preside at the meetings and shall perform all the functions and shall have all the power of the chairman.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Meetings."> <text>The Board shall meet periodically at the request of the chairman of the Board or by request of a majority of the members. The Board shall keep a record of all meetings.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Minutes."> <text>Minutes of each meeting of the Board shall be prepared in accordance with State Government Article, §10-509, Annotated Code of Maryland. A copy of the minutes of the last meeting shall be mailed by the chairman or the chairman's designee to each member of the Board in advance of the next scheduled meeting, and consideration of the minutes shall be included as an item on the agenda of that meeting. The minutes of each past meeting shall be reviewed by the members of the Board, revised as necessary, and then adopted as the official record of its proceedings.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Quorum."> <text>Six members shall constitute a quorum for all meetings. Decisions shall be by majority vote of the membership of the Board. All votes shall be recorded.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Expenses."> <text>Members of the Board shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses pursuant to State travel regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Determinations as to Handguns."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In determining whether any handgun should be included on the Handgun Roster, the Board shall consider the following characteristics of a handgun:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Concealability;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ballistic accuracy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Weight;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Quality of materials;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Quality of manufacture;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Reliability as to safety;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Caliber;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Detectability by the standard security equipment commonly used at airports or courthouses and approved by the Federal Aviation Administration for use at airports in the United States; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Utility for legitimate sporting activities, self-protection, or law enforcement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In determining whether any handgun should be placed on the Handgun Roster, the Board shall carefully consider each of the characteristics listed under §A of this regulation and may not place undue weight on any one characteristic.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Petition Form and Content."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Public Safety Article, §5-405, Annotated Code of Maryland, a person may petition the Board for placement of a handgun on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Form. A petition to the Board shall be in the form provided by the Board. The petition shall be sent to the Handgun Roster Board Administrator by email, facsimile, or certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, or delivered by hand.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Content.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The petition shall include the following information:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A description of the handgun;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Make;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Model;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Caliber;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Year of manufacture;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Overall length;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Barrel length;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Technical specifications, if available to the petitioner, to substantiate the claim that the handgun under consideration is of the type that should be placed on the Handgun Roster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Importer, if any.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A petition may include any additional information that the petitioner believes would aid the Board in its deliberations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Board receives confidential information in connection with a petition, use or disclosure of that information is governed by the Maryland Public Information Act, State Government Article, §§10-601—10-628 and 15-507, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Review of Petition."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon request, the petitioner shall submit a representative sample of a handgun under consideration. The Board shall either return the handgun upon completion of its examination or reimburse the petitioner at the fair market value of the handgun, at the option of the Board.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board may, at its own expense, require an independent examination of the handgun in question before rendering a final decision concerning its placement on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A petitioner shall bear the burden of proof that the handgun should be placed on the Handgun Roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Action on Petition.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 45 days of the Board's receipt of a petition, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Approve the petition and publish in the Maryland Register the description specified in Regulation .11C(1) of this chapter, accompanied by notice that any objection to its placement on the Handgun Roster shall be filed with the Board within 30 days after the issue date of the issue of the Maryland Register in which the notice appears; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Deny the petition in writing, stating the reasons for the denial.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Board shall send a copy of its denial to the petitioner by certified mail, return receipt requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Failure to Act. If the Board fails to render a decision on a petition within 45 days after its receipt, the petition shall be considered denied. The Board shall publish notice of its failure to act on the petition in the issue of the Maryland Register for which the closing date follows most immediately after the date on which the 45 days end.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Hearing after Denial of Petition.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A petitioner may request a hearing within 15 days from the date on which the Board's denial letter is received or the time for the Board to act expires.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The request for hearing shall be in the form provided by the Board. The request shall identify the petition for which a hearing is being sought and state the reasons for which the hearing is being requested. The request shall be sent to the Board by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, or delivered by hand.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within 90 days after receiving the request for a hearing, the Board shall hold a hearing in accordance with Regulation .16 of this chapter and issue a written final decision on the petition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the Board determines, as a result of the hearing, that the handgun should be placed on the Handgun Roster, the Board shall publish the description of the handgun and the notice required by §D(1)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Objection Form and Content."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Pursuant to Public Safety Article, §5-405(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, a person may object to the placement of a handgun on the Handgun Roster by filing an objection with the Board within the time set by Regulation .12D(1)(a) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Form. An objection to the placement of a handgun on the Handgun Roster shall be in the form provided by the Board. The objection shall be sent to the Board by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, or delivered by hand.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Content. The objection shall identify the handgun being objected to and shall state with particularity the reasons for the objection. The objection shall include any relevant technical information available to the objector and any additional information that the objector believes would aid the Board in its deliberations.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Review of Objections."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The objector shall have the burden of proof that the handgun objected to should not be placed on the roster.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Board's Actions on Objections.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Board shall act on an objection within 30 days after its receipt of the objection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Board did not previously grant a petition with respect to the handgun, the Board shall dismiss or adopt the objection in writing, stating the reasons for it, and send a copy of its determination to the objector by certified mail, return receipt requested.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the Board previously granted a petition with respect to the handgun, the Board shall dismiss or tentatively adopt the objection in writing, stating the reasons for it, and send copies of its determination to the objector and the petitioner by certified mail, return receipt requested. The Board shall also send to the petitioner a copy of the objection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the petitioner timely requests a hearing under §C of this regulation, the Board's tentative adoption of an objection is not final unless affirmed by a final decision issued in accordance with §C(3) of this regulation. In all other cases, the Board's decision on an objection is final when issued.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the Board fails to act on an objection within 30 days after its receipt, the objection shall be considered dismissed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Hearing after Tentative Adoption of Objection.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A petitioner may request a hearing within 15 days after receiving the Board's tentative adoption of an objection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The request for a hearing shall be in the form provided by the Board and shall be sent to the Board by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, or delivered by hand. The request shall be served on the objector by one of the same methods.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within 90 days after receiving a request for a hearing, the Board shall hold a hearing in accordance with Regulation .16 of this chapter and issue a final written decision on the objection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Notification after Adoption of Objections."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If the Board adopts an objection to a handgun which was tentatively placed on the Handgun Roster upon its own initiative, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Publish notice in the Maryland Register, as soon as feasible, that the objection has been adopted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Send a letter to all regulated firearms dealers licensed under Public Safety Article, §5-106, Annotated Code of Maryland, that an objection to the handgun has been finally adopted and the handgun has not been officially placed on the Handgun Roster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Send a copy of the letter in §A(2) of this regulation to the main branch of each public library system in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If a handgun was placed on the Roster as the result of a petition, and the petitioner does not request a hearing within 15 days after receiving the Board's tentative adoption of an objection, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Publish notice in the Maryland Register, as soon as feasible, that the objection has been adopted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Send a letter to all regulated firearms dealers licensed under Public Safety Article, §5-106, Annotated Code of Maryland, that an objection to the handgun has been finally adopted and the handgun has not been officially placed on the Handgun Roster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Send a copy of the letter in §B(2) to the main branch of each public library system in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If a handgun was placed on the Roster as the result of a petition, and the petitioner does request a timely hearing after receiving the Board's tentative adoption of an objection, a hearing shall be held in accordance with Regulation .14C(3) of this chapter. If, after the hearing, the Board approves the objection, the Board shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Publish notice in the Maryland Register, as soon as feasible, that the objection has been adopted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Send a letter to all regulated firearms dealers licensed under Public Safety Article, §5-106, Annotated Code of Maryland, that an objection to the handgun has been finally adopted and the handgun has not been officially placed on the Handgun Roster; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Send a copy of the letter in §C(2) of this regulation to the main branch of each public library system in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Hearings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following regulations apply to hearings that the Handgun Roster Board conducts to determine whether a handgun should be placed on the Handgun Roster. They do not apply to any other proceedings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Board shall send written notice of the hearing to the parties by certified mail, return receipt requested, at least 10 days before the hearing. The notice shall state the date, time, place, and nature of the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Representation of Parties.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A party may be represented by an attorney or may appear in person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Unless the attorney's appearance is withdrawn, any notice, decision, or other matter required to be sent to the party shall be sent to the attorney.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>When any party is represented by counsel, all submission of evidence, examination and cross-examination of witnesses, and all objections and motions on the party's behalf shall be made solely by counsel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Conduct of Hearings.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The chairman shall preside over the hearing and shall determine the order of presentation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Parties may, and at the request of the chairman shall, submit memoranda on any issues of law or fact involved in the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Written submissions shall be filed in the form and at the time that the chairman may designate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Evidence.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The rules of evidence are those provided by State Government Article, §10-208, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Witnesses and parties shall testify on oath or affirmation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Any member of the Board may examine any witness called to testify.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The chairman may call as a witness any person in attendance at the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Each party shall offer all of the evidence that the party wishes to have made part of the record. If the Board has any evidence that it wishes to use in making its decision, the Board shall make the evidence part of the record. In making its decision, the Board may consider only evidence that is in the record.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Record. A stenographic record shall be made of each hearing. It is not necessary to transcribe the record unless requested by the chairman or a party. A party requesting a transcript shall pay for the cost of transcription. Whenever a transcript is made, a copy shall be deposited with the chairman of the Board.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Placement of Handgun on Handgun Roster."> <text>A handgun shall be placed on the Roster after the:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Period for filing objections has expired, if a timely objection is not filed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Board dismisses all timely objections.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Appeals."> <text>Any aggrieved party of record may appeal within 30 days after the party's receipt of a final decision of the Board in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §5-403; State Government Article, §10-206; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.17 adopted as an emergency provision effective June 7, 1989 (16:13 Md. R. 1416); emergency status expired February 19, 1990 (16:24 Md. R. 2615)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.18 adopted effective June 11, 1990 (17:11 Md. R. 1344)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318); November 4, 2019 (46:22 Md. R. 980)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective October 19, 1998 (25:21 Md. R. 1576); June 25, 2001 (28:12 Md. R. 1113)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective June 25, 2001 (28:12 Md. R. 1113); January 1, 2007 (33:26 Md. R. 1999)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective June 25, 2001 (28:12 Md. R. 1113)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11A, C amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11B, C amended effective December 13, 2021 (48:25 Md. R. 1081)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13A amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15 amended effective June 25, 2001 (28:12 Md. R. 1113); March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Cease Fire Council"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Cease Fire Council."> <text>Pursuant to Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland, there is a Cease Fire Council within the Department of State Police. The office of the Cease Fire Council is 1201 Reisterstown Road, Pikesville, MD 21208.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Powers and Duties of the Council."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>General Powers and Duties. The Council shall exercise the powers and perform the duties conferred upon it by statute or by other applicable law or regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Specific Powers and Duties.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Council is established to administer a State grant program to support innovative and collaborative firearms violence reduction initiatives.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Council shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Award grants in accordance with Regulation .08 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Establish or assist in the establishment of programs designed to reduce the incidence of firearms violence related crime, and encourage participation in existing programs with these objectives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Identify specific goals, objectives, and methodologies to be used in support of programs eligible for funding under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Identify priorities for firearms violence related crime prevention strategies in the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Develop criteria for the evaluation of the outcomes of programs that receive funds.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Chairman."> <text>The Secretary of State Police, or the Secretary's designee, shall serve as chairman of the council.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Meetings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Council shall meet periodically at the request of the chairman of the Council or by request of a majority of the members.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Council shall keep a record of all meetings.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Minutes."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Minutes of each meeting of the Council shall be prepared in accordance with State Government Article, §10-509, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A copy of the minutes shall be mailed by the chairman or the chairman's designee to each member of the Council in advance of the next scheduled meeting, and consideration of the minutes shall be included as an item on the agenda of that meeting.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The minutes of each past meeting shall be reviewed by the members of the Council, revised as necessary, and then adopted as the official record of its proceedings.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Quorum."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Six members constitute a quorum for all meetings.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Decisions shall be by majority vote of the membership of the Council.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All votes shall be recorded.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Expenses."> <text>Members of the Council shall be reimbursed for their actual expenses pursuant to the standard State travel regulations.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Cease Fire Council Grant Program."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The program shall be funded as provided in the State budget.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Grants approved by the Council shall be used to carry out the purposes and objectives of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Grant Application."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant for a grant shall submit an application provided by the Council.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Grants approved by the Council shall be used to carry out the purposes and objectives of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Grant Evaluation."> <text>The Council shall consider and give priority to the following when making program awards:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Comprehensive and coordinated law enforcement and prosecution programs which target criminals and juveniles who use or illegally possess firearms;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Law enforcement and prosecution salaries and overtime in support of firearm violence reduction programs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Covert firearms-related investigations and debriefing of criminal and juvenile arrestees and offenders for information related to illegal firearms trafficking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Initiatives that support the tracing of firearms used to commit crimes or delinquent acts and the identification of illegal firearms traffickers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Purchases of technology and information systems to support firearm violence reduction initiatives; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Other efforts that aid in the apprehension and prosecution of criminals and juveniles who use or illegally possess firearms.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.10 adopted as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); emergency status expired March 29, 2001; adopted permanently effective April 2, 2001 (28:6 Md. R. 622)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="04" heading="Licensing and Permits"> <chapter num="01" heading="Security Guard Agency Licenses and Security Guard Certifications"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Agency Licenses."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant shall submit an application provided by the Secretary of State Police, with the following signatures:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the applicant is an individual, the application form shall be signed, under oath, by the individual;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the applicant is a firm, the application form shall be signed, under oath, by the representative member, and by all the other firm members.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant for a license shall pay to the Secretary an application fee as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Individual—$200;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Firm—$375;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For a license for both an unincorporated security guard agency and private detective agency under the same licensee name submitted simultaneously—$375; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For a license for both an incorporated security guard agency and private detective agency under the same licensee name submitted simultaneously—$750.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An applicant shall submit to the Secretary a complete set of the applicant's legible fingerprints taken on standard fingerprint cards, accompanied by payment for the costs of the fingerprint card record checks, which are $24 for the Federal Bureau of Investigation and $18 for the Criminal Justice Information System. If the applicant is a firm, the applicant shall pay the cost of the fingerprint card record checks for each firm member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Recommendations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant shall submit to the Secretary three notarized recommendations for the individual, or, if a firm, three notarized recommendations for each firm member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each recommendation shall be prepared by a reputable citizen who owns property in the county where the individual applicant or firm member resides or where the business of the security guard agency is to be conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An applicant for a license who intends to employ at least five individuals as security guards shall submit with the application proof of liability insurance in an amount not less than $1,000,000.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Photograph.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant, and each firm member or corporate officer who will be engaging in security guard services, shall submit two photographs, 11/2 inches square, of the applicant's head and shoulders.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Printed computer-generated photographs that are similar to the size indicated in §F(1) of this regulation and represent a clear display of only the applicant's head and shoulders are acceptable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A completed application form shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Address of the applicant's proposed principal place of business and of each proposed branch office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Trade name, as approved by the Department of Assessments and Taxation, or fictitious name that the applicant intends to use while conducting the business of the security guard agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submission of a facsimile of any trademark that the applicant intends to use while conducting the business of the security guard agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Verification that the applicant or firm has established a Maryland sales tax account for the agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the applicant is a firm, copies of the articles of incorporation and any resolutions passed by the board of directors showing that the representative member is a corporate office of the firm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A draft copy of the intended badge and patch that the agency intends to use for review and approval by the Secretary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>A signed copy of the Authorization for Release of Information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A nonresident applicant shall submit a consent and any related document, as required by Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-505, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>An individual applicant or representative member of a firm shall report in person to the Licensing Division with all appropriate completed forms and fees. At that time each applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Have the right index finger printed to a prenumbered certification card; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sign the certification card.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Certification Card."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual applying for employment at a security guard agency for a security guard position shall obtain a certification card issued by the State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An application for a security guard certification card consists of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Two photographs, 11/2 inch square, of the applicant's head and shoulders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A completed application form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Two cards with the applicant's fingerprints; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A check or money order for a nonrefundable application fee of $15 plus payment for the cost of the fingerprint card record checks. Checks or money orders shall be made payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The State Police will provide the application form and fingerprint cards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The hiring agency is responsible for preparing the completed application cards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The applicant may be denied a certification card if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has been convicted of a crime of violence, which is defined here as:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Abduction,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Arson,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Burglary, including common law and all statutory and storehouse forms of burglary offenses,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Escape,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Housebreaking,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Kidnapping,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Manslaughter, excepting involuntary manslaughter,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Mayhem,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Murder,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Rape,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Robbery,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Sodomy, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>An attempt to commit any of the above offenses, or assault with intent to commit any other offense for which the court sentences an individual to imprisonment for more than 1 year;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has been convicted of a felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is a habitual drunkard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is a fugitive from justice, which is defined as any person who has fled from a sheriff or other peace officer within this State, or who has fled from any state, territory, or the District of Columbia, or possession of the United States, to avoid prosecution for a crime of violence or to avoid giving testimony in any criminal proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is addicted to or a habitual user of narcotics, barbiturates, or amphetamines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has been confined to a mental institution for treatment of a mental disorder or disorders, unless there is attached to the application a physician's certificate, issued within 30 days before the application, certifying that the applicant is of no danger to himself or others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has falsified any information on the applicant's application; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Has been convicted of any criminal act directly related to the applicant's employment with a detective agency licensed or required to be licensed by the State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Applicants meeting the criteria listed in §§A—E of this regulation shall be issued a certification card mailed to the employing agency as proof of clearance. The agency shall immediately release the card to the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The certification card is issued to the applicant and is valid for employment with any licensed Maryland security guard agency. The card remains the property of the State and shall be returned to the State Police Licensing Division within 5 days when:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Voluntarily surrendered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Revoked by the State Police for violation of these regulations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The holder is convicted of a crime listed above; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Death of the card holder occurs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>It is the responsibility of the employing agency to notify the Licensing Division within 10 days whenever the holder of a certification card either begins or terminates employment with the agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Lost or Stolen Certification Cards.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Lost or stolen certification cards will be replaced only after an applicant submits under oath an application for a security guard certification card.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The application shall be accompanied by a notarized letter describing the circumstances of the loss.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Payment for the cost of the fingerprint card and record checks shall be charged for replacement of the card.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The applicant shall provide the required fee in the form of a money order or certified check, along with two current fingerprint cards and one photograph.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Renewal of Agency License and Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewed licenses are for a 3-year term, staggered by the Secretary. Expiration dates are either January 31 or July 31.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As a condition for license renewal, a licensee shall submit to the Secretary:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A properly completed renewal application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Statements required by Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A fee of $200 if the licensee is an individual or $400 if the licensee is a firm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Late fees which may be applicable under Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A copy of the Workers' Compensation Insurance policy if the agency employs more than one individual, unless the agency can provide documentation with the renewal application from the Workers' Compensation Commission that the agency is exempt;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A list, in a format approved by the Secretary, of registered security guards who have been hired by the agency since the previous agency license renewal process, which shall include for each security guard:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Certification number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Expiration date of certification card;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Proof that the licensee has met the requirements of Regulation .01E of this chapter regarding liability insurance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>A list of all members of the firm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>As a condition for a security guard certification renewal, it is the responsibility of the individual applicant to obtain and submit:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A renewal application to the Secretary within 90 days before the certification expiration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A renewal fee of $10;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Payment for the cost of the fingerprint card and record check by the Federal Bureau of Investigation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any applicable late fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Disqualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Disqualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an applicant for a security guard certification card does not meet the criteria listed in Regulation .02 of this chapter, the employing agency will receive written notification of disqualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal of the disqualification shall be made in writing to the Licensing Division, State Police, within 30 days of receiving written notice.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>It is the responsibility of the security guard agency to notify the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Those applicants with circumstances requiring additional investigation shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Receive written notice of disqualification pending the final decision; this notice will be mailed to the employing agency which shall be responsible for providing the applicant with a copy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be required to make an appointment to appear in person at the Department of State Police Licensing Division to discuss their applications.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Authorization for Employment Verification Required."> <text>An application may not be submitted by an applicant, and a licensee may not submit an application on behalf of an employee for any person, who is not a born or naturalized citizen of the United States, unless there is attached to the application a valid work authorization from the Immigration and Naturalization Service.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Denials of Licenses and Certifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Informal Review. On initially determining that an applicant or firm does not meet the standards set forth in Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 19, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter, the Secretary may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the applicant for a license or certification to appear for an informal review of the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ask the applicant to produce additional documentation for the Secretary to consider; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the applicant fails to appear, make a final determination to approve or deny the application for a license or certification based on the information available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Letter of Denial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On denial of the license or certification, the Secretary shall send, by certified mail, a letter advising the applicant of the reason for denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The notification letter shall include the applicable statement of law or regulation on which the decision to deny the application is based.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The letter shall advise the applicant that the applicant has 30 days from the date of the letter to submit a written request for a hearing before the Office of Administrative Hearings.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An applicant shall keep the applicant's current address on file with the Licensing Division. An applicant who has moved without notification to the Licensing Division or has refused delivery of the denial letter is deemed to be duly served the notice of denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the applicant fails to submit a written request for a hearing within 30 days of the date of the letter, the applicant is deemed to have waived the applicant's right to a hearing and the final decision will be issued.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Reprimands, Fines, Suspensions, and Revocations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To provide consistency in certain actions taken against a licensee, firm, or person that holds a security guard certification, a penalty matrix is established under §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>For the purpose of this chapter, a license term is defined as the period of time from the date of issuance of a license to the date of expiration or revocation, inclusive of all renewals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The penalty matrix is a general working guide. This regulation does not prevent the Secretary from administering any penalty deemed necessary in the best interest of the public or industry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary establishes the penalty matrix as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Category A—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category A offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Agency failing to submit notification of employment, or termination of employment within 5 days after employment or termination;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency failing to notify the Licensing Division of a change of address or telephone number, or a change of licensee or corporate officer status; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Licensee failing to ensure that the certification card is given to the employee immediately on receipt from the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category A offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Warning to agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second and third offenses: Reprimand or fine of the agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category A offenses, when assessed, shall range from $50—$500 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Category B—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category B offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Fourth and subsequent Category A offenses within the license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Licensee failing to supervise its office and employees in the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for 1 to 30 calendar days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency employing an uncertified security guard for 10 to 30 days without submitting the required application to the Secretary as required under Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-401(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, regardless of the number of hours the security guard worked during that period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Certified security guard misrepresenting himself or herself as being authorized to operate as a licensed agency while working for a licensed agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Licensee or individual failing to surrender the wall license or certification card to the Secretary within 5 days after termination of employment or expiration, cancellation, suspension, or revocation of the agency license or certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>An individual failing to display the security guard certification on request from a law enforcement officer pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-406(b), Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>A certified individual or licensee failing to return issued equipment to the security guard agency within 10 days after termination of employment pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-507(b), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>A certified security guard loaning the certification card or badge to another individual in violation of Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-603, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category B offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension of the agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category B offenses, when assessed, shall range from $100—$1,000 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Category C—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category C offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Third and subsequent Category B offenses within the license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency employing an uncertified security guard for more than 30 days, without submitting the required application to the Secretary, regardless of the number of hours the security guard worked during that period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency failing to maintain an office in this State that contains the business records made in this State pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-310, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency operating while suspended;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for 31 to 60 calendar days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Agency or individual operating in violation of any lawful order issued by the Secretary as it applies to Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 19, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category C offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category C offenses, when assessed, shall range from $250—$2,500 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Category D—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category D offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Third and subsequent Category C offenses, fourth and subsequent Category B offenses, or a combination of Category A, Category B, and Category C offenses within a license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency knowingly allowing any person that has been disapproved, suspended, or revoked to operate as a security guard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency providing armed employees, or allowing employees to be armed in the performance of their duties, without a valid handgun permit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency employing an uncertified security guard for more than 90 days without submitting the required application to the Secretary pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-410(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, regardless of the number of hours the security guard worked during that period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Agency misrepresenting status of agency or agency license to the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Agency operating without a license or soliciting business without a license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Agency failing to allow immediate inspection of records during an audit or investigation pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Agency, licensee, or certified individual knowingly providing false information, statements, or documentation to the Secretary during any investigation, application, or routine correspondence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for more than 60 calendar days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(x)"> <text>Agency failing to pay assessed fine by due date after final adjudication of appeal or after waiver of appeal rights and acceptance of penalty and fine:</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category D offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Third offense: Suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee or revocation of license;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category D offenses, when assessed, shall range from $500—$5,000 per violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Badges."> <text>Use of badges by security guard agencies is subject to the following conditions:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Authorization shall be requested in writing on the agency letterhead specifying the total number of badges required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Written approval shall be received from the State Police Licensing Division before issuing any badges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The badges used:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be numbered consecutively, within the agency, with no duplication, from number 1,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be gold finished for principals and corporate officers,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall be silver for all other employees, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Shall contain the full agency name and the words “Investigator” or “Security Guard”;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The badge will be issued only after the employee has received a State Police security guard certification card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The agency is responsible for the proper use of any badges issued; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The agency will report immediately to the Licensing Division loss or failure of a terminated employee to return a badge.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Duplicate Certification Cards."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A lost, stolen, or damaged certification card shall be reported to the Licensing Division immediately.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual reporting a lost or stolen certification card shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide a notarized letter, on company letterhead, verifying present employment and indicating the circumstances of the loss;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide any police reports, if available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make an appointment to come into the Licensing Division with proper photo identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submit two recent photos, 11/2 inches square, depicting the applicant's head and shoulders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pay a $10 processing fee by check or money order, payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual wishing replacement of a damaged certification card shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide verification on company letterhead indicating present employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Make an appointment to come into the Division with proper photo identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submit two recent photos, 11/2 inches square, depicting the applicant's head and shoulders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Pay a $10 processing fee by check or money order, payable to the Maryland State Police; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Return the damaged certification card to the Licensing Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual not currently employed by a licensed agency shall follow original application procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Duplicate or Additional Principal and Branch Office Certificates."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a principal or branch office certificate is lost or damaged, a $15 processing fee shall be charged for each certificate and shall be paid by check or money order to the Secretary before issuance of the duplicate certificate or certificates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an agency, after submission of the original application, submits a request to add a branch office or relocate an existing branch or principal office, a $15 processing fee shall be charged for each certificate and shall be paid to the Secretary before the issuance of the duplicate certificate or certificates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An agency must submit a letter on agency letterhead requesting a duplicate certificate or an additional branch office certificate that includes the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Circumstances of the destruction or loss of a certificate; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Complete address of the branch office for which an additional certificate has been requested.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Inspection of Business Records."> <text>Inspection of records means the inspection and review, during normal business hours, Monday through Friday, of any:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Records that pertain to a certified security guard or agency, including work sites, payroll records, personnel files, and employee rosters; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Other records of a licensee or agency that relate to any matter subject to certification or documentation under Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 19, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Armed Security Guards; Documentation of Weapon Information Required."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a security guard agency employs armed security guards, the agency shall maintain a list for each armed security guard of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The weapon type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The weapon's serial number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether the weapon is agency owned or personally owned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The personnel file for each armed employee shall contain a photocopy of the handgun permit for each security guard who is armed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An armed security guard may only use a weapon for which the guard has been qualified to shoot and for which the guard has submitted documentation identifying the weapon and the qualifying score to the Licensing Division Handgun Permit Section before carrying that weapon, in accordance with Public Safety Article, Title 5, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Security guards may not be armed unless they possess a valid handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Business Occupations and Professions Article, §19-202, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .19 amended effective October 10, 1983 (10:20 Md. R. 1788)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .23—.30 repealed and new Regulations .23—.26 adopted effective October 10, 1983 (10:20 Md. R. 1788)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .23 amended effective January 22, 1990 (17:1 Md. R. 71)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .23A amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307); November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .25 amended as an emergency provision effective October 24, 1983 (10:23 Md. R. 2061); amended permanently effective February 13, 1984 (11:3 Md. R. 204)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .25 amended effective January 22, 1990 (17:1 Md. R. 71)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .25B amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307); November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .25I amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .26C amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.04 to 29.04.01, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866); February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .22-1 adopted effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .23 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866); February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .24 amended and recodified to Regulation .27, and new Regulation .24 adopted effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .24K repealed effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .24-1 adopted effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .25 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .26 amended effective June 16, 1997 (24:12 Md. R. 866)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .28 adopted effective February 9, 1998 (25:3 Md. R. 147)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective July 30, 2007 (34:15 Md. R. 1350)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Special Police Commission"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Entity” means a municipal corporation, county, or other governmental body of the State; another state, or subdivision or unit of another state; a college, university, or public school system in the State; and a person that exists and functions for a legal business purpose, as referenced in Public Safety Article, §3-303 Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Industrial” means organized economic activity concerned with manufacturing, extracting, and processing of raw materials, or construction; a branch of commercial enterprise concerned with the output of a specified product or service, such as the steel industry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Industrial police force” means a police force composed of special police officers hired by an industrial business that conducts business on contiguously zoned property, primarily engaged in manufacturing and production, collectively, such as a steel manufacturing plant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Security officer” means a security officer that has successfully completed the required MPCTC training, that is hired by an entity, that is a certified law enforcement agency, which is recognized by MPCTC and whose property includes roadways as defined by Transportation Article, §11-151, Annotated Code of Maryland, highways as defined by Transportation Article, §11-127, Annotated Code of Maryland, and traffic control devices and/or signals as defined by Transportation Article, §§11-167 and 11-168, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Special police officer” means an individual who holds a commission as a special police officer as defined in Public Safety Article, §3-301, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“State of emergency” means a condition declared by the Governor for the entire State or for a county or municipal corporation if public safety is endangered or on reasonable apprehension of immediate danger to public safety caused by such things as weather, toxic hazard contamination, infrastructure collapse, or civil disturbance, as defined in Public Safety Article, §14-303, Annotated Code of Maryland</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Who May Apply for a Special Police Officer Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following entities may apply for the appointment of special police officers for the following purposes:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A municipal corporation, county, or other governmental body of the State, in order to protect property owned, leased, or regularly used by the governmental body or any of its units;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Another state, or subdivision or unit of another state, that has an interest in property located wholly or partly in this State, in order to protect the property, as defined in Public Safety Article, §3-303, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A college, university, or public school system in the State, in order to protect its property or students; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A firm, corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, or other entity existing and functioning for a legitimate and legal business purpose, in order to protect its business property.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The applicant for a commission shall be at least 18 years of age.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Application Process for an Initial Special Police Officer Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An application for an initial special police officer commission may be obtained from the Maryland State Police Licensing Division website.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Applicants shall print their name and sign a completed application and mail it to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, at 1111 Reisterstown Road, Pikesville, MD 21208, with the following items:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The application fee of $100, required by Public Safety Article, §3-304, Annotated Code of Maryland, payable to the Department of State Police in a method dictated by the Secretary, which is not refundable if the application is denied. A fee shall not be charged to any agency of the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Two, 2-inch x 2-inch head and shoulder color photographs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The electronic fingerprint processing center receipt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Certification of completion provided by the special police authorized trainer verifying the successful completion of the required 80 hours of training, unless exempt under Regulation .04B of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After an applicant’s fingerprints are submitted electronically, the applicant shall forward the fingerprint processing center receipt and completed application within 72 hours. If the applicant fails to submit the receipt and application within 72 hours, the application may be returned, as electronic fingerprint submission results are not maintained for extended periods.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Fees paid to the Licensing Division are non-refundable. Fees paid to the approved electronic fingerprint processing center do not include those fees owed to the Licensing Division for the processing of the actual application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Investigation of Applicant.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a complete and accurate application packet, the Maryland State Police Licensing Division shall, within 90 days, investigate the applicant to determine the applicant’s character, reputation, and other qualifications deemed necessary for the issuance of a commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The applicant shall supply additional information as required in connection with the investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The applicant shall be notified of the Secretary’s final decision on whether to recommend the denial or granting of the application to the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any person aggrieved by the final decision of the Secretary, may make an appeal as a contested case in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Results of the investigation, together with the Secretary’s recommendation for approval or denial, shall be sent to the Governor via the Office of the Secretary of State. Recommendations for denial shall be supported by all available documentary evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Within 30 days after the applicant has been notified of the Governor’s approval, the applicant shall report to the appropriate clerk of the court for the circuit court, to take the constitutional oath of office and accept the commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Once the oath of office has been accomplished, the applicant shall fax or electronically submit the certificate of oath to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section. Upon receipt of the certificate of oath the Maryland State Police shall forward the officer’s Special Police Commission card to the entity. The entity shall be responsible for the delivery of the Special Police Commission card to the special police officer. The file shall be adjusted to indicate that the applicant is now a special police officer with a valid commission.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Special Police Officer Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Prior to submitting an initial application, an applicant shall successfully complete a minimum of 80 hours of training verified and approved by the Police Training and Standards Commission (PTSC), which is valid for a period of 5 years.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any applicant who has received entry-level academy police training required by PTSC or held police certification in a state other than Maryland may be considered by PTSC as having completed part, or all, of the 80-hour training required for an original application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In-Service Training.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All special police officers shall successfully complete 12 hours of PTSC-approved in-service training, during the 3 years of a commission, which may be presented as in total or divided across the 3 years of a commission related to at least one of the 61 special police training objectives.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A certification of completion shall be provided by the special police authorized trainer verifying the successful completion of the required 80 hours of training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Audit Authority. All certification and training documentation and procedures approved by PTSC are subject to compliance audits.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Exemptions.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant who has, within the past 5 years of the date of application, been a police officer or successfully completed the PTSC Entry Level police officer training is exempt from completing the initial 80-hour MPCTC special police officers training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A person commissioned as a special police officer prior to October 1, 2020, shall be required to complete the in-service PTSC-approved training for the period their commission is effective, but shall not be required to complete the 80-hour PTSC-approved training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The minimum 80-hour training requirement for initial applicants shall not be required until October 1, 2020.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any other exemptions shall be considered, and approved by the Secretary when appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Training Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An entity approved by PTSC that provides the initial 80-hour special police officer training and any portion(s) of in-service training will provide persons who successfully complete the training with written certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The written certification shall be included in initial and renewal applications.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Expiration of Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Initial and renewed commissions shall expire 3 years after the date of issuance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The commission is renewable for a 3-year term if the employer of the special police officer submits a renewal application 90 days prior to a commission expiring.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The entity is responsible for renewing the special police officers’ commissions pursuant to Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Renewal Application Process for a Special Police Officer Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewal applications shall be at the Maryland State Police Licensing Division 90-days before the expiration date of the commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The requesting entity shall submit renewal applications for their special police employees to the Secretary in the format required, 90-days prior to a commission expiring.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Renewal applications received by the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, after the expiration date of a commission shall not be renewed. Renewal applications in such instances shall be returned to the entity with notification that an applicant is required to reapply as an initial or new applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Renewal applications may be obtained from the Maryland State Police Licensing Division website.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Officers shall print their name and sign a completed application and ensure it is mailed to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, with the following items:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The application fee of $60, payable to the Department of State Police, in a method dictated by the Secretary, which is not refundable if the application is denied. A fee shall not be charged to any agency of the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Two, 2-inch x 2-inch head and shoulder color photographs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The electronic fingerprint processing center receipt; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Certification of completion provided by the special police authorized trainer verifying the successful completion of the required 12 hours of training.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>After a renewal applicant’s fingerprints are submitted electronically, the applicant shall forward the fingerprint processing center receipt and completed application within 72 hours. If the applicant fails to submit the receipt and application within 72 hours, the application may be returned, as electronic fingerprint submission results are not maintained for extended periods.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Fees paid to the Licensing Division are non-refundable. Fees paid to the approved electronic fingerprint processing center do not include those fees owed to the Licensing Division for the processing of the actual renewal application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Investigation of Renewal Applicant.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Upon receipt of a special police officer’s renewal packet by the Maryland State Police, the officer applying to renew the special police commission shall be investigated for the purpose of determining his character, reputation, and other qualifications deemed necessary for the renewal issuance of a commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The renewal applicant shall supply additional information as required in connection with the investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The special police officer shall be notified of the Secretary’s recommendation for the approval or denial to renew the special police officer’s commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any person aggrieved by the final decision of the Secretary, may make an appeal as a contested case in accordance with State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Results of the investigation, together with the Secretary’s recommendation for approval or denial, shall be sent to the Governor via the Office of the Secretary of State. Recommendations for denial will shall be supported by all available documentary evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Within 30 days after the renewal applicant has been notified of the Governor’s approval, the renewal applicant shall report to the appropriate clerk of the court for the circuit court to take the constitutional oath of office and accept the commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Once the oath of office has been accomplished, the special police officer shall fax or electronically submit the certificate of oath to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section. Upon receipt of the certificate of oath, the Maryland State Police shall forward the officer’s Special Police Commission card to the employer. The employer shall be responsible for the delivery of the Special Police Commission card to the special police officer. The file shall be adjusted to indicate that the special police officer’s commission has been renewed.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Termination of Employment or Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A special police officer shall surrender to the special police officer's employer any identification or badge that identifies the individual as a special police officer within 48 hours after the suspension or termination of the employment of the special police officer or termination of the commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Within 10 days after receipt of an identification card of a special police officer whose employment was terminated, the employer shall return the Special Police Commission card, with written confirmation on the entity’s official stationery confirming the officer’s employment was terminated, to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division. Failure to comply may result in denial of future applications from that entity.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Findings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Department of State Police finds that an entity may have:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A staff of all special police officers; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A staff consisting of both special police officers and special police officers who are also MPCTC-certified police officers and are required to renew their special police commission as specified in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an entity employs both special police officers and MPCTC-certified police officers, the special police officers and MPCTC-certified police officers shall wear different uniforms. As police officers and special police officers have different limitations of police powers there shall be a means for a reasonable person under normal conditions to differentiate a special police officer from an MPCTC police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Entities shall take measures to prevent special police officers from being identified, by a reasonable person under normal conditions, as a police officer, sheriff, highway patrol, trooper, or law enforcement officer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Identification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Special police officers are prohibited from having a simulation or imitation of uniform apparel described in Public Safety Article, §3-502(d), Annotated Code of Maryland, that is worn by a police officer, sheriff, deputy sheriff, or constable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Special Police Option Designation.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>References to individuals holding a special police commission may be identified on their uniforms, vehicles, signage, or literature by the words “Special Police” or by an option designator such as “Campus Police”, “School Police”, “College Police”, “University Police”, “Hospital Police”, “Beach Police”, “Airport Police”, or a name related to the type of property or business for which protection is provided by special police officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Name identifiers that shall not be used are those that imply an entity or entity employee is a member of a law enforcement agency as defined in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Uniforms and Related Items.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .09B of this chapter, special police officers shall wear uniforms that are distinguishable from ordinary civilian clothing and shall give notice of their designation as special police officers. When on detective duty, special police officers shall carry identification properly identifying them as special police officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All special police uniforms shall, on the outermost garment, clearly state the incorporated name of the entity and the words “Special Police” or an option designator name, and shall be of the same size, style, shape, design, and type which is clearly visible by a reasonable person under normal conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Uniforms shall not display a patch, emblem, sign marking, accessory, or insignia indicating the uniforms are the property of a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Badge and Patch Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Badges and patches shall clearly state the incorporated name of the entity and the words “Special Police” or an option designator name and be visible by a reasonable person under normal conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Badges and patches shall not contain the words or seal of a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Badges and patches shall not lead a reasonable person to believe that the badge is that of a member of a law enforcement agency as defined in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Special Police Vehicle Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Special police officers who may have cause to operate an emergency vehicle as defined in Transportation Article, §11-118, Annotated Code of Maryland, shall do so in compliance with the Transportation Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, including but not limited to §§21-106 and 22-218.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Vehicles shall state the words “Special Police” or an option designator name and be visible by a reasonable person under normal conditions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Vehicles shall not contain the words or seal of a federal, state, or local law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Vehicles shall not be marked so as to lead a reasonable person to believe that the vehicle is that of a law enforcement agency as defined in Public Safety Article, §3-201, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Special Police Facility Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Special police facilities shall only display the name of the incorporated agency or option designation name.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Special police facilities shall not display any logos or identification which contains “Law Enforcement Agency” or which may cause a reasonable person believe the company is in any way associated with a federal, state, or local government.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Traffic Ingress and Egress."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To facilitate the orderly ingress and egress of traffic on public highways and roads, to and from the property of interest, the Secretary may approve traffic control details performed by special police officers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Requests for approval shall be submitted to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, on the entity’s letterhead stationery and signed by the entity’s chief of the special police officer, 30 days in advance of an entity planning to have special police officers perform traffic control functions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The exception to requesting approval 30 days in advance shall be when the Governor declares a state of emergency.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Special Police Officer’s Scope of Authority."> <text>A special police officer may:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Arrest individuals who trespass or commit offenses on the property described in the application for the commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Exercise the powers of a police officer on the property described in the application for the commission;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Exercise the powers of a police officer in a county or municipal corporation of the State in connection with the care, custody, and protection of other property of the entity that requested the appointment of the special police officer, or other property, real or personal, for which the entity has assumed a legally enforceable obligation to maintain or protect; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Direct and control traffic on public highways and roads in the immediate vicinity of the property described in the application for the commission in order to facilitate the orderly movement of traffic to and from the property, if approved under Regulation .12 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Special Police Officers Enforcing Maryland Motor Vehicle Laws."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A special police officer may make an arrest or issue a traffic citation for a violation of the Maryland Vehicle Law or any other State or local traffic law or regulation only if the special police officer has:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A probationary or permanent appointment as a security officer or is a member of an industrial police force; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Completed the basic training course for police officers as established by the Police Training and Standards Commission (PTSC), per Public Safety Article, §3-307, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A special police officer may exercise police powers only on the property of the special police officer's employer as described in the application for the commission, unless the special police officer is in active pursuit for the purpose of immediate apprehension.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The enforcement of motor vehicle laws by special police officers shall be limited to those special police officers who have successfully completed the basic training course for police officers established by PTSC. Persons holding a special police commission, and who fit the definition of a security officer or are members of an industrial police force, shall be considered eligible to take PTSC basic training course for police officers, upon meeting the Selection Standards of PTSC.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The entity shall provide proof to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, of special police officers or special police officer initial applicants who successfully completed the PTSC basic training course for police officers.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Suspended and Terminated Commissions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A commission is suspended or terminated when the employer of the special police officer files written notice with the Secretary that states that the special police officer is suspended from or terminated from the duties of a special police officer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Governor may suspend or terminate a commission:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On the recommendation of the Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>On the Governor’s own motion if the Governor finds it in the best interest of the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Suspension by the Secretary.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Governor may delegate the power to suspend a commission to the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Secretary may suspend a commission if it appears that the action is in the best interest of the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A suspension issued by the Secretary shall be reviewed by the Governor within 30 days to determine if the suspension should continue or if the commission should be terminated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The suspension or termination of a commission shall be noted in the official records of the Governor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The suspension or termination shall not take effect until 5 days after notice is sent to both the special police officer and the special police officer’s employer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>A commission does not terminate if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An employer no longer needs the services of a special police officer because the employer has transferred the business property described in the commission to another person for legal business purposes; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The new employer executes a form prepared by the Office of the Secretary of State that affirms that the new employer shall employ the special police officer to protect that business property and will assume the responsibilities of the original employer as described in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The employer of a special police officer shall immediately inform the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, Special Police Section, upon learning of a special police officer’s arrest for a felony offense.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§3-304, 3-312, and 3-313, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01A and F, .02D and E, and .03B and C amended, and .04</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">repealed, effective October 24, 1983 (10:21 Md. R. 1903)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01A, B amended effective October 25, 1993 (20:21 Md. R. 1656)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A, D amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02D amended effective October 25, 1993 (20:21 Md. R. 1656)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective October 25, 1993 (20:21 Md. R. 1656)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.05 to 29.04.02, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02C, D, E amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.03 repealed and new Regulations .01—.13 adopted effective December 26, 2022 (49:26 Md. R. 1081)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Maryland Railroad Police"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Application for Maryland Railroad Police."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Applications and renewal forms for Maryland Railroad Police may be obtained from the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794 or any Department of State Police barrack.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>All questions on the application shall be answered and the application signed under oath before a notary public. Two photographs, 1-1/2 inches x 1-1/2 inches, or a computer disk with one or two photographs, showing head and shoulders, no hat, and light background, taken within 30 days preceding the filing of application, shall be affixed to the application. The two applicant fingerprint cards supplied with the application forms shall accompany the application along with a certified check or money order payable to the Department of State Police for the amount of the application fee of $160 plus payment for the cost of the fingerprint card record checks. The fee is nonrefundable if the application is denied. Completed applications shall be forwarded to the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794 or any Department of State Police barrack. The application shall be in the form prescribed by the Secretary and may be amended from time to time as the Secretary considers appropriate.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Investigation of the Applicant."> <text>Upon receipt of the completed application and supporting material, the Secretary shall cause an investigation of the applicant to be conducted, and an appropriate recommendation will be forwarded to the Governor.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="False or Omitted Information."> <text>If investigation discloses that the applicant has provided false information on the application, or has omitted significant information on the application for Railroad Police, that falsification or omission is sufficient grounds for the Secretary to recommend the denial of the commission.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Notification of Approval or Denial."> <text>The Governor's Office shall supply to the employer or the applicant or both, notification of approval or denial.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Identification Cards."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Identification cards will be issued by the Licensing Division, Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Notification of the loss or theft of the Railroad Police identification cards shall be submitted in writing, within 10 days, to the Secretary, Maryland State Police Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794. A fee of $10, payable to the Department of State Police, by certified check or money order, shall accompany the notification to cover the administrative cost of the duplicate identification cards. The notification of loss or theft shall be submitted under oath and a notary seal. Photographs as described in Regulation .01B of this chapter shall accompany the reported loss or theft notification.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Change of Address."> <text>Any change of address regarding the Railroad Police Officer will be submitted in writing, within 10 days, to the Secretary of State Police.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Use of Handguns."> <text>Railroad Police Officers are not required to have handgun permits while actually performing their duties on railroad property. They are also not required to have handgun permits when transporting a handgun from their residence to their place of employment, or when transporting a weapon from one railroad property to another railroad property, or when acting off railroad property pursuant to Public Safety Article, §3-406, Annotated Code of Maryland. However, Railroad Police Officers will be required to have handgun permits if they wish to carry handguns while off-duty and when not acting as described herein.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, Title 3, Subtitle 4, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 4, 1980 (7:7 Md. R. 708)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective August 30, 1993 (20:17 Md. R. 1348)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective February 18, 1991 (18:3 Md. R. 307) Regulation .05B amended effective August 30, 1993 (20:17 Md. R. 1348)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.10 to 29.04.03, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Outdoor Music Festivals" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 2, 1977 (4:5 Md. R. 383)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .03A, D—F amended, and .04 repealed effective October 24, 1983 (10:21 Md. R. 1903)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A amended effective August 30, 1993 (20:17 Md. R. 1347)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.06.09 to 29.04.04, July 1994</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03A, G amended effective September 30, 2002 (29:19 Md. R. 1527)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.03 repealed effective December 12, 2013 (40:24 Md. R. 2017)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Security Systems Agencies and Technicians—Licensing and Registration"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter does not apply to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An officer or employee of a unit of the United States, a state, or any county, municipal corporation, or other political subdivision of a state while performing a duty of the office or employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A person who sells security systems at a retail establishment or by means of a catalog or brochure for future delivery, if the person does not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Enter the customer's premises or property, or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have access to circumventional information;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A commercial property owner or the owner's authorized agent performing the routine operation, including the changing of the pass codes, of a security system that protects the premises of the owner's commercial property; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A builder of commercial or residential property while installing security systems in buildings under construction that have no current occupants.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A subcontractor whose main business fits the definition of “providing security system services” shall be licensed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>This chapter does not supersede any local law or ordinance in the State that establishes standards or qualifications for an electrician or for electrical work involved in the installation of a security system or a security alarm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>This chapter supersedes any local law or ordinance in the State that requires registration, training, bonding, or insurance for security systems technicians or others who have access to circumventional information. However, it does not preempt local governments from licensing or regulating security system agencies or security system users.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Currently Licensed Electricians.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The licensing requirements of this chapter do not apply to a master electrician who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Currently is licensed in that occupation under State or local law; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Is acting only within the scope of that occupation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A master electrician may not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Personally provide security systems services unless the master electrician is registered as a security systems technician; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Obtain access to circumventional information unless the master electrician is registered as an individual with access to circumventional information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>This chapter does not authorize an individual to perform electrical work that otherwise requires an electrician's license under any State or local ordinance.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Circumventional information” means information, including pass codes, that allows an individual to alter the operation of a security system, but does not include generic user or installation manuals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Firm” means a partnership or corporation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Firm member” means a partner of a partnership or an officer or director of a corporation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“License” means a license issued by the Secretary that authorizes the licensee to engage in the business of providing security systems services for compensation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Providing security systems services” means providing, on the premises of a person's residential or commercial property, the following services:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Surveying the property for the purpose of installing a security system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Physically installing, maintaining, or repairing a security system for the customer; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Responding to a distress call or an alarm sounding from a security system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Representative member” means a firm member who is appointed under this chapter to act on behalf of the firm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of State Police or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Security systems agency” means an individual or a firm that conducts a business that provides security systems services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Security systems technician” means an individual who personally provides security systems services.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Extension of Effective Date."> <text>An individual or person who is engaged in the business of providing security system services on or before October 1, 1996, is not subject to the provisions of this chapter or required to obtain a license under this chapter until October 1, 1997.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Duration of Regulation."> <text>This chapter shall remain in effect until July 1, 2016, when it shall terminate and be of no further force and effect.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Applications and Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An application for a security systems agency license and a registration form for a security systems technician and an individual with access to circumventional information, shall be obtained from and returned with the fee and required documents to: Maryland State Police, Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .11D(3) of this chapter, the fees set forth in Regulations .06—.12 of this chapter shall be paid by a check or money order made payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="License Applications for Security Systems Agencies."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as otherwise provided in Regulation .07 of this chapter, a person shall be licensed by the Secretary before engaging in the business of providing security systems services in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the applicant for a license is a firm, the firm shall appoint a firm member as the representative member to make the application on behalf of the firm. Each firm member, representative member, and individual license applicant shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be at least 18 years old;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be of good moral character;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Complete the license application approved by the Secretary which contains a statement that willfully making a false statement on the application is a misdemeanor, subject to a fine or imprisonment, or both, as provided under Regulation .18 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submit with the application:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>At least two recommendations for the applicant, signed, under oath, by reputable citizens of the applicant's state of residence or the state where business is to be conducted,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A complete set of the applicant's legible fingerprints taken on forms approved by the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository and the Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A copy of a bond or insurance in accordance with Regulation .14 of this chapter, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>One of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Two clear and legible passport style color photographs 2 inches square, of the applicant's head and shoulders, on a light solid background, without sunglasses, hats, or other obstructions as determined by the Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A 3.5 inch computer disc containing the required photograph if the image is in a joint photographic experts groups (jpeg) format, only containing the image of the applicant's head and shoulders that can be edited to passport size, using not more than 50 kilobytes of disc space; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Maintain, in an office in the State, documents or other records that are made in the State or relate to a service performed in the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Each firm shall pay an application fee of $150 which includes the cost of the Maryland and national criminal record check. If the applicant is a firm, each firm member shall pay the cost of the Maryland and national criminal records checks.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Make inquiries and conduct an investigation regarding an applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct a State and national criminal record check for each applicant.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A license shall be issued to each applicant who meets the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Each issued license shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Full name of the licensee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Current address of the licensee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date of issuance of the license; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Date on which the license expires.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A photo identification card shall be issued to each individual licensee who meets the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Each identification card issued shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A photograph of the applicant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The date on which the card expires.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Waiver of Licensing Requirements."> <text>The Secretary may waive the requirements of Regulation .06 of this chapter and issue a license to an applicant who:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Provides adequate evidence that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is licensed to engage in the business of providing security systems services in another state, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Became licensed in another state after meeting qualifications that are at least equivalent to those required in this State including a state and national criminal record check;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Provides two photographs of the applicant, or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Pays a processing fee of $150.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="License Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall stagger the terms of the license, which expire as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A license issued February 1 through July 31 expires on the July 31 after 3 full years; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A license issued August 1 through January 31 expires on the January 31 after 3 full years.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>At least 1 month before a license expiration, the Secretary shall mail to the licensee a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Renewal application form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notice that states the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date the current license expires,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date by which the renewal application shall be received for the renewal to be issued and mailed to the licensee to avoid license expiration, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Amount of the renewal fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before receiving a license renewal notice from the Secretary, a licensee may renew a license for an additional 3-year term if the licensee:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is entitled to be licensed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submits a renewal application to the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submits a set of legible fingerprints of the licensee, and each firm member if applicable, on forms approved by the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository and the Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submits two photographs of the licensee, and of each firm member, if applicable, or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pays a renewal fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>To renew a license, the licensee shall pay:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A renewal fee of $100 which includes the cost of the Maryland criminal records check, plus the fee authorized under Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221(b)(7), Annotated Code of Maryland, for a national criminal records check; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The cost of the fingerprint records checks for each firm member.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, before renewing a license, the Secretary shall conduct a State and national criminal record check for each licensee who applies for a license renewal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Secretary may waive the State and national criminal record check required under §E of this regulation for a licensee who was issued a license under Regulation .07 of this chapter if the licensee:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submits two photographs of the licensee or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pays a $100 processing fee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shows that the license:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Issued by another state was renewed by that other state within 1 year of the expiration date of the license issued under Regulation .07 of this chapter, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal process in the other state included a state and national criminal record check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The license of each licensee who meets the requirements of this regulation shall be renewed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Temporary License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the State or national criminal records check required for renewal is not completed before a license expires, a temporary license shall be issued if all other requirements are met.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A temporary license expires at the earlier of the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Completion of the records check; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal or denial of the license.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Registration Process."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The following individuals shall register with the Secretary once every 3 years:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An individual employed by security systems agencies as security systems technicians; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An individual with access to circumventional information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Those required to register shall complete the registration form provided by the Secretary and submit the following to the Secretary:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A registration form, which has been filled out completely and signed in front of a notary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>One Criminal Justice Information System fingerprint card and one Federal Bureau of Investigation blue applicant card;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Two photographs of the registrant or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A registration fee of $15; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The cost of the FBI and CJIS fingerprint background checks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A registration shall be issued to each applicant who meets the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Each issued registration shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Full name of the registrant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Current address of the registrant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Date of the issuance of the registration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Date on which the registration expires.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as provided in §G(4) of this regulation, a pocket identification card shall be issued to a registrant who meets the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An identification card shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A photograph of the registrant; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The date on which the registration expires.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Temporary Registration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When required, the Secretary shall temporarily register an individual who:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Meets the requirements for registration; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Does not have the State or national criminal records check required.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the Secretary determines after a preliminary background investigation that the issuance of a temporary registration to an individual would result in a potential threat to public safety, the Secretary may refuse to temporarily register that individual.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A temporary registration expires upon the completion of the records check.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An applicant obtaining temporary registration shall receive a form of identification as determined by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Waiver of Registration Requirements."> <text>The Secretary may waive the requirements of Regulation .09 of this chapter and register an applicant who:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Provides adequate evidence that the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is licensed in another state to engage in the business of providing security systems services or registered in another state as a security systems technician or other individual who has access to circumventional information, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Became licensed or registered in another state after meeting qualifications that are at least equivalent to those required in this State including a state and national criminal record check;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Provides two photographs of the applicant or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Pays a processing fee of $15.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Registration Renewal."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall stagger the terms of registrations. A renewal shall be for a term that expires on the last day of the applicant's birth month following the third full year after issuance.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>At least 1 month before a registration expiration, the Secretary shall mail to the licensee a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Renewal application form; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Notice that states the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Date the current registration expires,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Date by which the renewal application shall be received for the renewal to be issued and mailed to the licensee to avoid registration expiration, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Amount of the renewal fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before receiving a registration renewal notice from the Secretary, a registrant may renew a registration for an additional 3-year term if the registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Is entitled to be registered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Submits a renewal application to the Secretary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submits a set of legible fingerprints of the registrant, on forms approved by the Criminal Justice Information System Central Repository and the Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submits two photographs or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pays a renewal fee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>To renew a registration, the registrant shall pay:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A renewal fee that is the higher of $15 or an amount the Secretary determines based on actual processing costs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The cost of the background checks; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To the Maryland State Police or to the licensed security systems agency which employs or intends to employ the registrant as a security systems technician, the mandatory processing fee required by the Federal Bureau of Investigation, for forwarding to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Except as provided in §F of this regulation, before renewing a registration, the Secretary shall conduct a national criminal record check for each registrant who applies for a registration renewal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Secretary may waive the national criminal record check required under §E of this regulation for a registrant who was registered under Regulation .10 of this chapter if the registrant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submits two photographs of the registrant or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pays a $15 processing fee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shows that the license or registration:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Issued by another state was renewed by that other state within 1 year of the expiration date of the registration issued under Regulation .10 of this chapter, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal process in the other state included a state and national criminal record check.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The registration of each registrant who meets the requirements of this regulation shall be renewed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Temporary Registration.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the national criminal records check required for renewal is not completed before a registration expires, a temporary registration shall be issued if all other requirements are met.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A temporary registration expires at the earlier of the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Completion of the records check; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal or denial of the registration.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Lost, Stolen, or Damaged Licenses and Identification Cards."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A lost, stolen, or damaged license or identification card shall be reported to the Licensing Division immediately.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual reporting a license or ID card lost or stolen shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide a notarized letter, on company letterhead, verifying present employment and indicating the circumstances of the loss;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide any police reports, if available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make an appointment to come in to the Division with proper photo identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the loss is for an ID card, submit two photographs or a digital image approved by the Secretary, as prescribed in Regulation .06B(4)(d) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pay a $10 processing fee by check or money order payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual wishing replacement of a damaged identification card shall follow the procedures listed in §B(1) and (3)—(5) of this regulation, and return the damaged card to the Licensing Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Individuals or firms not currently licensed or employed by a licensed agency shall follow original application procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Licensee's Responsibilities."> <text>The licensee's requirements are those defined in Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-308, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Employer Bond or Insurance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In order to obtain a license, an applicant shall execute a fidelity bond as provided in §B of this regulation or maintain general liability insurance as provided §C of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fidelity Bond.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The amount of the fidelity bond shall be at least $50,000.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The bond shall cover all individuals who are licensed to provide security system services, registered as security systems technicians, have access to circumventional information, or are applicants for a license or registration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the fidelity bond is canceled, forfeited, or terminated by the surety, the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Surety shall immediately notify the Secretary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Fidelity bond shall continue in effect until the Secretary is notified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>General Liability Insurance.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The amount of the general liability insurance shall be at least $50,000.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the insurance is canceled, the insured shall immediately notify the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>In addition to the penalties set forth in Regulation .18 of this chapter, a court of competent jurisdiction may enjoin the operation of an employer who violates the requirements of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Denying, Suspending, and Revoking Registrations and Licenses."> <text>The Secretary may deny a license or registration, reprimand a licensee or registrant, or suspend or revoke a license or registration if the applicant, licensee, registrant, or a firm member or employee of an applicant or licensee that is a firm:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license for the applicant or licensee or for someone else;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fraudulently or deceptively uses a license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Has a similar license denied, suspended, or revoked in another jurisdiction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Pleads guilty or nolo contendere to or is convicted of a felony, theft offense, or crime of moral turpitude;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Assists a person in fraudulently or deceptively obtaining or attempting to obtain licensure as a security systems technician under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>While not licensed, willfully engages in the business of providing security systems services or advertises as a security systems technician;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Willfully makes a false statement or misrepresentation in a renewal application or in any other document that the Secretary requires to be submitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Violates any other provision of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Hearings for Denied, Suspended, and Revoked Applications, Licenses, and Registrations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Before any final action is taken under Regulation .15 of this chapter, the person against whom the action is contemplated shall have an opportunity for a hearing before:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Secretary; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An advisory panel consisting of the following members appointed by the Secretary;</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A member of the Department of State Police;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A representative of the security systems industry; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Three members representing consumers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary or the advisory panel shall give notice and hold the hearing in accordance with the provisions of State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The hearing notice to be given to the person shall be sent by certified mail to the person's last known address at least 10 business days before the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary or the advisory panel may administer oaths in connection with any proceeding relating to the hearing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The person may be represented at the hearing by counsel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>After due notice, if the person against whom the action is contemplated fails or refuses to appear, the Secretary or the advisory panel may hear and determine the matter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A person aggrieved by a final decision of the Secretary or the advisory panel in a contested case, as defined in State Government Article, §10-202, Annotated Code of Maryland, may appeal as allowed in State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Confidentiality."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary shall keep a roster of individuals registered as security systems technicians or as individuals with access to circumventional information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Information obtained through an investigation of an applicant for a license or for registration under this chapter shall be confidential and, unless required by a court order, may not be divulged to a person who is not a law enforcement officer.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".18" heading="Penalties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A person may not engage, attempt to engage, or offer to engage in a business of providing security systems services in the State unless licensed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unless authorized under this chapter to engage in the business of providing security systems services, a person may not represent to the public, by use of the title “security systems agency” or “security systems technician”, by description of services, methods, or procedures, or otherwise, that the person is authorized to engage in the business of providing security systems services in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A person may not willfully make a false statement on an application form or other document submitted to the Secretary under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A person who violates any provision of this chapter is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine up to $1,000 or imprisonment for not more than 1 year, or both.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Procedure Article, §10-221; Business Occupations and Professions Article, §18-202; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.15 adopted as an emergency provision effective November 18, 1994 (21:25 Md. R. 2101); Emergency status expired May 1, 1995 (Emergency provisions are temporary and not printed in COMAR)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.15 adopted effective February 24, 1997 (24:4 Md. R. 295)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.15, Licensing Security Systems Technicians and Registering Sellers of Security Systems, repealed effective April 20, 1998 (25:8 Md. R. 600)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.18, Security Systems Agencies and Technicians—Licensing and Registration, adopted effective April 20, 1998 (25:8 Md. R. 600)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective February 7, 2000 (27:2 Md. R. 148)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08A, C, D, F amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective February 7, 2000 (27:2 Md. R. 148)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09A, B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10B amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 amended effective February 7, 2000 (27:2 Md. R. 148); March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12B, C amended effective March 1, 2004 (31:4 Md. R. 318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16 amended effective February 7, 2000 (27:2 Md. R. 148)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Armored Car Guard Supplemental Background Investigations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Approved armored car company” is an armored car company that has applied for and been approved to complete supplemental background investigations</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Armored car company”, as defined in 15 U.S.C. §5904(2) (Title 15. Commerce and Trade; Chapter 85. Armored Car Industry Reciprocity), means a company subject to regulation under subchapter I of chapter 135 of title 49, United States Code (49 U.S.C. §§13501 et seq.) and that is registered under chapter 139 of such title (49 U.S.C. §§13901 et seq.), in order to engage in the business of transporting and protecting currency, bullion, securities, precious metals, supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits, and other articles of unusual value in interstate commerce.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Armored car guard” means an individual employed by an armored car company to provide armored car services and who carries a firearm or is authorized by the employer to access a firearm when providing armored car services.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Armored car services” means services provided by an armored car company on a contractual basis for another person, firm, association, or corporation for a fee or other valuable consideration and performs the following primary function of providing secured transportation and protection from one place or point to another place or point of money, currency, coins, bullion, securities, checks, documents, stocks, bonds, jewelry, paintings, and other valuables for a fee or other valuable consideration</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Investigation supervisor” refers to the individual or individuals, assigned by the Secretary, to review and approve background investigations for wear and carry handgun permits issued by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Supplemental background investigation”, as defined pursuant to Public Safety Article, §5-305, Annotated Code of Maryland, refers to a background investigation submitted to the Maryland State Police that is completed by a representative of an approved armored car company, to be considered with the additional required background investigation conducted by the Maryland Department of State Police, as described in Public Safety Article, §5-306, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Generally."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An armored car company shall complete an application, in a format determined by the Secretary, to be considered to conduct supplemental background investigations to be considered in the issuance of wear and carry handgun permits to armored car guards for their company.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Once approved by the Secretary to conduct and submit supplemental background investigations, an armored car company shall submit supplemental background investigations in a format determined by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A valid supplemental background investigation shall meet the same requirements as those required for all wear and carry handgun permit applicants, including any limitations or restrictions imposed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Eligibility for Supplemental Background Investigations Conducted by an Armored Car Company."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Only armored car companies, as defined in Regulation .01 of this chapter, shall be eligible to apply to conduct supplemental background investigations to be considered in the issuance of a wear and carry handgun permit by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A separate application and approval is required for each individual armored car company seeking to conduct wear and carry handgun permit supplemental background investigations, regardless of the ownership or relationship to any other approved armored car company.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An armored car company approved by the Secretary under this chapter may conduct and submit supplemental background investigations only for active employees of their company. Armored car companies are not required to conduct their own background investigations and may, at any time, submit applications for wear and carry handgun permits for investigation by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Application Process to Become an Approved Armored Car Company."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Any application submitted by a company that does not meet the definition of an armored car company, as defined in Regulation .01 of this chapter will not be considered for approval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Any armored car company seeking to be approved to conduct supplemental background investigations shall be provided with an application packet in a format determined by the Secretary. This packet will include:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A listing of guidelines for submission of supplemental investigations for wear and carry handgun permit applicants;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A detailed listing of mandatory requirements to be included in the wear and carry handgun permit supplemental background investigation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A copy of the relevant provisions listed in COMAR 29.03.01.03, Public Safety Article, Title 5, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland, and any other relevant sections of law which directly relate to the issuance of wear and carry handgun permits as prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An armored car company shall submit the completed application, in the format determined by the Secretary, to be considered for approval to conduct wear and carry handgun permit supplemental background investigations.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>All completed applications submitted to the Secretary shall include the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Proof that the company meets the definition of an armored car company, as defined in Regulation .01B of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A sample supplemental background investigation which has been completed utilizing the format and requirements provided for and outlined in §B(1)—(3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Process for an Approved Armored Car Company to Conduct Supplemental Background Investigations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An armored car company seeking approval to complete supplemental background investigations shall submit an application in compliance with Regulation .04 of this chapter. All applications shall be reviewed for completeness and accuracy. Only completed applications shall be considered for approval. Completed applications shall be reviewed by the investigation supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The armored car company’s application shall be approved or disapproved by the reviewing member of the Maryland State Police following the informal hearing. The applying company shall be notified of their approval or disapproval in writing. Any company that is disapproved will receive an explanation from the investigation supervisor for their disapproval.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>After approval of the application, a meeting will occur between the investigation supervisor and representatives of the armored car company that filed the application and will be completing the supplemental investigation to complete orientation and training. The armored car company may be questioned further regarding its policy and procedures used to complete the sample background investigation submitted with the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An approved armored car company shall receive an orientation packet from the investigation supervisor, with detailed instructions regarding the submission, correction, and approval of supplemental background investigations.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Process for Wear and Carry Handgun Permit — Employees of an Approved Armored Car Company."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>These procedures will apply to all submitted wear and carry handgun permit applications for armored car guards, with the exception of those submitted under Regulation .03C of this chapter to be investigated solely by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Armored car companies shall submit completed supplemental background investigations together with the appropriately completed wear and carry handgun permit application. These will be submitted in the format established by the Secretary and in compliance with the procedures as outlined in COMAR 29.03.02.04 for the submission of wear and carry handgun permit applications.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Applications received without the supplemental background investigation shall be assigned to a member of Maryland State Police for investigation. Any supplemental background investigation completed by an approved armored car company submitted separately from the wear and carry handgun permit application will not be accepted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Supplemental background investigations completed by armored car companies shall be used in determining the qualification of the applying armored car guard for a wear and carry handgun permit. The supplemental background investigation shall be used in conjunction with, not in lieu of, the required additional investigation by the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Compliance."> <text>All supplemental background investigations completed by an approved armored car company shall be subject to review and audit by the Secretary or designee.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Revocation of Approval to Submit Supplemental Background Investigations for Handgun Permits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An approved armored car company that submits supplemental background investigations for wear and carry handgun permits which do not meet the requirements as determined by the Secretary may have their approval to complete supplemental background investigations revoked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An armored car company shall receive written notification of the revocation of their approval to complete supplemental background investigations. An armored car company that has its privilege revoked may be allowed to reapply for consideration to conduct supplemental background investigations for wear and carry handgun permits.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §5-305, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 29, 2016 (43:4 Md. R. 333)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Protective Body Armor"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Ammunition” means any cartridge, shell, or other device containing explosive or incendiary material designed and intended for use in a firearm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Bulletproof body armor” means any material or object that is designed to cover or be worn on any part of the body to prevent, deflect, or slow down the penetration of ammunition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Crime of violence” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Drug trafficking crime” has the meaning stated in Criminal Law Article, §5-621, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Firearm” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A handgun, antique firearm, rifle, shotgun, short-barreled shotgun, or short-barreled rifle, as defined in Criminal Law Article, §4-201, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A machine gun, as defined in Criminal Law Article, §4-401, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A regulated firearm, as defined in Public Safety Article, §5-101, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An assault pistol, as defined in Criminal Law Article, §4-301, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the State Police or the Secretary's designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Bulletproof Body Armor Petition for Permit."> <text>A person with a prior conviction for a crime of violence or a drug trafficking crime may file, for good cause shown, a petition with the Secretary for a permit to use, possess, and purchase bulletproof body armor.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Application for a Permit to Use, Possess, or Purchase Bulletproof Body Armor."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Applications may be obtained from the Maryland State Police Licensing Division or any Department of State Police barrack.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Completed applications shall be filed with the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Application Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All questions on the application shall be answered, typed or printed. The application shall be signed under oath before a notary public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Photographs or computer images must have been taken within 30 days preceding the filing of the application, and shall be affixed to the application. The format shall be as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Two photographs, 11/2 inches by 11/2 inches, with no hat, showing head and shoulders, and on a light background; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In place of the photographs under §C(2)(a) of this regulation, a 31/2 inch computer disc containing a digital photographic image of the applicant in a JPEG format with no hat, showing head and shoulders, and on a light background.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Investigation of Applicant."> <text>Upon receipt of the application and the supporting material described, the Secretary shall conduct an investigation of the applicant to determine whether the applicant possesses the qualifications for a permit as required by Criminal Law Article, §4-107, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Criteria for Issuance of Permit."> <text>To determine whether a permit may be issued to an applicant, the following areas shall be investigated and considered:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Verification of the information supplied by an applicant in the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Occupation or profession of the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Criminal record of the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The interests of justice;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Medical history of the applicant as it may pertain to the applicant's fitness to use, purchase, or possess protective body armor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Psychiatric or psychological background of the applicant as it may pertain to the applicant's fitness to use, purchase, or possess protective body armor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Validity of reasons given by the applicant;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>The totality of the circumstances;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Applicant's excessive or habitual use of intoxicating beverages and drugs;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Information received from personal references and other people interviewed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Information received from business or employment references as may be necessary in the discretion of the investigator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Whether the applicant has any alternative available to him for protection other than wearing protective body armor; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>The applicant's propensity for violence or instability which could reasonably render his owning, purchasing, or possessing protective body armor a danger to himself or to others.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="False or Omitted Information."> <text>If the investigation discloses that the applicant has furnished false information on the application for the permit, or has omitted significant information on the application for the permit, or has caused false information to be given in connection with the investigation, the Secretary may consider that activity to be a basis for denial of the permit.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Notification of Issuance or Denial of Permit."> <text>Upon the completion of the investigation, the Secretary shall notify the applicant by letter either that the permit has been issued or that it has been denied.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Renewal of Permit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An application for renewal of a permit to use, possess, or purchase protective body armor shall contain the same information and type of photographs, or digital disc, as for an original application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A permit issued under this chapter expires in the 5th year after the date of its issuance, on the last day of the applicant's month of birth.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A permit shall be renewed for successive periods of 5 years if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Files an application for renewal at any time during the 3 months prior to the expiration of the permit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At the time of application, possesses the qualifications set forth in this chapter for the issuance of a permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Replacement or Modification of Permits."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a permit to use, possess, or purchase protective body armor is lost or stolen, notification of the loss or theft shall be made in writing to the Secretary at the Maryland State Police Licensing Division, 7751 Washington Boulevard, Jessup, Maryland 20794, within 10 days upon discovery of the loss or theft. An affidavit, under oath before a notary public, stating that the permit has been lost or stolen, shall accompany the notification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant may file a request to modify a permit to use, possess, or purchase protective body armor. The request shall be made in writing to the Secretary and shall be accompanied by a photograph or digital photographic image meeting the requirements of Regulation .03C(2) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Change of Address or Employment."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If there is a change of address of an individual to whom a permit to use, purchase, or possess protective body armor has been issued, the individual shall notify the Secretary in writing, within 10 days of the change.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an individual to whom a permit to use, purchase, or possess protective body armor has been issued changes employment, and the permit has been issued in conjunction with the individual's employment, the Secretary shall be notified by the individual in writing within 10 days of any changes in employment status.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Revocation of Permit."> <text>The Secretary may revoke a permit issued or renewed at any time on a finding that a permit holder:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>No longer satisfies the qualifications set forth in Regulation .05 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Made false statements or false representation in a renewal application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Altered or forged a permit to use, purchase, or possess protective body armor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Sold, rented, or otherwise transferred a protective body armor permit to another person;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Violated any of the permit restrictions imposed by the Secretary as provided by Criminal Law Article, §4-107, Annotated Code of Maryland; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Failed to notify the Secretary, within 10 days, of any change in address, or if the applicant's permit was issued in conjunction with employment purposes, a change in employment status.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Review of Denial or Revocation of Permit."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Any person whose application for a permit or renewal of a permit has been rejected or whose permit has been revoked or limited may request the Secretary to conduct an informal review by filing a written request within 10 days after receipt of written notice of the Secretary's initial action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The informal review may include a personal interview with the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Pursuant to the informal review, the Secretary shall sustain, reverse, or modify the initial action taken and notify the applicant of the decision in writing within 30 days after receipt of the request for an informal review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Any person aggrieved by a decision of the Secretary may seek review under State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Criminal Law Article, §§4-106—4-107, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: April 28, 2003 (30:8 Md. R. 543)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="08" heading="Private Detective Agency Licenses and Private Detective Certifications"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Applicant for Agency License."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, “licensee” includes an applicant for a private detective agency license, except that written charges may not be filed against an applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An applicant shall submit an application provided by the Secretary of State Police with the following signatures:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If the applicant is an individual, the application form shall be signed under oath by the individual; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the applicant is a firm, the application form shall be signed under oath by the representative member and all other members of the firm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An applicant for a license shall pay to the Secretary an application fee as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Individual—$200;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Firm—$375;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For a license for both an unincorporated private detective agency and security guard agency under the same licensee name submitted simultaneously—$375;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>For a license for both an incorporated private detective agency and security guard agency under the same licensee name submitted simultaneously—$750;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>For a license as a firm member—$42; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>For a license as a representative member—$42.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An applicant shall submit to the Secretary a complete set of the applicant's legible fingerprints taken on standard fingerprint cards, accompanied by payment for the costs of the fingerprint card record checks, which are $24 for the Federal Bureau of Investigation and $18 for the Criminal Justice Information System. If the applicant is a firm, the applicant shall pay the cost of the fingerprint card record checks for each firm member.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Recommendations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant shall submit three notarized recommendations for the individual, or, if a firm, three notarized recommendations for each member of the firm.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each recommendation shall be prepared by a reputable citizen who owns property in the county where the individual applicant or firm member resides or where the business of the private detective agency is to be conducted.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>An applicant for a license who intends to employ at least five individuals as private detectives shall submit with the application proof of liability insurance in an amount not less than $1,000,000, as required under Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-604, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Photograph.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An applicant, and each member of a firm, or representative member wishing to be a certified private detective, who will be engaging in private detective services, shall submit two photographs, 11/2 inches square, of the applicant's head and shoulders.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Printed computer-generated photographs that are similar to the size indicated in §G(1) of this regulation and represent a clear display of the applicant's head and shoulders are acceptable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A completed application form shall include the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Address of the applicant's proposed principal place of business and of each proposed branch office;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Trade name, as approved by the Department of Assessments and Taxation, or fictitious name that the applicant intends to use while conducting the business of the private detective agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submission of a facsimile of any trademark that the applicant intends to use while conducting the business of the private detective agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Verification that the applicant or firm has established a Maryland Sales Tax Account for the agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>If the applicant is a firm, copies of the articles of incorporation and any resolutions passed by the board of directors showing that the representative member is a corporate office of the firm; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A signed copy of the Authorization for Release of Information.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>A nonresident applicant shall submit a consent and any related document, as required by Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-605, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Renewal of Agency License."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewed private detective agency licenses are for a 2-year term, staggered by the Secretary. Expiration dates are either January 31 or July 31.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As a condition for license renewal, a licensee shall submit to the Secretary:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A properly completed renewal application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Statements required by Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A fee of $200 if the licensee is an individual or $400 if the licensee is a firm;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Late fees that may be applicable under Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Proof that the licensee has met the requirements of Regulation .01F of this chapter regarding liability insurance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A list of all members of the firm.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Application.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each individual employee of a private detective agency acting as a private detective is required to submit an application on forms prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The licensed agency will be provided with applications that shall be completed by the agency and the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The fee for a private detective certification is $15 plus payment for the cost of both the State and national fingerprint card record checks. The check or money order shall be made payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>An applicant shall mail or deliver the application to the Licensing Division with the appropriate completed forms, fees, fingerprint cards, and two photographs as provided for in §A(5) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Photographs.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The photographs required under §A(4) of this regulation shall be of the applicant's head and shoulders, 11/2 inches square, no hat and light background, taken within 30 days before the filing of the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Printed computer-generated photographs that are similar to the size indicated in §A(5)(a) of this regulation and represent a clear display of the applicant's head and shoulders are acceptable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If the applicant is approved as a private detective, an identification card shall be issued on a form prescribed by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The applicant may be denied a private detective identification card if the applicant:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Has been convicted of a crime of violence, which is defined here as:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Abduction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Arson;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Burglary, including common law and all statutory and storehouse forms of burglary offenses;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Escape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Housebreaking;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Kidnapping;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Manslaughter, excepting involuntary manslaughter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Mayhem;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Murder;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Rape;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Robbery;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Sodomy; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>An attempt to commit any of the above offenses, or assault with intent to commit any other offense for which the court sentences an individual to imprisonment for more than 1 year;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Has been convicted of a felony;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Is a habitual drunkard;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Is a fugitive from justice, which is defined as a person who has fled from a sheriff or other peace officer within this State, or who has fled from any state, territory, or the District of Columbia, or possession of the United States, to avoid prosecution for a crime of violence or to avoid giving testimony in any criminal proceeding;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Is addicted to or a habitual user of narcotics, barbiturates, or amphetamines;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Has been confined to a mental institution for treatment of a mental disorder or disorders, unless there is attached to the application a physician's certificate, issued within 30 days before the application, certifying that the applicant is of no danger to the applicant or others;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Has falsified any information on the applicant's application; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Has been convicted of any criminal act directly related to the applicant's employment with a detective agency licensed or required to be licensed by the State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The private detective identification card is issued to the applicant and is valid for employment only with the private detective agency through which the applicant obtained private detective certification. The card remains the property of the State and shall be returned to the State Police Licensing Division within 5 days after:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It is voluntarily surrendered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>It is revoked by the State Police for violation of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The holder is convicted of a crime listed in §C of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Death of the card holder occurs; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The holder terminates employment with the private detective agency through which the applicant obtained private detective certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>It is the responsibility of the employing agency to notify the State Police Licensing Division when the holder of a private detective identification card is terminated from employment with the agency.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Renewal of Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Renewed private detective certifications are for a 3-year term.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>As a condition for certification renewal, an applicant shall submit to the Licensing Division:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A properly completed renewal application; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A fee of $15 plus payment for the cost of both the State and national fingerprint card record checks.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The check or money order shall be made payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The applicant shall mail or deliver the application to the Licensing Division with the appropriate completed forms, fees, fingerprint cards, and two photographs.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Photographs.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The photographs required under §D of this regulation shall be of the applicant's head and shoulders, 11/2 inches square, no hat and light background, taken within 30 days before the filing of the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Printed computer-generated photographs that are similar to the size indicated in §E(1) of this regulation and represent a clear display of the applicant's head and shoulders are acceptable.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Authorization for Employment Verification Required."> <text>An application may not be submitted by an applicant, and a licensee may not submit an application on behalf of an employee for any person who is not a born or naturalized citizen of the United States, unless there is attached to the application a valid work authorization from the Immigration and Naturalization Service.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Certification Card."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual applying for employment as a private detective, on certification, shall be issued a certification card by the State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The issuance and form of the certification shall be in conformance with Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-406, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Duplicate Certification Cards."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A lost, stolen, or damaged certification card shall be reported to the Licensing Division immediately.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An individual reporting a lost or stolen certification card shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide a notarized letter, on company letterhead, verifying present employment and indicating the circumstances of the loss;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Provide any police reports, if available;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make an appointment to come into the Licensing Division with proper photo identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Submit two recent photos, 1-1/2 inches square, depicting the applicant's head and shoulders; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Pay a $10 processing fee by check or money order, payable to the Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual wishing replacement of a damaged certification card shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Provide verification on company letterhead indicating present employment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Make an appointment to come into the Licensing Division with proper photo identification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Submit two recent photos, 1-1/2 inches square, depicting the applicant's head and shoulders;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Pay a $10 processing fee by check or money order, payable to the Maryland State Police; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Return the damaged certification card to the Licensing Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual not currently employed by a licensed agency shall follow original application procedures.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Badges."> <text>Use of badges by private detective agencies is subject to the following conditions:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Authorization shall be requested in writing on agency letterhead specifying the total number of badges required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Written approval shall be received from the Maryland State Police Licensing Division before issuing any badges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The badges used:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be numbered consecutively within the agency, with no duplication, from number 1;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May be gold finished for principals and corporate officers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Shall be silver for all other employees; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Shall contain the full agency name and the word “Investigator”;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The badge shall be issued only after the employee has received a State Police private detective certification card (Investigator);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The agency is responsible for the proper use of any badges issued; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The agency shall report immediately to the Licensing Division loss of a badge or failure of a terminated employee to return a badge.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Disqualification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Disqualification.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>If an applicant for a private detective certification card does not meet the standards set forth in Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 13, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter, the employing agency shall receive written notification of disqualification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal of the disqualification shall be made in writing to the Licensing Division, State Police, within 30 days of receiving written notice.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>It is the responsibility of the private detective agency to notify the applicant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Those applicants with circumstances requiring additional investigation will:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Receive written notice of disqualification pending the final decision, mailed to the employing agency, which is responsible for providing the applicant with a copy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be required to make an appointment to appear in person at the Maryland State Police Licensing Division to discuss their applications.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Denials of Licenses and Certifications."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Informal Review. On initially determining that an applicant or firm does not meet the standards set forth in Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 13, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter, the Secretary may:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Notify the applicant to appear for an informal review of the application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Ask the applicant to produce additional documentation for the Secretary to consider; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If the applicant fails to appear, make a final determination to approve or deny the application for a license or certification based on the information available.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Letter of Denial.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>On denial of the license or certification, the Secretary shall send, by certified mail, a letter advising the applicant of the reason for denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The notification letter shall include the applicable statement of law or regulation on which the decision to deny the application is based.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The letter shall advise the applicant that the applicant has 30 days from the date of the letter to send in a written appeal to the Licensing Division.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An applicant shall keep the applicant's current address on file with the Licensing Division. An applicant who has moved without notification to the Licensing Division or has refused delivery of the denial letter is deemed to be duly served the notice of denial.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If the applicant fails to submit a written appeal within 30 days, the applicant is deemed to have waived the applicant's rights to appeal and the proposed action becomes final.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Appointment of Licensee Upon Vacancy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon the vacancy of a representative member, an agency shall comply with the time requirements for appointment of a new licensee pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-311, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>An agency may sponsor a new applicant for consideration by the Secretary; however, an appointment may not be made until the Secretary determines that the new applicant qualifies for an agency license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>In order for the Secretary to have sufficient time to process the new application and determine the background and qualifications of the new licensee applicant upon a vacancy, an agency shall submit the application to the Secretary within 30 days after the date of the vacancy.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If, for any reason, an agency does not submit an application for a new licensee within 30 days after a vacancy, the agency shall be automatically suspended pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-701, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An agency shall remain suspended until such time as the Secretary completes the background investigation and issues a license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>If an individual holding an agency license vacates the position or the position is vacated by a death, an agency license shall be voided and a new license issued on application, completed investigation, and approval by the Secretary. If the agency continues to use the same trade name, additional fees are not assessed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>If the applicant has submitted the application within 30 days of the vacancy, and the Secretary has not received the fingerprint background results within 90 days from the date of the application:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A computer background check shall be conducted of the applicant based on identifying characteristics and information provided on the application form;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the applicant otherwise qualifies, a license may be approved and issued to the applicant based on the investigation and computer background checks results; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Unless the fingerprint results or any other investigation reveals a disqualifying offense or questionable character, further action will not be taken by the Secretary.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Surrender of Agency License or Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A private detective agency license or certification card issued to the applicant is valid only for the agency identified on the license or certification card.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The card remains the property of the State and shall be returned to the Secretary by the licensee or the card holder, through the Licensing Division, within 5 days after:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It is voluntarily surrendered;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>It is suspended or revoked by the Secretary for violation of this chapter or Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 13, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The holder is convicted of a crime listed in Regulation .03C of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Death of the holder occurs; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>In the case of a person holding a certification, the holder terminates employment with the private detective agency through which the applicant obtained a private detective certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Armed Private Detectives; Documentation of Weapon Information Required."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>If a private detective agency employs armed private detectives, the agency shall maintain a list for each armed private detective of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The weapon type;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The weapon's serial number; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Whether the weapon is agency owned or personally owned.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The personnel file for each armed employee shall contain a photocopy of the handgun permit for each private detective who is armed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An armed private detective may only use a weapon for which the private detective has been qualified to shoot and for which the private detective has submitted documentation identifying the weapon and the qualifying score to the Licensing Division Handgun Permit Section before carrying that weapon, in accordance with Public Safety Article, Title 5, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Private detectives may not be armed unless they possess a valid handgun permit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Reprimands, Fines, Suspensions, and Revocations."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>To provide consistency in certain actions taken against any licensee, firm, or person that holds a private detective certification, a penalty matrix is established in §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>For the purpose of this chapter, a license term is defined as the period of time from the date of issuance of a license to the date of expiration or revocation, inclusive of all renewals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The penalty matrix is a general working guide. This regulation does not prevent the Secretary from administering any penalty deemed necessary in the best interest of the public or industry.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Secretary establishes the penalty matrix as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Category A—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category A offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Agency failing to notify the Licensing Division of a change of address or telephone number, or a change of licensee or corporate officer status;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency using badges not approved by the Secretary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency using a trade name not approved through the State;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category A offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Warning to agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second and third offenses: Reprimand or fine of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category A offenses, when assessed, shall range from $50—$500 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Category B—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category B offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Fourth and subsequent Category A offenses within the license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Licensee failing to supervise its office and employees in the State;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for 1 to 30 days;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency employing uncertified private detectives for 10 to 30 days without submitting the required application to the Secretary as required under Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-401, Annotated Code of Maryland, regardless of the number of hours the private detective worked during that period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Private detective misrepresenting himself or herself as being authorized to operate as a licensed private detective while working for a licensed agency;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Licensee or individual failing to surrender the wall license or certification card to the Secretary within 5 days of termination of employment or expiration, cancellation, suspension, or revocation of the agency license or certification;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Individual failing to display the private detective certification on request from a law enforcement officer pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-407, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Certified individual or licensee failing to return issued equipment to the private detective agency within 10 days after termination of employment pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-607(b), Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>A certified private detective loaning the certification card or badge to another individual in violation of Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-703, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category B offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category B offenses, when assessed, shall range from $100—$1,000 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Category C—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category C offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Third and subsequent Category B offenses within the license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency employing an uncertified private detective for more than 30 calendar days, without submitting the required application to the Secretary, regardless of the number of hours the private detective worked during that period;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency failing to maintain an office in this State that contains the business records made in this State pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-310, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency operating while suspended;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for 31 to 60 calendar days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Agency or individual operating in violation of any lawful order issued by the Secretary as it applies to Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 13, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category C offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Reprimand, fine, or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category C offenses, when assessed, shall range from $250—$2,500 per violation;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Category D—Offenses and Penalties:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Category D offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Third and subsequent Category C offenses, fourth and subsequent Category B offenses, or a combination of Category A, Category B, and Category C offenses within a license term;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Agency knowingly allowing a person that has been disapproved, suspended, or revoked to operate as a private detective;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Agency providing armed employees, or allowing employees to be armed in the performance of their duties, without a valid handgun permit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Agency misrepresenting the status of the agency or agency license to the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Agency operating without a license or soliciting business without a license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vi)"> <text>Agency failing to allow immediate inspection of records during an audit or investigation pursuant to Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-309, Annotated Code of Maryland;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(vii)"> <text>Agency, licensee, or certified individual knowingly providing false information, statements, or documentation to the Secretary during any investigation, application, or routine correspondence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(viii)"> <text>Agency operating with a license that has been expired for more than 60 calendar days; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ix)"> <text>Agency failing to pay assessed fine by the due date after final adjudication of appeal or after waiver of appeal rights and acceptance of penalty and fine;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The penalties for Category D offenses are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>First offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Second offense: Fine or suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Third offense: Suspension of agency, licensee, or certified employee or revocation of license;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Fines for Category D offenses, when assessed, shall range from $500—$5,000 per violation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Business Occupations and Professions Article, §13-202, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 30, 2007 (34:15 Md. R. 1350)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="05" heading="Crime Laboratory"> <chapter num="01" heading="Statewide DNA Data Base System and Repository"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Arraignment” means the earlier of the appearance of counsel or the scheduled or actual initial appearance of the defendant before the circuit court pursuant to Maryland Rule 4-213, even if waived by the defendant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Arrestee” means an individual required to provide a DNA sample, pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, after being charged with:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Burglary or an attempt to commit burglary, or a crime of violence as enumerated in Criminal Law Article, §14-101(a), Annotated Code of Maryland, except for mayhem; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any attempt to commit the crimes referred to in §B(2)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Burglary” includes the crimes enumerated in Criminal Law Article, §§6-202—6-204, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Charged.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Charged” means an individual against whom a written accusation has been made alleging that a defendant has committed an offense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Charged” includes a citation, an indictment, an information, and a statement of charges.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“CODIS” means the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Combined DNA Index System that allows the storage and exchange of DNA records submitted by federal, state, and local law enforcement systems.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“CODIS requirements” means the policies and procedures established by NDIS and the Federal Bureau of Investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6-1)"> <text>“Collected” means collected and submitted to a crime lab for testing.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Crime Laboratory” or “Crime Lab” means the Department of State Police, Forensic Sciences Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Crime of violence” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Those crimes enumerated in Criminal Law Article, §14-101, Annotated Code of Maryland, except mayhem; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Attempts to commit the crimes referred to in §B(8)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Detention facility” means a State prison, county jail facility, or Department of State Police installation used for the purpose of sample collection.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Department of State Police Crime Laboratory, or the Director's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“DNA” means deoxyribonucleic acid.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“DNA data base collection kit” or “kit” means the kit provided by the Crime Laboratory for the collection of DNA arrestee or convicted offender samples.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“DNA record” means DNA information stored in the Statewide DNA Data Base System of the Department of State Police, Crime Laboratory, or CODIS, and includes that information commonly referred to as a DNA profile.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“DNA sample” means a body fluid or tissue sample provided by an individual convicted of or charged with a qualifying crime pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, or a body fluid or tissue sample submitted to the Statewide DNA Data Base System for analysis pursuant to a criminal investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>Expungement.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Expungement” means the removal and destruction of the arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample and the deletion of testing results from CODIS.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Expungement” does not include a record by the Crime Lab of information related to the taking or destruction of a sample.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(16)"> <text>“FBI Standards” means the:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Quality Assurance Standards for Forensic DNA Testing Laboratories (effective October 1, 1998); and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quality Assurance Standards for Convicted Offender DNA Databasing Laboratories (effective April 1, 1999).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(17)"> <text>“Forensic or evidence sample” means DNA obtained from an item of evidence or a individual, including suspect samples, other than one required to be collected pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(18)"> <text>“Immediately” means as soon as practicable and does not require any actions to be taken during weekends, holidays, or periods other than when normal State business is conducted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(19)"> <text>“Letter” includes any writing regardless of format and includes electronic notifications and transmittals.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(20)"> <text>“Local law enforcement agency” or “local law enforcement unit” means the agency of a county or municipal corporation in the State that performs police protection functions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(21)"> <text>“Notice” means any notification, whether verbal or in writing, sent by regular first-class mail, facsimile, or email.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(22)"> <text>“PCR” means polymerase chain reaction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(23)"> <text>“Personal identification information” means that information pertaining to the sample donor's name, state identification number, or any other traceable number or information that is directly associated with that person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(24)"> <text>“Placed” means entered.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(25)"> <text>“Population data base” means a collection of DNA profiles, usually grouped by race, used for statistical evaluation, research, quality control, and protocol development of forensic DNA analysis methods. Personal identification information is not associated with this data base.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(26)"> <text>“Qualifying crime” means those offenses that require collection of a DNA sample upon arrest or conviction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(27)"> <text>“Qualifying crime upon arrest” includes:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A burglary or attempt to commit burglary, or a crime of violence as enumerated in Criminal Law Article, §14-101(a), Annotated Code of Maryland, except mayhem; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Any attempt to commit the crimes referred to in §B(27)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(28)"> <text>“Qualifying crime upon conviction” includes the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All felonies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Fourth degree burglary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Breaking and entering of a motor vehicle.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(29)"> <text>“Secretary” means the Secretary of the State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(30)"> <text>“State Police” means the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(31)"> <text>“Statewide DNA Data Base System” means the DNA record system administered by the Department of State Police, Crime Laboratory for identification purposes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(32)"> <text>“Statewide DNA repository” means the Department of State Police, Crime Laboratory repository of DNA samples collected under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(33)"> <text>“Target DNA file” means a DNA profile originating from case material to be searched against the Statewide DNA Data Base System.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(34)"> <text>“Testing” means DNA typing tests that generate identification information and are obtained from a DNA sample. The term “testing” and “analysis” are, for the purposes of this chapter, interchangeable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(35)"> <text>“Typing results” means the information generated during the forensic analysis (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLP), PCR-based technologies, or current acceptable techniques for forensic analysis) of a DNA sample, sometimes referred to as a DNA profile.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01-1" heading="Incorporation by Reference."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following documents are incorporated by reference.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Documents Incorporated.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Quality Assurance Standards for Forensic DNA Testing Laboratories (October 1, 1998).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Quality Assurance Standards for Convicted Offender DNA Databasing Laboratories (April 1, 1999).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Introduction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Scope.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>This chapter governs only the collection, submission, receipt, identification, testing, storage, and disposal of DNA samples from individuals arrested and charged or convicted, or both, for various specified crimes and the entry of the samples into the State DNA Data Base System and CODIS pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland. This chapter does not govern evidentiary, suspect, and forensic samples otherwise legally obtained, whether by search warrant, court order, consent, or other method except as specifically provided in Regulation .16 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If an individual is suspected of committing a crime and a law enforcement agency wishes to obtain a DNA sample from the suspect to compare to evidence collected at a crime scene, and obtains court authorization to collect the DNA sample at the time of arrest, this sample is not one collected pursuant to this chapter and is not, therefore, handled in accordance with this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>As noted in §A(2) of this regulation, if an individual's DNA sample is collected pursuant to a court authorization, such as a search warrant or court order, at the time of the individual's arrest, another DNA sample shall also be taken upon charging if the arrest is for a qualifying crime as set forth in this chapter. This DNA data base sample shall be handled in accordance with the terms of this chapter, including the time of taking, analyzing, and expungement, if applicable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If an individual's DNA sample is taken pursuant to court authorization and not due to the individual's being arrested and charged for a qualifying crime under this chapter, the regulations concerning collection, analysis, use, and expungement are not applicable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Only DNA data base samples that are required to be taken pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, are subject to the terms and requirements of this chapter except as specifically provided in Regulation .06 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Secretary, after consulting with the Director, shall establish policies and procedures for:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The collection, submission, identification, analysis, storage, and disposal of DNA samples provided by an arrestee or an individual convicted of a qualifying crime; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Access to the dissemination of typing results and personal identification information of samples that are submitted under Regulations .11 and .12 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Director, upon consulting with the Secretary, shall establish policies and procedures for a centrally located Statewide DNA Data Base System and Statewide DNA repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Crime Laboratory shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Receive DNA samples for testing, classification, and storage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>File the DNA record of identification characteristic profiles of each DNA sample submitted to the Laboratory; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make information relating to DNA samples and DNA records available to other agencies and individuals as authorized in Regulations .11 and .12 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="System Maintenance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Administer and manage the Statewide DNA Data Base System;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Consult with the Secretary to establish system protocols and operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Ensure compatibility with Federal Bureau of Investigation and CODIS requirements, including the use of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Comparable test procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Quality assurance, proficiency tests, and audits;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Laboratory equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Computer software and hardware; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ensure the security and confidentiality of all records in the system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director may contract with a qualified DNA laboratory that meets the guidelines established by the Director to complete DNA typing analysis. The Director may also contract with a separate qualified private contractor to obtain the DNA samples from individuals convicted of a qualifying crime. This does not preclude the use of the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services' medical staff for the DNA collection or the hiring of additional personnel by the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Collecting Samples."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual shall have a DNA sample collected if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Charged with a crime of violence or an attempt to commit a crime of violence;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Charged with burglary or an attempt to commit burglary;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Convicted of a qualifying crime; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Ordered by a court.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Samples Collected upon Charge.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A DNA sample shall be collected during booking by the sheriff's office, police department, regional jail, or any other entity specified by the Secretary that is responsible for booking upon being charged.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An arrestee sample may not be tested or placed into the Statewide DNA Data Base System before the first scheduled arraignment date.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>DNA Sample Processed Before First Scheduled Arraignment Date.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An arrestee may request, by notarized written request to the Director, that the DNA sample be processed before the first scheduled arraignment date for the sole purpose of having the sample checked against a sample that:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Has been processed from the crime scene or the hospital; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Is related to the charges against that individual.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Crime Lab shall process the sample before arraignment, whenever practicable, if time and resources permit.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If the collecting agency determines that a convicted offender Statewide DNA Data Base sample already exists for an arrestee, the agency is not required to obtain a new sample.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A failure to obtain a new sample from an arrestee does not prohibit the obtaining of a sample at a later date if it is determined, for any reason, that a preexisting sample is not in the Statewide DNA Data Base as long as the individual remains eligible for inclusion in the Statewide DNA Data Base System.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>At the time of collection of the DNA sample, an arrestee shall be given written notice, by the collecting agency, in a manner prescribed by the Director, that the DNA record may be subject to expungement as provided by Regulation .14 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Reasonable force may be used in order to obtain a required arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A second DNA sample shall be taken if ordered by the court for good cause shown.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The failure of a person, convicted of a qualifying crime and placed on probation, to provide a DNA sample within 90 days of the date of the initial request for a sample shall result in the notification to the Department of Public Safety and Correctional Service's Division of Parole and Probation that a violation of conditions of probation has occurred.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>For an individual convicted but not sentenced to a term of imprisonment, a sample shall be collected at a facility designated by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>By the 15th day of each month, provide the Director with a report:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Of the number and the names of the prisoners who were convicted of a qualifying crime and began their incarceration the previous month; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Indicating that no prisoners began their incarceration the previous month;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include on the monthly report of those prisoners convicted of a qualifying crime of violence, the prisoner's:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Race;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sex;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>State identification (SID);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Specific qualifying crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Location of prisoner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Anticipated release date; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Identify a Department of Public Safety and Correctional Services employee who, on an ongoing basis, will assist in the DNA sample collection process by coordinating with the appropriate prison official the place, time, and date when the samples will be collected.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A county jail administration shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>By the 15th day of each month, provide the Director with a report:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Of the number and the names of the prisoners who were convicted of a qualifying crime of violence and began their incarceration the previous month; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Indicating that no prisoners began their incarceration the previous month;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Include on the monthly report of those prisoners convicted of a qualifying crime of violence, the prisoner's:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Race;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Sex;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>State identification (SID);</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Specific qualifying crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Location of prisoner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Anticipated release date; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Identify a county jail employee who, on an ongoing basis, will assist in the arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample collection process by coordinating with the appropriate prison official the place, time, and date when the samples will be collected.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>The arrestee or convicted offender DNA samples submitted for analysis shall be collected by an individual who is:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Designated by the Director; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Trained in the collection procedures that the Crime Laboratory uses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>An arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample shall be collected according to the instructions specified by the Director that are included in a DNA data base sample collection kit, approved and provided by the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>The individual collecting a sample shall verify the identity of the individual from whom a sample is taken by name and, if applicable, State identification (SID) number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>If the DNA arrestee sample is not collected at the time of electronic capture, such as LIVE SCAN or electronic booking facility or if an inked ten print card is used, then using normal fingerprinting procedures, the individual from whom a sample is taken shall place both inked index fingers where indicated on the DNA data base information card contained in the collection kit. These prints shall be used by the laboratory to check the individual's identity. If the subject is missing an index finger, this fact shall be indicated in the space for recording the fingerprint and the next available finger should be used with documentation as to which finger was used.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Immediately after a sample is obtained it shall be placed in the kit provided, sealed, and within 24 hours, transported or mailed to the Crime Laboratory.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>The chain of custody portion of the DNA data base information card in the sample kit shall include the date and time a sample was collected and the signature of the individual who collected and sealed the kit.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Transporting Samples."> <text>Samples shall be transported from a prison, detention facility, or other authorized location to the Crime Laboratory by:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Contract courier;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>First class U.S. mail service; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>State Police personnel.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Using Samples."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Only DNA records that directly relate to the forensic identification of individuals shall be collected and stored.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Statewide DNA Data Base System may not be used for the purpose of identification of an offender in connection with a crime for which the offender may be a biological relative of the individual from whom the DNA arrestee or convicted offender sample was acquired.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>To the extent fiscal resources are available, arrestee or convicted offender DNA samples shall be tested, and the records only used:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To analyze and type genetic markers contained in or derived from DNA samples;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To further a criminal offense investigation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>To assist in the identification of human remains;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>To assist in the identification of missing persons; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>For research and administrative purposes, including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Development of a population data base after personal identifying information is removed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Support of identification research and protocol development of forensic DNA analysis methods; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Quality control purposes.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Storing Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The records shall be stored in a secured computer system and secured laboratory files according to State Police standard operating procedures and CODIS requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Records and specimen information shall be identified by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A unique laboratory tracking number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Name of the donor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>State identification number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Date of birth;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Name and place of collection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Collector's name;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Date sample was taken;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Type of offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Race; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Sex.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Verification of identity shall be conducted by the Latent Print Unit on the fingerprints found on the DNA data base information/chain of custody card.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Storing Samples."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Blood, body fluid, or tissue samples shall be given a unique laboratory tracking number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Samples shall be stored in a secured area according to State Police standard operating procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Samples shall only be accessible to designated personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The DNA data base information/chain of custody cards shall be maintained in secured laboratory files.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>When preserving a sample for storage, it may be condensed or dried in accordance with accepted standard practices for the type of sample being stored. Excess sample matter and its container may be discarded.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Storing Typing Results."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Blood, body fluid, or tissue samples shall be analyzed according to State Police protocol and standard operating procedures by personnel qualified under the FBI Standards and CODIS requirements.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The analytically derived typing results shall be filed according to the unique laboratory tracking number in a secured computer and laboratory files. Secured results shall be entered into the system upon review by a second analyst. These files are accessible to qualified personnel only.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Quality Assurance."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Any procedure adopted by the Director shall include quality assurance guidelines to ensure that DNA identification records meet standards and audit requirements for laboratories that submit DNA records for inclusion in the Statewide DNA Data Base System and CODIS.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Crime Laboratory and each analyst performing DNA analyses at the Crime Laboratory shall undergo, twice yearly, external proficiency testing by a DNA proficiency testing program that meets the standards as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Section 1003 of the Federal DNA Identification Act of 1994; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>FBI Standards.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Access to DNA Data."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A request by letter for obtaining information from the Statewide DNA Data Base System and CODIS shall be submitted to the Director, from the requesting agency's department head or designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The letter from the requesting agency shall contain:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The reason for conducting the search;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The type of criminal offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The intentions of prosecution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The authority behind requesting the search;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The details concerning the source of specimens within the “Target DNA” files; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A laboratory point of contact, telephone number, and email address.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An electronic request for obtaining information from the Statewide DNA Data Base System and CODIS may initiate a search, but information may not be released without a formal request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Director, or designee, shall verify the identity of the agency or person submitting a request for DNA information by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A confirmation telephone call or letter between the agencies; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Requiring a person in authority at the requesting laboratory to sign and return the agreement of interlaboratory search form.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Before announcing a match with DNA information received from the Statewide DNA Data Base System, the requesting laboratory shall, if requested:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Submit to the Director or designee:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Duplicates of the final test results;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The laboratory's quality assurance standards; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The allele designations; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct a telephone conference call or an electronic exchange of information between laboratory personnel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>After verification by the Director or designee that a match has been made in the Statewide DNA Data Base System and the request complies with the purposes in Regulation .06C of this chapter, the typing results and personal identification information of the DNA profile of an individual in the Statewide DNA Data Base System may be made available, by letter, to the following agencies or persons:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Crime laboratories that serve federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies that have been approved by the Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A State's attorney's office or other prosecutorial office; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A person participating in a judicial proceeding in which the data base information may be offered as evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>The typing results and personal identification information of the DNA profile of an individual in the Statewide DNA Data Base System shall be made available to a defendant or a defendant's counsel on written order of the court in which the case is pending.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A search of the data base shall be conducted to determine the existence of a match to DNA obtained from crime scene evidence taken in relation to the crime for which a defendant is charged if, upon the request of that defendant, a written court order commands the data base search.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>This chapter does not limit a court from ordering any discovery of a DNA record or other related material in a criminal case.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>The Director shall maintain a permanent file of all requests received for DNA information and the disposition of each request.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Match—Evidence and Data Base."> <text>A match obtained between an evidence sample and a data base entry may only be used as probable cause to obtain a new DNA sample from the subject and is not admissible at trial unless confirmed by additional testing.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Population Data Base."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Director shall create a population data base comprised of DNA samples obtained from the general population.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>All personal identifiers shall be removed before the information is entered into the population data base.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The population data base information may be shared or disseminated with the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Federal, state, or local law enforcement agencies;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Crime laboratories that serve federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies that have been approved by the Director;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A State's attorney's office; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A third party that the Director deems necessary to assist the Crime Laboratory with statistical analysis of the population data base.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The population data base may be made available to and searched by any agency participating in the CODIS system.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Expunging DNA Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual whose DNA record or profile has been included in the Statewide DNA Data Base System and whose DNA sample is stored in the Statewide DNA repository may request that information be expunged on the grounds that the conviction which resulted in its inclusion meets the expungement criteria specified in Criminal Procedure Article, §10-105, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of an order of expungement, the Director shall purge a DNA record, DNA sample, or other identifiable information covered by the order from the Statewide DNA Data Base System and the Statewide DNA repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A DNA sample collected from an arrestee shall be immediately destroyed if all qualifying criminal charges are determined to be unsupported by probable cause. Notice shall be provided to the defendant and counsel, if any, of the destruction.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A DNA sample and DNA record collected from an arrestee shall be automatically expunged from any data base into which it has been entered if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The criminal action against the individual does not result in a conviction of the individual and there is no further trial, disposition, appeal, or other proceeding in the criminal action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The conviction is finally reversed or vacated and no new trial is permitted; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The individual is granted an unconditional pardon.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>An expungement pursuant to §D of this regulation shall occur within 60 business days of the act requiring expungement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Written notice shall be provided to the defendant and counsel, if any, of the expungement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>An arrestee record or arrestee sample that qualifies for expungement and is matched concurrent with or subsequent to the date that the arrestee sample qualifies for expungement:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>May not be used for determining probable cause regardless of whether it is expunged in a timely manner; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Is not admissible in any proceeding for any purpose.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>An arrestee DNA sample and DNA record may not be automatically expunged if:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The arrestee's qualifying criminal action is put on the stet docket; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The arrestee receives probation before judgment on any charge that qualified the arrestee for collection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>If an arrestee is charged with multiple qualifying offenses, the DNA arrestee sample and DNA record are not subject to automatic expungement unless all applicable charges qualify for expungement as set forth in §D of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>If an individual whose DNA sample is in the Statewide DNA Data Base System for a reason other than as a sample collected from an arrestee, any additional sample shall remain in the data base and is not subject to automatic expungement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Records and samples not previously expunged will be expunged 100 years from the date submitted.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>The Director shall maintain a permanent file of all requests to expunge DNA data base records, and the disposition of those requests.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Unauthorized Use."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual who, by virtue of employment or official position, has possession of or access to individual identifiable DNA information contained in the Statewide DNA Data Base System or Statewide DNA repository and who willfully discloses that information in any manner to a person or agency not entitled to receive that information is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years, or both.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person who, without authorization, willfully obtains individually identifiable DNA information from the Statewide DNA Data Base System or repository is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years, or both.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An individual who willfully tests an arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample for information that does not relate to the identification of individuals as specified by Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $5,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years, or both.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>An individual who willfully fails to destroy an arrestee or convicted offender DNA sample under the following circumstances is guilty of a misdemeanor and on conviction is subject to a fine not exceeding $1,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 1 year, or both:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When notification has been sent stating that the DNA sample obtained pursuant to Public Safety Article, §2-501 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland, has been destroyed; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Destruction has been court ordered.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Reporting Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Not later than April 1, 2010, and annually thereafter, the Department of State Police shall compile an annual report to the Governor and to the General Assembly. The annual report or a hyperlink to it shall be posted on the website of the Department of State Police not later than April 1 of each year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Content of the Annual Report.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The annual report shall include, for the preceding calendar year, total expenses that the Crime Laboratory incurred to operate the Statewide DNA Data Base System including:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Full-time, part-time, and contractual salary and fringe benefit costs for scientists and support personnel assigned to the State Police Crime Laboratory for DNA data base purposes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>DNA collection kit costs, including costs required to transport kits from collection sites to the Crime Lab;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>DNA data base operational costs, including new hardware, software, and maintenance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>DNA testing and analysis costs, including in-house equipment purchased and outsource testing and analysis costs.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Funds Provided by the State. Not later than January 31, 2010, and annually thereafter, the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services shall report to the Department of State Police the total grant amount, by municipality, awarded for the preceding calendar year by the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services to any municipal crime laboratory, not including grants to the Crime Laboratory.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Individual Data and Analysis. The Department of State Police shall include in the annual report, for the preceding calendar year, the racial demographics of all individuals who have been charged with qualifying crimes upon arrest in the following categories:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Asian;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>African-American;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>White;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Hispanic; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Other.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Case-Specific Data Collection and Analysis. Not later than January 31, 2010, and annually thereafter, the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services shall report to the Department of State Police the following data, for the preceding calendar year, for inclusion in the annual report:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The number of convicted offender or arrestee DNA matches in a calendar year;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The number of matches that resulted in the investigation of the individual identified in the match;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The number of matches resulting in formal charges;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The number of matches resulting in convictions;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The number of convicted individuals exonerated by DNA matches in a calendar year;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The number of matches resulting in convictions of individuals who were not already incarcerated; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>For convictions where a match occurred, that individual's prior offenses.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Requirements of Local Law Enforcement Agencies. On or before January 31, 2010, and annually thereafter, local law enforcement shall report the information necessary for the Crime Laboratory to comply with the reporting requirements of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Additional Reporting by Local Law Enforcement Agencies and the Department of State Police to the Office of Legislative Audits, in Coordination with the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For the purposes of this section, crime scene DNA evidence is a forensic or evidence sample as defined in COMAR 29.05.01.01B(17), including samples submitted for biological screening or serology testing .</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not later than January 31, 2010, and by April 1 of every even-numbered year thereafter, the following shall be reported for the preceding calendar year to the Office of Legislative Audits, in coordination with the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services, by each local law enforcement agency and the Department of State Police:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The categories of crimes for which crime scene DNA evidence is routinely collected;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The number of cases in which crime scene DNA evidence samples were collected during the preceding year for each category of crime reported pursuant to §D(2)(a) of this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The average time between crime scene DNA evidence collection, as defined by COMAR 29.05.01.01B(6-1), and analysis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The number of cases in which crime scene DNA evidence samples were collected, but were still pending analysis by the end of the reporting period; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The number of crime scene DNA evidence samples submitted and qualified for inclusion into the Statewide DNA Data Base during the preceding year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The schedule for annual reporting shall be as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Not later than January 31, 2010, and by January 31 of every even-numbered year thereafter, local law enforcement agencies shall report to the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Not later than February 28, 2010, and by April 1 of every even-numbered year thereafter, the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services shall report to the Office of Legislative Audits.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The data reported by each local law enforcement agency under this regulation shall be transmitted to the Office of Legislative Audits by the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services as part of the reporting process.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Additional Reporting by the Maryland Department of Health to the Office of Legislative Audits. Not later than April 1, 2010, and by April 1 of every even-numbered year thereafter, the Maryland Department of Health shall report to the Office of Legislative Audits, in coordination with the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services, the number of hospital forensic examinations reimbursed by the Department for each county and the City of Baltimore for the preceding calendar year.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The Office of Legislative Audits shall compile and evaluate the information provided to it in order to submit a summary report to the Governor and to the General Assembly in accordance with State Government Article, §2-1246, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Noncompliance with Request for Information.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Local law enforcement agencies, the Office of the Public Defender, and the Departments of Health and Public Safety and Correctional Services shall cooperate with information requests from the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services in its efforts to seek any information required for the purposes of the reports required by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failure to comply with information requests from the Governor’s Office of Crime Prevention, Youth, and Victim Services may result in ineligiblity for or the withholding of State grant funding.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §2-503, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: September 10, 1996 (23:18 Md. R. 1318)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01-1 adopted effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03 amended effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04H amended as an emergency provision effective June 7, 2007 (34:13 Md. R. 1150); emergency status expired December 4, 2007; amended permanently effective December 17, 2007 (34:25 Md. R. 2216)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .08—.12 amended effective December 27, 1999 (26:26 Md. R. 1961)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective December 15, 2008 (35:25 Md. R. 2151)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective October 19, 2009 (36:21 Md. R. 1594); November 14, 2011 (38:23 Md. R. 1423)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A amended effective October 19, 2009 (36:21 Md. R. 1594)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16 amended effective October 19, 2009 (36:21 Md. R. 1594)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16C, D amended effective November 14, 2011 (38:23 Md. R. 1423)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Ballistic Fingerprinting"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Crime Laboratory” means the Department of State Police Forensic Sciences Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Director” means the Director of the Department of State Police Forensic Sciences Division or the Director's designee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Handgun” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(n), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Manufacturer” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(2), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“NIBIN” means National Integrated Ballistics Information Network.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Profile” means to electronically store remarkable characteristics of a shell casing, such as caliber, manufacturer of handgun from which it was test fired, and rifling characteristics.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Projectile” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(3), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“Rifling characteristics” means the number of lands and grooves in the barrel of a handgun, including right or left twist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Sealed container” means a paper coin envelope, Kraft #5, measuring 2-7/8 x 5-1/4 inches or equivalent and held closed by tape across the opening.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Secretary” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-101(s), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Shell casing” has the meaning stated in Public Safety Article, §5-131(a)(4), Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Statewide Shell Casing Data Base” means a specific data base for the purpose of electronically capturing and storing profile information generated from shell casings described in Public Safety Article §§5-105 and 5-131, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Statewide Shell Casing Repository” means a secure storage area within the Department of State Police Forensic Sciences Division for the retention of shell casings as required by Public Safety Article, §§5-105 and 5-131, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Introduction."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Secretary, after consulting with the Director, shall establish policies and procedures for the:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Collection, submission, identification, acquisition of profile, storage, and disposal of shell casings provided by dealers from all new handguns sold in the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Access to the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base or dissemination of search results.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Director, upon consulting with the Secretary, shall establish policies and procedures for a centrally located Statewide Shell Casing Data Base System and Statewide Shell Casing Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The Crime Laboratory shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Receive shell casings for acquisition of profile, classification, and storage;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>File each shell casing profile submitted to the laboratory; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Make information relating to shell casing samples and shell casing records available to other law enforcement agencies as authorized in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="System Maintenance."> <text>The Director shall:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Administer and manage the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base System;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Consult with the Secretary to establish system protocols and operations;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Ensure compatibility with the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives' (BATFE) NIBIN system, where feasible, when the system becomes available; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Ensure the security of the shell casings and records in the Statewide Data Base.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Storing Shell Casings."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each shell casing shall be given a unique laboratory tracking number.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Shell casings shall be stored in a secure manner after processing according to Crime Laboratory standard operating procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Shell casings shall only be accessible to designated personnel.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Data Entry."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Upon receipt of the shell casings and required information, the Crime Laboratory shall enter the profiling information of each shell casing, into all pertinent data bases for the purpose of creating a searchable record.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The pertinent data base shall be searchable for comparison purposes to shell casings from crime scenes for the purpose of identifying the source of these casings.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Storing Records."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The records shall be stored in a secured computer system and secured laboratory files according to Crime Laboratory standard operating procedures.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Records and specimen information shall be identified by:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A unique laboratory tracking number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Name of the dealer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Manufacturer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Model name or number, or both;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Serial number;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Date of test firing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Name of the technician attesting to the authenticity of the shell casing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Caliber;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Rifling characteristics; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Application numbers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Access to Shell Casing Profile Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A request to obtain information from the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base System shall be submitted to the Director or designee, in writing, by the requesting law enforcement agency on that agency's letterhead or form MSP 67.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The letter from the requesting agency shall contain:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The reason for conducting the search;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The type of criminal offense;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The intentions of prosecution;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The authority to request the search;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The details concerning the source of specimens within the Crime Scene Shell Casing files; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>A laboratory point of contact or telephone number of the investigator, or both.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A telephone request for obtaining information from the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base and Repository may initiate a search, but information may not be released without a written request.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>This regulation does not preclude the establishment of electronic network connections between the Crime Laboratory's Statewide Shell Casing Data Base and local or federal law enforcement agency crime laboratories when that technology becomes available for this purpose.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Expunging Shell Casing Profile Information."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An individual handgun owner whose shell casing record has been included in the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base and Repository may request by court order that this information be expunged on the grounds that the inclusion was in error.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of a court order of expungement, the Director shall purge a shell casing profile, shell casing, or other identifiable information covered by the order from the Statewide Shell Casing Data Base System and Statewide Shell Casing Repository.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When proof of the destruction of the weapon is received by the Crime Laboratory, profiles and shell casings may be expunged at the discretion of the Director.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Records and samples not previously expunged will be expunged 100 years from the year submitted.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§5-105 and 5-131, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.08 adopted as an emergency provision effective October 1, 2000 (27:20 Md. R. 1836); emergency status expired March 29, 2001; adopted permanently effective May 28, 2001 (28:10 Md. R. 951)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01B amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A, C amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03C amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective November 30, 2009 (36:24 Md. R. 1860)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Testing Blood and Breath for Alcohol"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <text>This chapter establishes training and certification criteria of personnel performing tests of breath and blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol content of drivers suspected of driving while impaired or under the influence of alcohol and approval and certification criteria for equipment used in conducting these tests.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Agency” means any law enforcement agency approved to test breath or blood for alcohol content.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Alcohol” means ethyl alcohol (ethanol).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Alcohol calibration solution” means a water solution containing a range of certified, specific concentrations of ethanol from 0.02 to 0.500 gram/deciliter for the purpose of ethanol quantitation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Alcohol control solution” means a water solution containing a certified, specific concentration of ethanol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Alcohol gas standard” means a container of compressed gas containing a specific concentration of alcohol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Alcohol reference solution” means a water solution containing a specific concentration of alcohol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“Breath sample” means the amount of breath delivered by the individual being tested that is an adequate volume to be analyzed by the breath testing instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“CTAU” means the Chemical Test for Alcohol Unit within the Department of Maryland State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“CTAU supervisor” means the individual designated by the Commander or Director of CTAU and approved by the Toxicologist to supervise the CTAU.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“Preliminary breath testing (PBT) device” means a portable, roadside screening device approved by the Toxicologist, pursuant to Transportation Article, §16-205.2, Annotated Code of Maryland, for use on individuals stopped for suspicion of driving while impaired or under the influence of alcohol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Qualified medical person” means an individual permitted by any state to withdraw blood from humans.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>“Qualified person” has the meaning stated in Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §10-304, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>“Representative of the Toxicologist” means any employee supervised by the Toxicologist or an employee of the Department of State Police designated by the Toxicologist to act as the authorized representative of the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(14)"> <text>“Toxicologist” means the Chief Toxicologist or State Toxicologist in the Department of State Police Forensic Sciences Division.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(15)"> <text>“Validation test” means a test of specific alcohol concentration used to verify the calibration of a breath testing instrument.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Alcohol Tests — General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Alcohol Concentration of Breath. The alcohol concentration of breath shall be reported as grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath (gram/210 liters).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Alcohol Concentration of Blood. The alcohol concentration of blood shall be reported as grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood (gram/100 milliliters).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Uncertainty.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For breath tests for alcohol content, the accepted scientific uncertainty in measurement is plus or minus 0.005 gram/210 liters or 10 percent of the average of measurements, whichever is greater.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>For blood tests for alcohol content, the accepted scientific uncertainty in measurement is plus or minus 0.005 gram/100 milliliters or 10 percent of the average of measurements, whichever is greater.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Preliminary Tests of Breath for Alcohol."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>PBT Devices.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Approve the make and model of PBT devices used in the State; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Maintain a list of approved make and model PBT devices.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At the time of approval by the Toxicologist, the make and model of the PBT device shall be on the most recently updated Conforming Products List of Evidential Breath Alcohol Measurement Devices published in the Federal Register by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration of the Department of Transportation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Calibration Check.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The calibration of a PBT device shall be checked by a PBT device operator, trained in accordance with §B(1) of this regulation, once a month by using an approved alcohol reference solution or alcohol gas standard.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The results of the calibration check shall be within plus or minus 10 percent, inclusive, of the alcohol concentration of the alcohol reference solution or alcohol gas standard.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A PBT device that does not achieve the result specified in §A(3)(b) of this regulation shall be withdrawn from use until it has been recalibrated.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Training Programs.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>PBT Device Operator Training Program.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall approve a PBT device operator training program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>CTAU shall be notified in advance of all PBT device operator training classes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A preliminary breath test of an individual suspected of being impaired or driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs shall be conducted only by a law enforcement officer who has completed and passed this training.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A written exam consisting of at least 25 questions shall be given at the conclusion of the program.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The cumulative passing score shall be 70 percent or above.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>A roster of students successfully completing the course shall be forwarded to the CTAU on completion of the program.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>PBT Device Instructor Training Program.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All PBT device operator classes shall be taught by individuals who have successfully completed a PBT device instructor training program from CTAU.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>CTAU shall provide instructor training for all agencies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any requests for PBT Device Instructor Training shall be made to the CTAU Supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The PBT device instructor training program shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Include at least 16 hours of instruction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Be approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>CTAU shall issue a certificate after the successful completion of either program outlined in §B(1) or (2) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Evidentiary Tests of Breath for Alcohol: Testing Agencies and Training Programs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Testing Agencies.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An agency desiring approval to conduct evidentiary breath tests shall make a written request to the CTAU Supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency requesting approval to conduct breath tests shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Offer 24-hour law enforcement service;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Provide an environmentally controlled area and a phone line exclusively for the breath testing instrument;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Provide expendable supplies needed for personnel to operate the equipment; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Have a minimum of 20 full-time sworn law enforcement officers.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An agency shall have a breath test supervisor who shall administer and coordinate all alcohol testing related activities with CTAU.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The breath test supervisor shall be a breath test operator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An agency’s approval to conduct breath testing may be withdrawn by the Toxicologist or their representative based on:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A substantial failure to comply with this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Inadequate State resources.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Training Programs.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Basic Breath Test Operator Certification Course.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All basic breath test operator courses shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Approved by the Toxicologist; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Taught by approved breath test instructors.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The course shall include a minimum of 35 hours of lecture or laboratory instruction covering:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A study of the mathematics of the metric system;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A study of the properties, human physiology, and pharmacology of alcohol;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>A study of the theory, operating principles, and maintenance requirements of the breath test instruments; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>A review of relevant Maryland statutes, regulations, and cases affecting enforcement and testing of an individual suspected of driving while impaired or under the influence of alcohol.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written examination consisting of at least 50 questions shall be given at the conclusion of the course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The cumulative passing score on the written examination shall be 90 percent or above.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The individual shall demonstrate to the instructor satisfactory ability to use the instrument.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Breath Test Operator Certification Renewal Course.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A breath test operator certification renewal course shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Approved by the Toxicologist; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Taught by approved breath test instructors.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The course shall be comprised of a minimum of 6 hours of instruction, including a review of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Breath testing theory;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Methods and procedures; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Current and contemporary issues.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written examination consisting of at least 25 questions shall be given at the conclusion of the course.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>The passing score on the written examination shall be 80 percent or above.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Breath Test Maintenance Technician Course.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The breath test maintenance technician course shall be approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>This course shall include a minimum of 70 hours of training, covering:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A review of breath testing theory, methods, and developments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Operation, takedown, and maintenance of instruments;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Gas cylinder replacement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Simulator takedown, maintenance, and solution changing.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A written or oral exam shall be administered by the CTAU Supervisor before certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>CTAU shall issue a certificate after the successful completion of any course outlined in §B(1) — (3) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Evidentiary Tests of Breath for Alcohol: Personnel — Training."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Breath Test Operator.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Initial Certification as a Qualified Person.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>To become a qualified breath test operator, a qualified person shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A full-time law enforcement officer of an agency approved to conduct breath tests;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A full-time laboratory technician of an agency approved to conduct breath tests; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Any individual designated by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>CTAU shall issue an initial certificate after the successful completion of a basic breath test operator course as described in Regulation .05B(1) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An initial certification shall be valid for a period of 15 months.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Renewal of Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Before expiration of the initial certification or each subsequent renewal certification period, a breath test operator shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Exhibit competence in the performance of all duties as a breath test operator as described in Regulation .07A(1) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Successfully complete a breath test operator certification renewal course as outlined in Regulation .05B(2) of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>CTAU shall issue a renewal certificate after the breath test operator complies with §A(2)(a) of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A renewal certificate shall extend certification for an additional period of 13 months.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reinstatement of Expired Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>If the breath test operator's certification expires and not more than 90 days have elapsed since the time of expiration, the CTAU supervisor may reinstate the operator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>If more than 90 days but less than 3 years have elapsed, the CTAU supervisor:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shall confer with the Toxicologist or their representative about reinstatement; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>May require a demonstration of proficiency before reinstatement of the expired certification.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A breath test operator who applies for reinstatement more than 3 years following expiration of certification shall complete the basic breath test operator course as provided in Regulation .05B(1) of this chapter to be requalified.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Suspension and Revocation of Certification.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An individual who fails a breath test operator certification renewal course shall be immediately suspended by the CTAU as a breath test operator.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The CTAU supervisor may issue a renewal certificate to an individual if the breath test operator certification renewal course is successfully completed within 120 days of the initial failure.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The CTAU supervisor may suspend or revoke a certificate of a breath test operator if, in the supervisor's judgment, the individual’s performance is unsatisfactory.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the individual’s certificate is revoked, the individual shall return all certificates and manuals to the CTAU supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Breath Test Maintenance Technician.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To become a breath test maintenance technician, an individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Be an employee of CTAU;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have successfully completed an approved operator and maintenance course for breath testing instrumentation as described in Regulation .05B(3) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Demonstrate proficiency in the use of breath testing instrumentation to:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>The CTAU supervisor; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>An approved instructor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>CTAU shall issue a certificate if:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The individual complies with §B(1) of this regulation; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Toxicologist approves of the issuance of the certificate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Certification of a breath test maintenance technician may be suspended or revoked for the following reasons:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Failure to properly maintain breath testing instruments; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Failure to adhere to this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Breath Test Instructor.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To become a breath test instructor, an individual shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Successfully complete the training programs described in Regulation .05B of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have prior experience in training law enforcement officers;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Assist in at least one basic breath test operator course as referenced in Regulation .05B(1) of this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Be approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A breath test instructor may perform any instrument maintenance and repair as needed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Evidentiary Tests of Breath for Alcohol: Personnel — Duties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Breath Test Operator.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A breath test operator shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Perform breath tests for alcohol in accordance with training;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Perform at least one test per month, either a subject or simulation test;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Notify CTAU of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Test results that deviate greater than plus or minus 10 percent of the stated concentration for any validation test; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Mechanical problems with the breath testing instrument; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Complete all required reports.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A breath test operator who fails to perform at least one test per month as required in §A(1)(b) of this regulation shall provide a reason for this failure to the CTAU supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>If a breath test operator will be on extended leave from the agency, the CTAU supervisor shall be notified by the breath test operator or the agency breath test supervisor.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Breath Test Maintenance Technician. A breath test maintenance technician shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Set up all instruments in the field;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conduct an inspection of the assigned breath testing instruments at least once a month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Conduct all scheduled maintenance procedures;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Change the alcohol gas cylinder or alcohol reference solution as needed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Test each instrument with approved alcohol gas standard or alcohol reference solution at least once a month;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Remove an instrument from service if the result of the test in §B(5) of this regulation is not plus or minus 10 percent of the stated concentration;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Repair the instrument as needed; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Complete all required reports.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Evidentiary Tests of Breath for Alcohol: Instruments and Testing Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Breath Testing Instruments.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall approve all instruments to be used in the State for the purpose of testing breath for alcohol content pursuant to Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §§10-302 and 10-304, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An agency shall only use an instrument that has been approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An individual may receive a copy of the list of the manufacturers and models of currently approved instruments from the Department of State Police Forensic Sciences Division at no charge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Certification of Approval of Instruments.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall certify approval of each instrument before it is used in the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>At the time of approval by the Toxicologist, the instrument shall be on the most recently updated Conforming Products List of Evidential Breath Alcohol Measurement Devices published in the Federal Register by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration of the Department of Transportation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>On at least an annual basis, the Toxicologist or their representative shall recertify approval of each instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Following successful testing, an instrument that is repaired by a certified breath test maintenance technician may be returned to service without the recertification of approval by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Inspection. Approved equipment and related records shall be available for inspection by the Toxicologist or representative at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Validation Tests.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall approve the alcohol reference solution or alcohol gas standard to be used as validation tests.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Validation tests shall be performed contemporaneously with each evidentiary breath test using an approved alcohol reference solution or alcohol gas standard.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Initial Certification of Instrument Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Precision and Accuracy Testing.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Vapor containing 0.020 gram/210 liters, 0.040 gram/210 liters, 0.080 gram/210 liters, and 0.160 gram/210 liters ethanol concentrations shall be introduced through the breath tube of the instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Each concentration shall be repeated four times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>As an indication of precision, the combined average standard deviation shall be not greater than 0.0042 gram/210 liters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>As an indication of accuracy, systematic variations at each ethanol concentration will be calculated and shall be not more than 5 percent or 0.005 gram/210 liters, whichever is greater.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Any instruments not meeting the precision and accuracy requirements may not be approved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Acetone Detection Testing.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Vapor containing 0.020 gram/210 liters ethanol and 100 microliters of acetone per 500 milliliters solution shall be introduced through the breath tube of the instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Each concentration shall be repeated four times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The instrument shall read between 0.015 and 0.025 gram/210 liters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>An instrument not meeting the requirement for acetone detection may not be approved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Blank Testing.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Four samples of vapor containing no ethanol or other solvents shall be introduced through the breath tube of the instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>No reading shall exceed 0.005 gram/210 liters vapor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An instrument not meeting the blank detection requirement may not be approved.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>If conditions outlined in §E(1) — (3) of this regulation are met:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The instrument shall be approved; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall issue a letter certifying instrument approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Periodic Recertification of Approval.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Instrument approval shall be recertified at least annually.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall issue a letter recertifying instrument approval.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Evidentiary Breath Test Method.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>For at least 20 minutes before a breath sample is taken, an individual may not:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Eat or drink;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Have any foreign substance in the individual’s mouth or respiratory tract; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Smoke.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The individual shall be observed and mouth checked.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Observation of the individual shall be performed by:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A breath test operator;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Other uniformed or civilian law enforcement personnel; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Any combination of a breath test operator and uniformed or civilian law enforcement personnel.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The testing procedure shall begin with a blank test to ensure that no alcohol is present in the breath path of the breath testing instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A validation test shall be run before the individual begins the testing process.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>If the breath testing instrument fails to obtain a reading plus or minus 10 percent of the stated alcohol concentration on the validation test, then the subject test shall be discontinued.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The individual shall be instructed to take a breath and then deliver a breath sample into the instrument by blowing into the mouthpiece and breath tube until instructed to stop.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>After each subject breath sample, a blank check shall be performed to ensure that no alcohol is present in the breath path.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Two breath samples shall be collected and analyzed by the breath testing instrument.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>A third breath sample shall be collected only if the absolute difference between the results of the first and second samples exceeds 0.020 gram/210 liters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>A validation test of known alcohol concentration shall be run after the individual has given the required number of breath samples.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>If the instrument fails to obtain a reading plus or minus 10 percent of the stated concentration on the validation test, then the subject test is invalid.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>The lower of the two or lowest of the three results of the subject test shall be truncated to the second decimal place and reported as the result of the breath test.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Evidentiary Tests of Blood for Alcohol."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Laboratories and Procedures for Analysis.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Laboratories.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Department of Maryland State Police Forensic Sciences Division is an approved laboratory to conduct tests of blood for alcohol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Approval by the Toxicologist of any other laboratory is required before it may perform any test of blood for alcohol in accordance with Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §10-304, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>An individual may receive a copy of the list of currently approved laboratories from the Department of Maryland State Police Forensic Sciences Division at no charge.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Equipment and Procedures for Analysis.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall approve all equipment and analytical procedures for the testing of blood for alcohol.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Approved equipment shall be calibrated with alcohol calibration solution or solutions approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The calibration shall be checked using an alcohol control solution.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Alcohol control solution test results may not deviate greater than plus or minus 0.010 gram/100 milliliters from its stated concentration.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The laboratory shall perform evidentiary tests of blood for alcohol in duplicate and the duplicate results may not deviate greater than plus or minus 0.010 gram/100 milliliters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>For subject tests, the lower of the duplicate results shall be truncated to the second decimal place and reported as the result of the blood test.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Personnel.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Qualified Medical Personnel. Any qualified medical person is approved to withdraw blood for the testing of blood for alcohol content.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Analyst.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall certify an analyst performing tests of blood for alcohol content as a qualified person.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Review the credentials of the analyst;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Direct a program of training as necessary; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Set standards for maintenance of proficiency.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The Toxicologist shall recertify the analyst on a regular basis.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A certified analyst shall perform at least one batch of subject specimens or proficiency specimens annually.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Procedures for Administering an Evidentiary Test of Blood for Alcohol.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The blood specimen shall be withdrawn by qualified medical personnel.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Blood sampling equipment shall be approved by the Toxicologist.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The arresting officer or another law enforcement officer may witness the withdrawal of the blood.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The law enforcement officer shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fill out all forms contained in the approved blood sampling equipment kit; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Be certain all seals are signed and properly affixed.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The sample shall be delivered by messenger or mail to the Department of Maryland State Police in containers provided with the sampling equipment.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article, §§10-304 and 10-306; Health-General Article, §17-214(g); Public Safety Article, §2-205; Transportation Article, §2-205; Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.09 adopted as an emergency provision effective February 20, 2023 (50:7 Md. R. 297); expired effective July 21, 2023</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">New Regulations .01 — .09 adopted effective November 25, 2024 (51:23 Md. R. 1038)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="06" heading="Fire Prevention Commission"> <chapter num="01" heading="Fire Prevention Code"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Title."> <text>This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the State Fire Prevention Code.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Purpose."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The purpose of this chapter is to establish minimum requirements that will provide a reasonable degree of fire prevention and control to safeguard life, property, or public welfare from:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The hazards of fire and explosion arising from the storage, handling, or use of substances, materials, or devices; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Conditions hazardous to life, property, or public welfare in the use or occupancy of buildings, structures, sheds, tents, lots, or premises.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter incorporates by reference NFPA 1 Fire Code (2024 Edition), except as amended in Regulations .08 and .09 of this chapter, and NFPA 101 Life Safety Code (2024 Edition), except as amended in Regulation .07 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The State Fire Prevention Commission recommends the use of the NFPA National Fire Codes or other nationally recognized standards in technical matters not specifically addressed by this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Application and Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter applies to both new and existing buildings and conditions. In various sections there are specific provisions for existing buildings that may differ from those for new buildings. Unless otherwise noted, this chapter does not apply to facilities, equipment, structures, or installations that were existing or approved for construction or installation before the effective date of this chapter, except in those cases in which it is determined by the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) that the existing situation constitutes a hazard so inimical to the public welfare and safety as to require correction. The requirements for existing buildings and conditions may be modified if their application clearly would be impractical in the judgment of the AHJ, but only if it is clearly evident that a reasonable degree of safety is provided. The State Fire Marshal or the legally appointed designee has the authority to make a determination of the applicability of this chapter to any building or condition in it, subject to the right of appeal to the State Fire Prevention Commission as prescribed in COMAR 29.06.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Repealed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>The provisions of this chapter do not apply in Baltimore City except to those buildings and conditions specifically prescribed in Public Safety Article, Title 6, Subtitle 4, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The provisions of this chapter do not apply to buildings used solely as dwelling houses for not more than two families as prescribed in Public Safety Article, Title 6, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Enforcement."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Enforcement of this chapter is the responsibility of:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A legally designated fire official of a county or municipal corporation of the State; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Other persons legally appointed by the State Fire Marshal under Public Safety Article, Title 6, Subtitle 3, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The State Fire Marshal or the legally appointed designee may accept alternate methods of satisfying the intent of this chapter if the material, method, or work is at least the equivalent of that required by this chapter in quality, effectiveness, durability, and safety, and meets or exceeds the intent of the chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>If there are differing or conflicting requirements between this chapter and codes or standards adopted by incorporation by reference by this chapter, the State Fire Marshal or the legally appointed designee shall determine which requirements apply, subject to the right of appeal to the State Fire Prevention Commission.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>If Public Safety Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, or this chapter requires that a permit, license, or certificate of approval be obtained from the State Fire Marshal, it shall be obtained from the State Fire Marshal, or other appropriate authority, of the county, city, or incorporated town where the activity or equipment for which the permit, license, or certificate required is located.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A violation of this chapter is subject to the penalties set forth in the Public Safety Article, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)” means the State Fire Marshal or the legally appointed designee as prescribed in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“International Code Council (ICC)” means International Code Council, Inc., 200 Massachusetts Avenue N.W., Suite 250, Washington, DC 20001.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Legally appointed designee” means those local or county officials specifically authorized under the Public Safety Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, to enforce the provisions of the State Fire Laws and State Fire Prevention Code.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“New building or condition” means a building, structure, installation, plant, equipment, renovation, or condition:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For which a building permit is issued on or after the effective date of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On which actual construction is started on or after the effective date of this chapter in a jurisdiction where a building permit is not required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Which represents a change from one occupancy classification to another on or after the effective date of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Which represents a situation, circumstance, or physical makeup of any structure, premise, or process that was commenced on or after the effective date of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“NFPA” means National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Incorporation by Reference."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following documents are incorporated by reference, with the amendments specified in this chapter. Tentative interim amendments and supplements to these documents and to the codes and standards referenced in these documents are not included as part of this chapter unless specifically adopted by this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Documents Incorporated.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>NFPA 1 Fire Code (2024 Edition).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>NFPA 101 Life Safety Code (2024 Edition).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Incorporation by Reference Locations. The documents incorporated by reference in §B of this regulation are available for inspection in State depository libraries.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="National Fire Protection Association 101 Life Safety Code."> <text>The NFPA 101 Life Safety Code (2024 Edition) is incorporated by reference, except for the following amendments:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Amend Sections 2.2 and 2.4 to delete the referenced publications NFPA 150 Standard on Fire and Life Safety in Animal Housing Facilities, 2022 edition, and NFPA 5000 Building Construction and Safety Code, 2024 edition. Wherever NFPA 5000 is referenced, other than for extracted text, substitute the building code adopted by the AHJ.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Amend Subsection 3.3.66 to add the following Paragraph: 3.3.66.3 Bulkhead Door. A type of door assembly covering an opening in the ground providing direct access to a basement, the floor of which is not more than 8 feet below ground level. The door consists of a single rigid leaf or two overlapping rigid leaves or covers that need to be pushed or lifted upwards in order to be opened. A person, after opening the door, can walk up a series of steps to escape to the outside.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Amend Paragraph 3.3.70.1 to replace “three” with “five" and delete, “if any, accommodated in rented rooms”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Amend Paragraph 3.3.154.1 and Subparagraphs 16.6.1.1.2 and 17.6.1.1.2 to delete “more than 3, but”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 3.3.205.4 and 6.1.4.1 to delete “four or more”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 3.3.205.12 and 6.1.9.1 to replace “four” with “six”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Amend Subsection 4.5.8 and Paragraph 4.6.12.1 to delete “for compliance with the provisions of this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Amend Paragraph 4.6.10.2 to replace “Where required by Chapters 11 through 43, construction” with “Construction”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Amend Paragraph 4.6.12.3 to delete “by the Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Amend Subsection 4.8.2 to add the following Paragraph: 4.8.2.4 Emergency action plans shall be maintained in a location approved by the AHJ.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 6.1.8.1.1 to replace “three” with “five” and delete “, if any, accommodated in rented rooms”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Amend Subsection 7.1.10 to add the following Paragraph: 7.1.10.3 Trash or recyclable materials awaiting scheduled collection shall not be placed in exits, exit access corridors, or on egress balconies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 7.2.1.6.4.1 to replace “in Chapters 11 through 43” with “by the AHJ and Chapters 11 through 43”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 7.2.1.7.1 to delete “required to be”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 7.2.1.7.4 to delete “Required”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Amend Paragraph 7.2.1.12 to delete “7.2.1.12.1 or”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Delete Subparagraph 7.2.1.12.1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="R."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 7.2.1.14.1 and 7.2.1.15.1 to replace “Chapters 11 through 43” with “the AHJ or Chapters 11 through 43”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="S."> <text>Amend Paragraph 7.9.1.2 to replace “only” in the first sentence with “, but not be limited to,”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="T."> <text>Amend Paragraph 8.7.3.3 to replace “8.7.3.3.5” with “8.7.3.3.5, unless otherwise permitted by the AHJ:”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="U."> <text>Amend Paragraph 9.6.1.3 and Subsection 9.11.1 to delete “required by this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="V."> <text>Amend Paragraph 9.6.2.6 to add the following: This paragraph does not permit the omission of manual fire alarm boxes in accordance with other provisions of this Subsection unless specifically permitted by Chapters 11 through 43.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="W."> <text>Delete Subparagraph 9.6.2.10.7 and Sub-subparagraphs 9.6.2.10.7.1 and 9.6.2.10.7.2.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="X."> <text>Amend Paragraph 9.7.1.1 to add the following Subparagraph: 9.7.1.1.1 For new ceiling installations, drop-out ceilings as referenced in NFPA 13 Subsection 9.3.11 and NFPA 13R Section 6.15 shall be prohibited.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Y."> <text>Amend Paragraph 9.11.4.1 and Subsection 9.14.1 to replace “Chapters 11 through 43” with “the AHJ and Chapters 11 through 43”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Z."> <text>Amend Paragraph 9.11.4.2 to replace “by 9.3.5” with “by the AHJ, 9.3.5”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="AA."> <text>Amend Subsection 9.13.1 to replace “by another section of this Code” with “the AHJ and another section of this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="BB."> <text>Amend Subsections 9.15.1 and 9.15.2 to insert the words “and the AHJ” after “NFPA 1225”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="CC."> <text>Amend Subsections 10.4.1 and 10.5.1 to add the following at the beginning of each sentence: “Unless otherwise permitted by the AHJ,”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="DD."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.7.1.1 to add “and be approved by the AHJ” after “10.7.5.2”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="EE."> <text>Amend Paragraph 11.8.3.1 to add “High-rise buildings do not include a structure or building used exclusively for open-air parking.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="FF."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 11.8.6.1 and 11.8.6.2 to replace “approved by the fire department” with “approved by the AHJ”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="GG."> <text>Amend Paragraph 11.11.2.1 to add “or other approved testing standard approved by the State Fire Marshal”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="HH."> <text>Delete Section 11.12.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="II."> <text>Delete Paragraphs 12.2.1.2, 14.2.1.5, 16.2.1.1, 28.2.1.4, 30.2.1.3, 32.2.2.7, 36.2.1.6, 38.2.1.5, 40.2.1.3, 42.2.1.3, Subparagraphs 16.6.2.1.2, 32.3.2.1.3, and Subsection 26.2.4.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="JJ."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 12.2.4.1 and 13.2.4.1 to add the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Not less than two separate exits shall be provided on every story.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Not less than two separate exits shall be accessible from every part of every story.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="KK."> <text>Amend Paragraph 12.3.5.1 to replace “The following assembly occupancies” with “The following assembly occupancies having an occupant load of 100 or more persons, or 5,000 or more square feet in area, or located on a floor other than the level of exit discharge”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="LL."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 12.7.7.3 and 13.7.7.3 to replace “prior” with “within 10 minutes prior”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="MM."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 14.7.2.3 and 15.7.2.3 to delete existing wording and replace with the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Not less than one fire emergency egress drill shall be conducted every month the facility is in session, unless the following criteria are met:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In climates where the weather is severe, the monthly fire emergency egress drills shall be permitted to be deferred; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>In educational occupancies which are:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>fully protected by an automatic sprinkler system, the total number of annual fire emergency egress drills shall be five, with a least two of the required drills conducted in the first four months of the school year; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>not fully protected by an automatic sprinkler system, the total number of annual fire emergency egress drills shall be eight, with at least three of the required drills conducted in the first four months of the school year.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All occupants of the building shall participate in the fire emergency egress drill.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>One fire emergency egress drill, other than for educational occupancies that are open on a year-round basis, shall be required within the first 30 days of operation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="NN."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraphs 15.2.2.2.4.1(3) and 17.2.2.2.6.1(3) to replace “operations,” with “operations, the locking device is of a type that is readily distinguishable as locked,”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="OO."> <text>Amend Paragraph 15.2.4.2 to delete “unless otherwise permitted by 15.2.4.2(3)” from item (1) and delete item (3).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="PP."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 15.3.4.3.1.2 to delete “control unit or”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="QQ."> <text>Amend Subsections 16.1.1 and 17.1.1 to add the following Paragraphs: 16.1.1.10 and 17.1.1.10 Day-care centers providing day care for school-age children before or after school hours in a building which is in use as a public or private school are not required to meet the provisions of this chapter, but shall meet the provisions for educational occupancies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="RR."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 16.2.11.1.1 to add the following item: (4) For grade floor windows the minimum net clear opening shall be permitted to be 5.0 square feet.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="SS."> <text>Amend Paragraph 16.3.5.1 to add the following: Automatic sprinkler protection is not required if all of the following conditions are met:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The total number of occupants in the occupancy in which the day care center is located is not more than 300 persons.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All rooms used for day care are located on the level of exit discharge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>All rooms used for day care have at least one exterior exit door at grade level; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The occupancy in which the day care center is located does not exceed 12,000 square feet in area.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="TT."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraphs 16.6.1.4.1.1 and 17.6.1.4.1.1 to delete “more than three, but” and replace “seven” with “nine”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="UU."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraphs 16.6.1.4.1.2 and 17.6.1.4.1.2 to replace “7” with “9”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="VV."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 16.6.1.7.1 and 17.6.1.7.1 to replace “both” with “all” and Items (1) and (2) with the following Items:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The minimum staff-to-client ratio shall be not less than one staff member for up to eight clients, including the caretaker's own children incapable of self-preservation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>There shall be not more than four clients incapable of self-preservation, including the caretaker's own children incapable of self-preservation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A staff-to-client ratio of at least one staff member to every two clients incapable of self-preservation shall be maintained at all times.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The staff-to-client ratio shall be permitted to be modified by the authority having jurisdiction where safeguards in addition to those specified in this section are provided.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="WW."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 16.6.2.1.1 and Paragraph 17.6.2.1 to add the following: Bulkhead doors may not serve as a primary means of escape.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="XX."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 16.6.2.4.5 and 17.6.2.4.5 to delete item (3).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="YY."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 16.6.2.2 (Reserved) and 17.6.2.2 (Reserved) to add the following: SLIDING DOOR: For family day-care homes, a sliding door used as a required means of escape shall comply with the following conditions:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The sliding door shall have not more than one, easily operated, locking device that does not require special knowledge, effort, or tools to operate;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>There may not be draperies, screens, or storm doors that could impede egress;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The sill or track height may not exceed 1/2 inch above the interior finish floor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The surface onto which exit is made shall be an all weather surface such as a deck, patio, or sidewalk;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The floor level outside the door may be one step lower than the inside, but not more than 8 inches lower;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The sliding door shall open to a clear open width of at least 28 inches;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Before day-care use each day, the sliding door shall be unlocked and tested to the full required width to be sure it is operating properly, and the door shall be nonbinding and slide easily; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>During periods of snow or freezing rain, door tracks shall be cleared out and the door opened periodically throughout the day in order to ensure proper operation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="ZZ."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 16.6.2.3 (Reserved) and 17.6.2.3 (Reserved) to add the following:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="AAA."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 16.6.3.4.5 to replace the word “Reserved.” with the following: For compliance with Paragraph 43.7.2.1(2), approved battery-powered smoke alarms, rather than house electrical service-powered smoke alarms required by 16.6.3.4.4, shall be permitted where the facility has testing, maintenance, and smoke alarm replacement programs that ensure reliability of power to the smoke alarms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="BBB."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 17.2.11.1.1 to add the following item:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="CCC."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 17.6.2.1, 28.2.1.2, 29.2.1.2, 30.2.1.2, 31.2.1.2 and Subparagraphs 16.6.2.1.1, 16.6.2.4.1, 16.6.2.4.2, 17.6.2.4.1, 17.6.2.4.2, and 33.3.2.1.2 to add the following sentence: The provisions of Subsection 24.2.8 shall not apply.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="DDD."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 17.6.3.4.5 to delete “existing” and replace “battery” with “smoke alarm”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="EEE."> <text>Amend Section 19.3 to add the following Paragraph and Subparagraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="FFF."> <text>Amend Section 21.3 to add the following Paragraph and Subparagraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="GGG."> <text>Amend Paragraph 22.4.6.2 to add the following Subparagraph:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="HHH."> <text>Amend Paragraph 24.1.1.2 to replace “three” with “five” and delete “, if any, accommodated in rented rooms”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="III."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 24.2.2.3.3, 32.2.2.3.1(3), and 33.2.2.3.1(3) to insert “, or not less than 5.0 square feet for grade floor windows” after “5.7 ft2”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="JJJ."> <text>Amend Paragraph 26.1.1.1 to replace “buildings” with “buildings that do not qualify as one- and two-family dwellings”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="KKK."> <text>Delete Subsections 30.7.5 and 31.7.5.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="LLL."> <text>Amend Paragraph 31.3.5.9.1 to replace “by January 1, 2033” with “within 12 years of the date of the original violation notice issued by the fire authority having jurisdiction.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="MMM."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 33.3.3.4.8.1 to delete “33.3.3.4.8.2 and”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="NNN."> <text>Delete Sub-subparagraph 33.3.3.4.8.2.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="OOO."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 36.3.5.3, 37.3.5.3, 38.3.5.2, and 39.3.5 to replace “portable” with “Unless otherwise permitted by the AHJ, portable”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="PPP."> <text>Amend Table 42.2.5 to replace “50” with “75” and “15” with “23” for common path of travel for ordinary hazard storage occupancy not protected throughout by an approved, supervised automatic sprinkler system in accordance with 9.7.1.1(1).</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="QQQ."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 42.3.4.1.2 and 42.3.4.1.3 to replace “Storage occupancies” with “Storage occupancies less than three stories”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="RRR."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraphs 42.8.3.4.1.1 and 42.8.3.4.1.3 to replace “Parking structures” with “Parking structures less than three stories”.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="National Fire Protection Association 1 Fire Code."> <text>The NFPA 1 Fire Code (2024 Edition) is incorporated by reference, except for the amendments in Regulation .09 of this chapter and the following amendments:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Delete Section 1.11. (See COMAR 29.06.02)</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Delete Section 1.12.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Amend Subsection 1.13.1 to add the following Paragraph: 1.13.1.1 Permits, certificates, notices, approvals, or orders required by this code shall be governed by the policies and procedures of the AHJ.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Amend Paragraph 1.13.6.13 to replace “Permits shall” with “Permits may”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Amend Subsection 1.13.8 to replace “shall” with “may”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Amend Subsection 1.14.2 to delete “Mandatory.” and replace “shall” with “may”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Delete Paragraph 1.14.12.4.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Amend Subsection 2.1.1 and Paragraphs 2.1.1.1 and 2.1.1.2 to replace “Compliance” with “Where permitted by the AHJ, compliance”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Amend Section 2.2 to delete the referenced publication NFPA 5000 Building Construction and Safety Code, 2024 edition. Wherever NFPA 5000 is referenced, other than for extracted text, substitute the building code adopted by the AHJ. Delete the referenced publication NFPA 150 Standard on Fire and Life Safety in Animal Housing Facilities, 2022 edition.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>Amend Section 2.4 to delete the publication NFPA 5000 Building Construction Safety Code, 2024 edition. Wherever NFPA 5000 is referenced, other than for extracted text, substitute the building code adopted by the AHJ.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Amend Subsection 3.3.17 to add the following Paragraph: 3.3.17.12 Consumer Fireworks Retail Sales Area. The portion of a consumer fireworks retail sales facility or store, including the immediately adjacent aisles, where consumer fireworks are located for the purpose of retail display and sale to the public.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Amend Subsection 3.3.136 and Paragraph 3.3.136.1 to add “and as referenced in Public Safety Article, §10-101, Annotated Code of Maryland”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Delete Subsection 3.3.175.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>Amend Paragraph 3.3.203.6 to delete “more than 3 but”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 3.3.203.7 and 6.1.4.1 to delete “four or more”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Amend Paragraph 3.3.203.25 and Subparagraph 3.3.203.25.1 to replace “three” with “five” and delete “, if any, accommodated in rented rooms”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 3.3.203.28 and 6.1.9.1 to replace “four” with “six”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="R."> <text>Amend Paragraph 4.5.8.1 to delete “for compliance with the provisions of this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="S."> <text>Amend Paragraph 4.5.8.3 to delete “by the Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="T."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 6.1.8.1.1 to replace “three” with “five” and delete “, if any, accommodated in rented rooms”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="U."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.1.2 to add “except as amended by COMAR 29.06.01.07, COMAR 29.06.01.08, and COMAR 29.06.01.09”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="V."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.2.7.1 to replace “in Table 10.2.7.1” with “by the AHJ” and Table 10.2.7.1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="W."> <text>Amend Annex A to add the following new Paragraph: A.10.2.7.1 The frequency of fire prevention inspections of existing buildings should be based upon a risk assessment of these properties completed by the responsible AHJ. Considerations for this assessment should include, but not be limited to, the occupancy classification of the building and hazards associated with that classification; the number, location, and physical and mental capabilities of potential building occupants (especially self-evacuation abilities); construction design and maintenance of the property; fire protection features of the building; special hazards associated with activities or operations conducted within the building; available fire department suppression resources with special consideration to necessary special suppression operations; and resources available for fire code inspections and enforcement actions.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="X."> <text>Amend Subsections 10.5.1 and 10.5.2 to replace “AHJ” with “AHJ or incident commander”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Y."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.2.7.1 to replace “in Table 10.2.7.1” with “by the AHJ” and Table 10.2.7.1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Z."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.11.1 to add the following Subparagraph and Paragraph:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="AA."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.11.1.1, 10.11.1.2, 10.11.1.3, 10.11.1.4, and 10.11.1.8 to replace “address numbers” with “premises identification”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="BB."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.11.1.6 to delete existing wording and replace with “Where required by the AHJ, the assignment of addresses to buildings shall be in accordance with an approved method.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="CC."> <text>Delete Paragraph 10.11.1.7.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="DD."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 10.14.12.2.6 to replace “any vehicles” with “any vehicles, buildings,”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="EE."> <text>Amend Paragraph 10.15.5.1 to replace “Portable” with “Unless otherwise approved by the AHJ, portable”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="FF."> <text>Amend Paragraph A.10.15.5.1 to add the following: For the purposes of reducing the distances between the operation and refueling of portable and vehicle-mounted generators and any building or enclosure opening, including windows, doors, and air intakes, one or more of the following conditions may be considered:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="GG."> <text>Amend Section 10.16 to add the following Subsection: 10.16.6 The AHJ shall have the authority to require that outdoor storage of any combustible material be enclosed by an approved fence or other protective enclosure to prevent unauthorized access.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="HH."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.16.1 to replace “10 ft (3m)” with “15 feet (4.6 meters)” and “property line” with “property line, building, or adjacent pile of combustible material”; and add the following: The separation distance shall be allowed to be increased where the AHJ determines that a higher hazard to the adjoining property exists.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="II."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.16.5 to add “and shall not exceed 10,000 square feet in area”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="JJ."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.19.7 to replace “repaired” with “repaired on any balcony, under any overhanging portion, or”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="KK."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.21.1 to replace “more than five” with “one or more” and replace “10 ft (3 m)” with “15 feet (4.6 meters)”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="LL."> <text>Amend Subsection 10.21.4 Item (3) to replace “10 ft (3 m)” with “15 feet (4.6 meters)”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="MM."> <text>Amend Section 10.22 to replace “10.22.5” with “10.22.5, unless otherwise permitted by the AHJ”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="NN."> <text>Amend Section 11.1 to add the following Subsection:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="OO."> <text>Amend Paragraph 11.1.5.6 to delete existing wording and replace with the following: Extension cords shall not be used as a substitute for permanent wiring.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="PP."> <text>Amend Paragraph 11.1.7.3 to add the following Subparagraph: 11.1.7.3.2 Doors to electrical control panel rooms shall be marked with a plainly visible and legible sign stating ELECTRICAL ROOM or similar approved wording in contrasting letters not less than one inch (25 millimeters) high and not less than ¼ inch (6.4 millimeters) in stroke width.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="QQ."> <text>Amend Paragraph 11.3.6.1 to add the following sentence: Keys for new elevators shall be cut to a uniform key code to comply with the Maryland State Elevator Code.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="RR."> <text>Amend Subsection 11.9.1 to replace “approved by the fire department” with “approved by the AHJ”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="SS."> <text>Amend Paragraph 12.6.9.1 to add the following new Subparagraph: 12.6.9.1.2 The AHJ shall be permitted to:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="TT."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 12.6.9.1.1 to replace “Christmas” with “Unless otherwise approved by the AHJ, Christmas”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="UU."> <text>Amend Paragraph 12.6.9.5 to add the following Subparagraph: 12.6.9.5.3 Combustible artificial decorative vegetation shall be tested by a laboratory recognized by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="VV."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 12.6.9.6.1 to replace ½” (13 mm)” with “2 inches (50 millimeters)” and add the following sentence: “A natural cut tree shall not exceed 10 feet (3 meters) in height, excluding the tree stand.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="WW."> <text>Amend Section 13.1 to add the following Subsection: 13.1.14 Appearance of Equipment. The AHJ shall be permitted to prohibit any device that has the physical appearance of a life safety or fire protection function but does not perform that life safety or fire protection function.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="XX."> <text>Amend Paragraph 13.1.3.1 to replace “by Chapters 11 through 43” with “by the AHJ and Chapters 11 through 43”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="YY."> <text>Amend Paragraph 13.1.3.2 to replace “by 9.3.5” with “by the AHJ, 9.3.5”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="ZZ."> <text>Amend Paragraph 13.3.1.2 to add the following Subparagraph: 13.3.1.2.1 For new ceiling installations, drop-out ceilings as referenced in NFPA 13, Subsection 9.3.11 and NFPA 13R, Section 6.15, shall be prohibited.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="AAA."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 13.3.2.5.1 replace “The following assembly occupancies” with “The following assembly occupancies having an occupant load of 100 or more persons, or 5,000 or more square feet in area, or located on a floor other than the level of exit discharge”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="BBB."> <text>Delete Subparagraph 13.3.2.24.2 and replace with the following:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="CCC."> <text>Amend A.13.3.2.24.2.3 to replace “A.13.3.2.24.2.3” with “A.13.3.2.24.2.5”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="DDD."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 13.3.2.25.5 to delete existing wording and replace with the following: An automatic sprinkler system shall be installed throughout all mini-storage building fire areas greater than 2500 feet2(232 meters2) and where any of the individual storage units are separated by less than a 1-hour fire resistance-rated barrier. Fire areas shall be defined by approved fire barriers having a fire resistance rating of not less than 3-hours.[5000:30.3.5.4]</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="EEE."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.3.2.27.1.1 to add the following:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="FFF."> <text>Amend Paragraphs 13.3.3.1 and 13.3.3.2 to delete “installed in accordance with this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="GGG."> <text>Amend Subsection 13.4.1 to add the following Subparagraph: 13.4.1.1.1 No fire pump component, including the pump, driver, or controller, shall be permitted to be installed in below-ground vaults or pits unless otherwise approved by the AHJ.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="HHH."> <text>Amend Subsection 13.6.1.2 to add “, unless otherwise permitted by the AHJ.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="III."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.6.4.1.2.1 to replace “certified” with “licensed as required by the AHJ”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="JJJ."> <text>Delete Sub-subparagraphs 13.6.4.1.2.1.1, 13.6.4.1.2.1.2, 13.6.4.1.2.1.3, 13.6.4.1.2.1.4, 13.6.4.1.2.1.5, 13.6.4.1.2.1.6.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="KKK."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.6.4.1.2.3 to replace “certified” with “licensed”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="LLL."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 13.7.1.7.6 to add the following: This paragraph does not permit the omission of manual fire alarm boxes in accordance with other provisions of this Subsection unless specifically permitted by NFPA 101 Chapters 11 through 43.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="MMM."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 13.7.1.15.1 to replace “another section of this Code” with “the AHJ and another section of this Code”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="NNN."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.7.2.5.6.4 to add the following: For compliance with NFPA 101, Paragraph 43.7.2.1(2), approved battery-powered smoke alarms, rather than house electrical service-powered smoke alarms shall be permitted where the facility has testing, maintenance, and smoke alarm replacement programs that ensure reliability of power to the smoke alarms.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="OOO."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.7.2.6.6.5 to delete “existing” and replace “battery” with “smoke alarm”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="PPP."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraph 13.7.2.22.8.1 to delete “13.7.2.22.8.2 and”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="QQQ."> <text>Delete Sub-subparagraph 13.7.2.22.8.2.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="RRR."> <text>Amend Sub-subparagraphs 13.7.2.28.1.2 and 13.7.2.28.1.3 to replace “Storage occupancies” with “Storage occupancies less than three stories”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="SSS."> <text>Amend Paragraph 14.4.2.1 to add the following subparagraph:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="TTT."> <text>Amend Subparagraphs 14.5.2.3.7 and 14.5.2.3.8 to add the following sentence: “The locking device shall be of a type that is readily distinguishable as locked.”</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="UUU."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 14.5.3.4.1 to replace “in Chapters 11 through 43” with “by the AHJ and in Chapters 11 through 43”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="VVV."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 14.5.3.5.1 to delete “required to be”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="WWW."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 14.5.3.5.4 to delete the word “Required”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="XXX."> <text>Amend Subsection 14.5.8 to delete “14.5.8.1 or”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="YYY."> <text>Delete Paragraph 14.5.8.1.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="ZZZ."> <text>Amend Paragraph 14.5.10.1 to replace “by Chapters 11 through 43” with “by the AHJ or Chapters 11 through 43”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="AAAA."> <text>Amend Paragraph 14.13.1.2 to replace “only” in the first sentence with “, but not be limited to,”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="BBBB."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 18.2.3.2.1 to replace “exterior door” with “exterior door acceptable to the AHJ”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="CCCC."> <text>Amend Paragraph 18.2.3.4 to replace the word “shall” with “to” and replace the word “newly” with “the AHJ shall be permitted to require newly”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="DDDD."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 20.1.5.8.3 to replace “prior” to “within 10 minutes prior”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="EEEE."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 20.2.4.2.3 to delete existing wording and replace with the following: Fire emergency egress drills shall be conducted as follows:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="FFFF."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 20.3.4.1.1 and 20.3.4.1.2 to delete “more than 3, but” and the “,” after “12”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="GGGG."> <text>Amend Paragraph 25.2.2.1 to add “or other approved testing standard approved by the State Fire Marshal”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="HHHH."> <text>Amend Subsection 26.1.6 to add the following Paragraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="IIII."> <text>Amend Paragraph 32.9.3.7 to replace “made” with “made within 10 minutes prior to the start of each program”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="JJJJ."> <text>Amend 34.1.3 to replace “An approved storage” with “Where required by the AHJ, an approved storage”.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="KKKK."> <text>Amend Section 34.6 to add the following new Subsection and Paragraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="LLLL."> <text>Delete Chapter 35 Animal Housing Facilities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="MMMM."> <text>Amend Subsection 42.7.5 to add the following Paragraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="NNNN."> <text>Amend Paragraph 42.7.5.5 to add the following: The following information shall be conspicuously posted in this area:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="OOOO."> <text>Amend Subsection 50.8.1 to add the following Paragraphs, Subparagraphs, and Sub-subparagraphs:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="PPPP."> <text>Delete Subsection 50.8.3 and replace with the following:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="QQQQ."> <text>Amend Subparagraph 50.8.8.3.2 to replace “not be transported or stored inside the vehicle” with “be secured in an upright position during transport and storage”.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Fireworks and Explosive Materials."> <text>The NFPA 1 Fire Code (2024 Edition) is incorporated by reference, except for the amendments in Regulation .08 of this chapter and the following amendments:</text> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Permits shall be required for the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fireworks displays;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Pyrotechnics before a proximate audience; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Flame effects before an audience.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Amend Sections 65.2, 65.3, and 65.4 to add the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>All applications for permits for display shall be filed at least 10 business days before the display is to be held.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Under Public Safety Article, Title 10, Annotated Code of Maryland, the following requirements apply to public liability and property damage insurance:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>In order to meet the requirement of the statute, the State shall be named as an insured in the contract of insurance;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Because the policy shall cover all damages to persons or property, a deductible form of coverage may not be accepted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The minimum amount of coverage that the State can accept on any display is $25,000 for the injury of one person, $50,000 for more than one person, and $10,000 for property damage; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>A duplicate policy of a certificate of insurance shall be attached to the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The policy or certificate shall provide that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The coverage may not be canceled without at least 30 days notice to the State Fire Marshal;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The duplicate policy or certificate shall set forth all of the terms, conditions, endorsements, and riders which are or which will become part of the policy when issued;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>It is understood and agreed that limitations cannot be included in the policy which are not set forth in the duplicate policy or certificate of insurance which has been filed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>If the policy is issued by an insurer authorized to do business in the State, it shall be validated by the signature of an agent licensed by the Maryland Insurance Administration to represent the insurer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>If coverage is provided by an insurer who is not authorized to do business in the State, the duplicate policy or certificate of insurance shall be accompanied by a power of attorney or other satisfactory evidence that the person, firm, or corporation acting as agent in accepting the risk has authority to bind risks and issue policies for the insurer;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>The State Fire Marshal's Office specifically reserves the right to disapprove contracts issued by any authorized insurer if the Fire Marshal's Office determines the insurer is unsatisfactory; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>If the policy issued by the unauthorized company is acceptable to the Fire Marshal's Office, it shall be registered and the registration fee and tax paid.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Amend Section 65.5 to add the following regarding the manufacture of fireworks:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A building containing hazardous mixes or items may not be located closer than 20 feet to the property line.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>In §C(3) of this regulation, the following terms have the meanings indicated:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Trainees” means employees undergoing initial training in a specific process for a period not to exceed 24 consecutive work hours.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Transients” means:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Supervisors not regularly assigned to the area;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Bona fide government agency personnel engaged in official business; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Material-handling personnel actively engaged in the transfer of materials into or out of the area.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The maximum number of workers, excluding one trainee and three transients, permitted in a building at one time shall be limited to one person per 100 square feet gross floor area or one person in buildings of less than 100 square feet gross floor area.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>The total amount of explosives or pyrotechnic composition including raw materials, material being processed, and finished products, that may be safely permitted in any building at a given time, shall be determined by the enforcement agency based upon the American Table of Distances for Storage of Explosives, without recognition for barricades. However, distances may not be less than those required by Public Safety Article, §10-204(a), Annotated Code of Maryland. The amount of explosives or other pyrotechnic composition may not exceed the amount necessary for production for 4 hours.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Before beginning work, all fireworks plants shall submit for approval accurate scale plot plans of their premises to the State Fire Marshal of all proposed changes of location of any of the structures, fences, and gates.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Amend Section 65.5 to add the following Subsection:</text> <paragraph num="65.5.3"> <text>Sale or use of fireworks shall comply with the following:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Before the sale, offering for sale, or use within the State, of any sparkler, every manufacturer of sparklers shall submit sufficient samples for inspection to the State Fire Marshal, with a laboratory report from a certified testing laboratory affirming that the analysis of these sparklers showed that they contain no chlorates or perchlorates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>All sparklers sold in the State shall be sold in boxes, and each box shall be clearly marked that the sparklers contain no chlorates or perchlorates.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The manufacturer shall furnish the State Fire Marshal with a current list of wholesalers, jobbers, retailers, or retail outlets, who handle or supply sparklers, or maintain a list of wholesalers, jobbers, retailers, or retail outlets, subject to inspection by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Amend Subsection 65.9.1 reference to NFPA 495 as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Amend Section 3.3 to add the following definition: Demolition. The explosive razing of any manmade structure or any part thereof that cannot be covered with overburden or blasting mats.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Amend Section 4.4 to add the following new Subsection: 4.4.7 Each applicant for a Demolition Class D permit shall possess 5 years of experience in the field of demolition and shall pass the demolition examination as approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>NOTE: The content of this regulation is extracted text from NFPA 1, 2012 edition, by permission. Copyright © 2012 NFPA.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Blasting Operations General Requirements."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Notifications. Written notification by email or facsimile shall be provided to the Office of the State Fire Marshal Bomb Squad at least 24 hours prior to each blast. The name of company or contractor performing the blasting and the location, date, and approximate time shall be identified. The geographical coordinates (longitude and latitude) shall be provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Complaints. If requested by a property owner registering a complaint and considered necessary by the State Fire Marshal, measurements on three consecutive blasts, using approved instrumentation, shall be made near to the structure in question.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Special Precautions. When blasting operations, other than those conducted at a fixed site such as a quarry, are to be conducted within 200 feet of a pipe line or high voltage transmission line, the contractor shall take additional precautionary measures and shall notify the owner of the line, or the owner’s agent, that blasting operations are intended.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Records.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A record of each blast shall be kept. All records, including seismograph reports, shall be retained for at least 3 years, be available for inspection, and include the following items:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Name of company or contractor;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Location, date, and time of blast. The geographical coordinates (longitude and latitude) shall be identified;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Name, signature, and Social Security number of blaster in charge;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Type of material blasted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Number of holes, burden, and spacing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Diameter and depth of holes;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Type of explosives used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Total amount of explosives used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Maximum amount of explosives per delay period of 8 milliseconds or greater;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>Method of firing and type of circuit;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Direction and distance in feet to nearest dwelling house, public building, school, church, and commercial or institutional building not owned or leased by the person conducting the blasting;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Weather conditions including such factors as wind direction, etc.;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Height or length of stemming;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(n)"> <text>If mats or other protection to prevent fly rock were used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(o)"> <text>Type of detonators used and delay period used;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(p)"> <text>Seismograph records including seismograph readings when required containing:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Name and signature of the individual operating the seismograph,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Name of the individual analyzing the seismograph records, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Seismograph reading; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(q)"> <text>The maximum number of holes per delay period of 8 milliseconds or greater.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The person taking the seismograph reading shall accurately indicate the exact location of the seismograph, if used, and shall also show the distance of the seismograph from the blast.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Liability Insurance for Explosives Handlers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>As provided in Public Safety Article, Title 11, Annotated Code of Maryland, proof of liability insurance shall be provided by an applicant for a license to:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Manufacture explosives;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Engage in the business of dealing in explosives; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Possess any explosives other than for use in firearms.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The minimum amount of liability insurance required for licensing for the activities specified in §E(1) of this regulation is $1,000,000.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Portable Fire Extinguishers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>License to Service or Repair Portable Fire Extinguishers. A license shall be obtained from the State Fire Marshal's Office by every individual, firm, or corporation commercially servicing, repairing, filling, or refilling portable fire extinguishers, except fire departments.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Sale of Portable Fire Extinguishers.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>It is unlawful for a person, directly or through an agent, to sell or offer for sale in the State any make, type, or model of portable fire extinguisher, either new or used, unless the make, type, or model of extinguisher has been tested and listed by a testing laboratory accepted by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An extinguisher is not approved even if it bears the label of an accepted testing laboratory if it contains any of the following liquids:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Carbon tetrachloride, chlorobromomethane, azeotrophic chloromethane, dibromodifluoromethane, 1,2-dibromo-2-chloro-1,2-trifluoroethane;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>1,2-dibromo-2,2-difluoroethane, methyl bromide, ethylene dibromide;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>1,2-dibromotetrafluoroethane, hydrogen bromide, methylene bromide, bromodifluoromethane, dichlorodifluoromethane; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Any other toxic or poisonous liquid.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11-1" heading="Nonwater-Based Fixed Fire Extinguishing Systems."> <text>A license shall be obtained from the State Fire Marshal's Office by every individual, firm, or corporation commercially installing, servicing, or repairing nonwater-based fixed fire extinguishing systems.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Smoke Detectors for the Deaf or Hearing Impaired — Signs — Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Sale and Use of Heaters and Stoves."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Gasoline Stoves. The sale or use of gasoline stoves or other similar fuel-burning cooking or heating appliances using Class I flammable liquids as defined in NFPA 1 Fire Code (2024 Edition) and NFPA 30 Flammable and Combustible Liquids Code (2024 Edition), is prohibited unless the appliance has been tested and listed by a testing laboratory accepted by the State Fire Marshal. The appliance shall be installed, operated, and maintained in a safe manner in accordance with the prescribed recommendation of the manufacturer and the conditions stated in the listing by the respective testing laboratory.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Unvented Portable Kerosene-Fired Heaters.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The sale or use of unvented portable kerosene-fired heaters is permitted only if the heater or appliance meets the U.L. Subject 647 and bears the label of a testing laboratory accepted by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The heaters shall only be used as permitted under Commercial Law Article, §14-1310, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Each heater shall contain a warning label stating: “This device must not be operated while unattended”. In addition, the heater shall contain the manufacturer's warning label required by Commercial Law Article, §14-1310, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Sale or Use of Flame Retardant Chemicals."> <text>An individual, firm, or corporation may not sell or offer for sale in the State any type of flame-retardant or flame-proofing compound, powder, or liquid, for fire-retardant purposes unless the product has been tested, listed, and bears the mark of a recognized testing laboratory accepted by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Visual Obscuration Systems."> <text>Visual obscuration systems associated with security or burglar alarm systems may not be permitted.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§6-206 and 6-501, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01B, .13A, .15B, G, .16B, .18A, B, .22B, .23A—C, .26B, .29B—D, .33, .35B amended effective October 7, 1977 (4:21 Md. R. 1604)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .04—.14, .16—.35, and .41 amended effective August 30, 1982 (9:17 Md. R. 1709)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14D adopted effective July 1, 1967</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .15G, .16C, .18C, .22A, .29B, and .35B, E, F amended as an emergency provision effective February 23, 1978 (5:5 Md. R. 332); adopted permanently effective June 2, 1978 (5:11 Md. R. 885)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16A amended effective April 9, 1984 (11:7 Md. R. 628)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .16B, .18A, E, .23, .26B, .29D amended effective May 14, 1975 (2:10 Md. R. 759)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16B amended effective April 18, 1980 (7:8 Md. R. 772)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .23B amended effective August 22, 1980 (7:17 Md. R. 1672)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .26 amended effective December 7, 1981 (8:24 Md. R. 1936)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .30E adopted effective October 5, 1979 (6:20 Md. R. 1629); September 19, 1980 (7:19 Md. R. 1808)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .33 amended effective November 21, 1983 (10:23 Md. R. 2064)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .34 amended effective January 21, 1976 (3:2 Md. R. 87) and November 4, 1977 (4:23 Md. R. 1735)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .36 adopted effective April 27, 1977 (4:9 Md. R. 1719)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .36A, C amended effective October 7, 1977 (4:21 Md. R. 1604)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .37 adopted effective February 26, 1979 (6:4 Md. R. 227); amended effective October 5, 1979 (6:20 Md. R. 1629)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .37 (Cellulose and Foam Insulation) adopted as an emergency provision effective January 1, 1979 (6:1 Md. R. 15); emergency status withdrawn by AELR Committee for §B of this regulation effective February 1, 1979 (6:4 Md. R. 275); emergency status expired May 12, 1979</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .38 adopted effective October 5, 1979 (6:20 Md. R. 1629)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .39 adopted effective October 31, 1980 (7:22 Md. R. 2074)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .40 adopted effective July 20, 1981 (8:14 Md. R. 1228)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .41 adopted effective October 12, 1981 (8:20 Md. R. 1636)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .42 adopted effective January 17, 1983 (10:1 Md. R. 32)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 6, 1985 (12:9 Md. R. 812)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended effective July 28, 1986 (13:15 Md. R. 1735); July 24, 1989 (16:14 Md. R. 1568)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06O amended effective October 5, 1987 (14:20 Md. R. 2143)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06R adopted effective October 1, 1985 (12:19 Md. R. 1849)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06S adopted effective March 7, 1988 (15:5 Md. R. 622)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended effective January 23, 1989 (16:1 Md. R. 72)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 11, 1992 (19:9 Md. R. 879)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09B amended effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10 adopted effective November 22, 1993 (20:23 Md. R. 1805)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective December 4, 1995 (22:24 Md. R. 1897)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">COMAR 12.03.01 repealed effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.22 adopted effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.22 repealed effective August 6, 2001 (28:15 Md. R. 1400)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.17 adopted effective August 6, 2001 (28:15 Md. R. 1400)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective August 1, 2004 (31:12 Md. R. 914)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective January 1, 2007 (33:24 Md. R. 1907)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533); January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B repealed effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04D amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06B amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06C amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07 amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533); January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 533); January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 533); January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09E amended as an emergency provision effective February 7, 2020 (47:10 Md. R. 514); emergency provision expired effective August 3, 2020</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09E amended effective August 10, 2020 (47:16 Md. R. 738)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 1533); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11-1 adopted effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .13 repealed effective January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14A amended effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956); January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533); January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847); June 23, 2025 (52:12 Md. R. 599)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="02" heading="Procedural Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Hearings—Contested Cases Before the State Fire Prevention Commission."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Appeals.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>When a person is aggrieved by an order or decision of the State Fire Marshal, made in the course of the administration or enforcement of the State Fire Prevention Code and Public Safety Article, Title 6, Annotated Code of Maryland, the person shall file within 20 days a written petition of appeal with the State Fire Prevention Commission, setting forth the reason for the appeal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The 20-day period during which an appeal may be taken begins on the date the notice of the Fire Marshal's order or decision was received by the person or agent in accordance with Public Safety Article, §6-319, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The original petition for appeal and nine copies of it shall be filed with the State Fire Prevention Commission, 12 Jonathan Street, Suite 100, Hagerstown, MD 21740.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Upon receipt of the petition for appeal, the secretary to the State Fire Prevention Commission shall mail a copy of the petition for appeal to each member of the Commission. The appellant shall be notified of the time and date of the hearing before the Commission at least 10 days before the hearing. At the hearing, there shall be at least five members of the Commission present, one of which shall be either the chairman or the vice-chairman.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Before the hearing and upon specific written request of any party or counsel, in accordance with Public Safety Article, §6-502, Annotated Code of Maryland, the State Fire Marshal may furnish for copying at the State Fire Marshal's office documents or other material in the State Fire Marshal's files relating to the matter at issue. Upon written request, the State Fire Marshal shall furnish the names of witnesses who have personal knowledge of matters material to the matter at issue.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The Commission shall provide for transcription of the hearing by electronic recording device or by a stenographer.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>At the hearing, the State Fire Marshal, or the State Fire Marshal's agent or attorney, shall present to the Commission the evidence upon which the decision or order was based. The other party or counsel may cross-examine witnesses. The party aggrieved shall then present witnesses to testify, subject to cross-examination, and other evidence relative to the matter at issue. The State Fire Marshal and the party aggrieved shall be permitted to present:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Additional evidence at any time during the hearing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Oral arguments at the close of all of the evidence.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Upon request of a party, a party's counsel, or State Fire Marshal personnel, the Commission may postpone the hearing for any reason.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Unless the hearing is postponed, failure to appear at the time and place designated in the notice shall be deemed a default on the part of a party.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>A decision shall be rendered by the Commission within 30 days of the hearing. Within that time the Commission shall notify all parties in writing of the decision. The decision shall be mailed to the last known address of each party. The mailing of the decision by the Commission is prima facie evidence of notification to a party of the Commission's decision.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Administrative Procedure Act."> <text>In addition to this chapter, State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland, governs practice and procedure in a hearing before the Commission and an appeal from a hearing.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §6-206 and Title 6, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: July 21, 1972</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 6, 1985 (12:9 Md. R. 812)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">COMAR 12.03.02 repealed effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01 and .02 adopted effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="03" heading="Approval of Testing Laboratories" reason="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: May 1, 1989 (16:8 Md. R. 910)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in Residential Occupancies, repealed effective May 11, 1992 (19:9 Md. R. 879)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.04, Approval of Testing Laboratories, adopted effective May 11, 1992 (19:9 Md. R. 879)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter recodified from COMAR 12.03.03 to COMAR 29.06.03 effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.04 repealed effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="04" heading="Fees for Fire Prevention Services"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter establishes a schedule of fees to be used by the State Fire Marshal to at least cover the administrative costs associated with the review of building plans, inspection of new and existing buildings, and fire suppression, detection, and alarm systems to ensure compliance with applicable fire prevention codes.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter does not apply to any municipal corporation or county that has adopted, before the effective date of this chapter, an ordinance or regulation that establishes a fee schedule for building inspections or plans review.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Municipal or County Corporations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The fee schedule established by the State Fire Prevention Commission may be used, amended, or referenced by a municipal or county corporation that chooses to establish its own fee schedule.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A municipal or county corporation establishing its own fee schedule shall be responsible for administering its own:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan reviews or inspections;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Fee processing; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Payment collection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Incorporation by Reference."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Occupancies are defined and classified as required by the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 101 “Life Safety Code” as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01. In the case of mixed occupancies when it is impractical to distinguish individual occupancy classifications, the occupancy classification is based on the predominant use and occupancy of the building or structure.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terminology and reference standards are defined and classified by the appropriate code or standard of the National Fire Protection Association as referenced in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Code” means the State Fire Laws, Public Safety Article, Titles 6 and 9, Annotated Code of Maryland, and the State Fire Prevention Code under COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Fire protection system” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fire alarm and detection systems with a fire alarm control panel;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Sprinkler, water spray, and combined sprinkler and standpipe systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Standpipe systems and hose systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Fire pumps and associated valves, piping, controllers, driver, and related equipment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Gaseous and chemical extinguishing systems that use gases such as halon or carbon dioxide, or dry or wet chemical compounds as the primary extinguishing agent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Foam systems that use a foaming agent to control or extinguish a fire in a flammable liquid installation, aircraft hangar, and other recognized applications; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Smoke control systems that include smoke exhaust, stair pressurization, and other recognized air-handling systems specifically designed to exhaust or control smoke, or create pressure zones to minimize the hazard of smoke spread caused by fire.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Initial inspection” means an inspection conducted for fire code compliance not generated by a previously identified fire code violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Local fire authority” means those municipal or county fire officials specifically authorized under Public Safety Article, Annotated Code of Maryland, to enforce the provisions of the State Fire Laws and Fire Prevention Code.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“New building or condition” means a building, structure, installation, plant, equipment, renovation, or condition:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>For which a building permit is issued on or after the effective date of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>On which actual construction is started on or after the effective date of this chapter in a jurisdiction where a building permit is not required;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>That represents a change from one occupancy classification to another on or after the effective date of this chapter; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>That represents a situation, circumstance, or physical makeup of any structure, premise, or process that was commenced on or after the effective date of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Reinspection” means an inspection conducted for fire code compliance generated by a previously identified fire code violation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“State fire authority” means the State Fire Marshal or legally appointed designee.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Fees in General."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fee Computation. The amount of the fee for the following services shall be computed in accordance with Regulations .05—.07 of this chapter:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Plan review, and use and occupancy inspection;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fire protection system plan review and inspection; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fire safety inspection.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fee Payment for Plan Review and Use and Occupancy Inspections.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fees for plan review and use and occupancy inspections are payable upon receipt of an invoice from the State fire authority of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Preliminary or construction plans for the construction of a new building, addition, expansion, or renovation of an existing building or facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Plans for a fire protection system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fee payments shall be reviewed by the State fire authority to ensure that they are in the proper amount. If a fee payment is incorrect, an invoice requesting the balance of the fee shall be sent to the person identified on the original invoice.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Failure to pay the fee within the required time shall result in appropriate administrative or legal action. Further plan review or inspection action may not take place until the fee is paid in full. This may result in the delay of the issuance of a building permit, or use and occupancy permit, for the building or facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Fee Payment for Fire Safety Inspections.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fees for fire safety inspections are payable upon receipt of an invoice from the State fire authority upon completion of the inspection. Failure to pay this fee within the specified time may result in:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Administrative or legal action;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>No further inspection activity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Denial of the issuance or renewal of a permit or license held by the facility being inspected; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Violation of Public Safety Article, §§6-601, 6-317, 9-109, 9-206, or 9-905, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The fire safety inspection fee may not be charged if the initial inspection is conducted in response to a specific complaint regarding an alleged violation of the Code. Any reinspection based on the initial inspection is subject to the fees outlined in Regulation .07C of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The fire safety inspection fee may not be charged if the initial inspection is initiated by the State fire authority. Any reinspection based on the initial inspection is subject to the fees outlined in Regulation .07C of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Payment Method.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fee payments shall be made payable to the Office of the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Cash payment is not acceptable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fee payment shall be in the form of a check, money order, or other approved means.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Disputes Over Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Disputes regarding the amount of the fee charged and any other matter related to the charging of a fee shall be resolved in accordance with administrative procedures adopted by the State fire authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An appeal of an administrative finding by the State Fire Marshal may be made to the State Fire Prevention Commission in accordance with procedures in COMAR 29.06.02.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Technical Assistance, Unclassified Inspections, and Special Events. Fees for technical assistance, unclassified inspections, and special events shall be based upon criteria required in Regulation .08 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Fees for Plan Review and Use and Occupancy Inspection."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fee Schedule.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The fee schedule in this section is to be used to calculate the fee to be paid for the review of plans for and inspection of all new and existing buildings, including a change in use or occupancy. Where a local jurisdiction elects to conduct plan reviews and adopts a fee schedule for these reviews but does not conduct the inspections, the State Fire Marshal shall be permitted to reduce the fee schedule rate under this regulation by 50 percent to cover the costs of inspections conducted by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The review and inspection is required to obtain a building permit, or a use and occupancy permit from a State or local government agency or licensing authority in order to construct, renovate, or occupy a building or facility, or install a fire protection system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fees are as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Assembly occupancy — 8 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Educational occupancy — 10 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Health care occupancy — 10 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Detention or correctional occupancy — 10 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Residential occupancy — 8 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Mercantile occupancy — 8 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(g)"> <text>Business occupancy — 8 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(h)"> <text>Industrial occupancy — 6 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Storage occupancy — 6 cents per square foot;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(j)"> <text>$100 per plan review or use and occupancy inspection, whichever is greater;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(k)"> <text>Flammable or combustible liquid storage tank — 1 cent per gallon of maximum tank capacity or $200 per tank, whichever is greater, although tanks less than 660 gallons used to provide heating fuel or other utility service to a building or facility are exempt from the fee;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(l)"> <text>Marina or pier — $120 plus $1.50 per slip; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(m)"> <text>Outside storage of flammable and combustible materials such as scrap tire, lumber, mulch, tree stumps, drums of flammable or combustible liquids, etc. — $120 per acre or fraction of an acre.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The fee due shall be calculated using the appropriate rate in §A of this regulation applied to:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The gross square feet per floor for a new building or tenant space or a change in its use or occupancy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The gross square feet of an area being renovated or altered; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The gross square feet per floor for a storage occupancy when a shell building without a specific occupancy or tenancy is to be built.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>When a shell building is built without a specific occupancy or tenancy, the appropriate occupancy fee applies when use or occupancy is determined as prescribed by a separate building permit or use and occupancy permit.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The fee for a mixed occupancy shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be based upon the fee schedule in §A of this regulation for each occupancy;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be the cumulative total of the fee for each occupancy; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Reflect the predominant classification of the building or structure when a separate fee for each occupancy cannot be determined.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>A change in use or occupancy of a building or tenant space shall be calculated at the same rate as a new building.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>The fee for a building or tenant space occupied without completion of a plan review shall be based upon the fee schedule in §A of this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>A 50 percent refund of the fees in §§A—F of this regulation may be refunded if a permit to construct is denied by a permit or licensing authority, or if the applicant abandons the project before construction, for whatever reason. The applicant may request a refund within 6 months of official notification of the denial of the permit, license, or issuance of a building permit by the respective authority. A renewal of the permit or resumption of construction requires a new submittal of plans for the remaining work and payment of the full fee.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Fees for Fire Protection System Plan Review and Inspection."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The fee schedule that follows in this section is to be used to calculate the fee to be paid for plan review and inspection of the fire protection systems specified:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fire alarm and detection system—$150 per fire alarm control panel, plus $2 per fire alarm initiating and indicating device;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sprinkler, water spray, and combined sprinkler and standpipe system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>$2 per sprinkler head and $3 per extended coverage sprinkler head or $150 per system, whichever is greater; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>$100 for each additional hydrostatic test; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>$75 per dwelling unit for one-family and two-family dwellings;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Standpipe and hose system—$50 per 100 linear feet of piping or fraction of 100 linear feet, or $150 per system, whichever is greater;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Fire pump—50 cents per gallon per minute (gpm) of rated pump capacity or $300 per pump, whichever is greater, although this fee does not apply to limited service pumps for residential sprinkler systems as permitted for NFPA 13D systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Water storage tanks—$100 per tank, although this fee does not apply to residential sprinkler system tanks as permitted for NFPA 13D systems;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Gaseous and chemical extinguishing system — The greater of:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>$1 per pound of gaseous or dry chemical extinguishing agent, although this fee does not apply to a reserve supply of extinguishing agent;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>$100 per 30,000 cubic feet of volume of the portion of protected space; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>$150 per system; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>$150 per wet chemical extinguishing system;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Foam system—$100 per nozzle or local applicator device plus $2 per sprinkler head for a combined sprinkler and foam system, or $150 per system, whichever is greater;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Smoke control system—$100 per 50,000 cubic feet of volume or the portion of the protected or controlled space, up to a maximum of $1,500 per system, or $300 per system, whichever is greater.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The fees also include, for a:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Fire alarm and detection system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of a complete system of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Wiring,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Controls,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Alarm and detection equipment, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Related appurtenances; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One final acceptance test of the installed system;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Sprinkler, water spray, and combined sprinkler and standpipe system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shop drawings,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Hydraulic calculations,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Piping,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Control valves, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(v)"> <text>Connections and other related equipment and appurtenances;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One underground flush test;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One hydrostatic test;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>One forward flow test of the backflow preventer; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>One final acceptance test;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Standpipe and hose system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of a complete system of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Shop drawings,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Control valves,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Piping, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Connections and other related equipment and appurtenances;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One flush test;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One hydrostatic test; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>One final acceptance test;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Fire pump:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of a complete system of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Pumps and all associated valves,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Piping,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Controllers,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Driver and other related equipment and appurtenances; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One pump acceptance test per pump;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Gaseous or chemical extinguishing system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of a complete system of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Piping,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Controls, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Equipment and other appurtenances; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One performance or acceptance test;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Foam system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of a complete system of:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Piping,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Controls,</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Nozzles, and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iv)"> <text>Equipment and related appurtenances; and</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One flush test;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>One hydrostatic test; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>One final acceptance test;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Smoke control system:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Plan review and inspection of system components; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>One performance or acceptance test.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Final acceptance tests are to be witnessed by a State fire authority in accordance with administrative procedures established by that authority.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>A fee applies if the tests outlined in §B of this regulation reveal that the system being inspected or tested does not meet applicable standards as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>First reinspection or retest—$200; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each additional reinspection or retest—$250.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Fees for Fire Safety Inspections."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The fee schedule in this regulation is to be used to calculate the fee to be paid for a general fire safety inspection. Specific testing of certain specialized fire protection systems and equipment may be required by qualified maintenance personnel or a contractor at the owner's expense.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The following fees are to be applied based upon the occupancy classification for the building:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Assembly occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>1,001 or more individuals—$360;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>301 to 1,000 individuals—$240;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>50 to 300 individuals—$120;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Fairgrounds, for properties with:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Nine buildings or less—$240;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Ten buildings or more—$480;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Educational occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Elementary school, which includes kindergarten and prekindergarten facilities—$120;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Middle or junior high school—$180;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Senior high school—$180;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Family or group day care homes:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>Initial inspection—$75;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>Renewal inspection—$50;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Nursery or day care centers—$100;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Health care occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Ambulatory health care center—$180 per 3,000 square feet or fraction of 3,000 square feet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Hospital, nursing home, and limited care facility—$120 per building plus $2.50 per patient bed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Detention and correctional occupancy—$120 per building plus $2.50 per rated bed capacity;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Residential occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Hotel and motel—$120 per building plus $2.50 per guest room or suite;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Dormitory—$120 per building plus $2.50 per bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Apartment—$120 per building plus $2.50 per apartment;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Lodging or rooming house—$120 per building plus $2.50 per bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>One and two family dwelling, including alternate living units and foster care homes—$75;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(f)"> <text>Board and care home—$120 per building plus $2.50 per bed;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Mercantile occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Class A—over 30,000 square feet—$300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Class B—3,000 to 30,000 square feet—$150;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Class C—less than 3,000 square feet—$100;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Business occupancy—$120 per 3,000 square feet or fraction of 3,000 square feet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Industrial or storage occupancy:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Low or ordinary hazard—$120 per 5,000 square feet or fraction of 5,000 square feet;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>High hazard—$200 per 5,000 square feet or fraction of 5,000 square feet;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Manufactured homes sites and communities—$120 per facility plus $2.50 per site;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>Campgrounds:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Vehicular campgrounds—$120 per facility plus $2.50 per campsite;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Campgrounds with sleeping accommodations—$180 per facility plus $2.50 per bed;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Campgrounds without sleeping accommodations—$120 per facility;</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>Outside storage of combustible materials, for example, scrap tires, lumber, mulch, tree stumps, etc.—$60 per acre or fraction of an acre;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(12)"> <text>Outside storage of flammable or combustible liquids/gases (drums or tanks)—$120 per 5,000 square feet or fraction of 5,000 square feet; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(13)"> <text>Marinas and piers—$120 plus $1.50 per slip.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>A fee applies if more than one reinspection outlined in §B of this regulation is required to correct a previously identified code violation as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Second reinspection—$200; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Each additional reinspection—$250.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Fees for Technical Assistance, Unclassified Inspections, and Special Events."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The fee schedule in this regulation is used to calculate the fee to provide technical assistance or unclassified inspections, including special events, in the form of plan review or on-site inspections.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A separate technical assistance fee shall be charged at the following rate and prorated to the nearest 1/2 hour:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Deputy fire marshal or fire safety inspector—$75 per hour; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Fire protection engineer—$100 per hour.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Travel time to and from the meeting or inspection site shall be included when computing the fee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>When requested, a reasonable time to prepare written reports or research subsequent Code-related issues shall be included when computing the fee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The fee shall be charged to the person officially requesting assistance and is payable upon receipt of an itemized invoice submitted in accordance with administrative procedures established by State fire authorities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Failure to pay the fee within the required time shall result in appropriate administrative or legal action. Further plan review or inspection action may not take place until the fee is paid in full. This may result in delay of the issuance of a building permit, or use and occupancy permit for the building or facility.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Disposition of Fees."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Fees collected by the State shall be deposited in the general fund of the State for the services provided.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Fees shall be collected and processed in accordance with fiscal procedures established by the State for the collection, disbursement, and accounting of funds.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §6-206, Title 6, Subtitle 3, and Title 9, Subtitle 7, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: August 30, 1993 (20:17 Md. R. 1347)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06A amended as an emergency provision effective June 10, 1994 (21:13 Md. R. 1152); amended permanently effective October 10, 1994 (21:20 Md. R. 1733)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended effective April 22, 1996 (23:8 Md. R. 606)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01 amended effective January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01C amended effective November 1, 2014 (41:20 Md. R. 1113)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .02—.04 amended and chapter recodified from COMAR 12.03.04 to COMAR 29.06.04 effective January 14, 1999 (26:1 Md. R. 25)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336); January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510); April 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510); April 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B, G amended effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05 amended effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336); January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510); April 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective November 1, 2014 (41:20 Md. R. 1113)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .06 amended effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336); January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510); April 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B amended and C adopted effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07B, C amended effective January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510); April 1, 2012 (39:1 Md. R. 21)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08B amended effective January 1, 2004 (30:19 Md. R. 1336); January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective January 1, 2008 (34:17 Md. R. 1510)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="05" heading="Fire Sprinkler Contractor Licensing Regulations"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes licensing requirements for persons who inspect, test, perform maintenance on, install, repair, modify, or lay out fire sprinkler systems in any residential or commercial building in Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in §B of this regulation, a person who inspects, tests, performs maintenance on, installs, repairs, modifies, or lays out fire sprinkler systems in any residential or commercial building in the State shall apply to, and obtain from, the State Fire Marshal, a fire sprinkler contractor license, as provided for in Regulation .04 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A license is not required for the following activities:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Inspections and tests by insurance representatives acting in the performance of their assigned duty;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Inspections, tests, and repairs by a full-time maintenance employee of the property owner, knowledgeable about fire sprinkler systems, acting in the performance of the employee's assigned duty for the property owner;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Inspections, tests, plan review, and ensuring the maintenance of, and any emergency maintenance activity on, a fire sprinkler system, or restoration of an operating, or recently operated, fire sprinkler system to active service by an individual acting in the individual's capacity as a member of a State, county, municipal, career, or volunteer fire department, or authority having jurisdiction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Installation of a limited area fire sprinkler system or emergency temporary repairs performed by a licensed master plumber in accordance with COMAR 29.06.01;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Inspections, tests, preparation of design and specification documents, hydraulic calculations, layout, and plan review of fire sprinkler systems by a Maryland-registered professional engineer knowledgeable about fire sprinkler systems; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Installation, testing, servicing, and maintenance of specialized equipment that is associated with automatic fire sprinkler systems, but not regulated by the specific provisions of NFPA 13, NFPA 13D, or NFPA 13R, performed by persons under the responsible charge of a licensed fire sprinkler contractor who shall verify that such persons have the appropriate qualifications and certifications to perform these specific functions and who shall be responsible for the installation and continued approved operation of all equipment associated with the fire sprinkler system.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>These regulations are minimum Statewide requirements which are not intended to prohibit any jurisdiction from adopting a more stringent local law or ordinance which establishes standards or qualifications for fire sprinkler contractors.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Designated qualified individual” means an owner or permanent and dedicated employee of a fire sprinkler contractor, who is responsible for overseeing work performed by other persons employed by the contractor, and who possesses the required NICET or equivalent qualification or professional engineer qualifications in accordance with the appropriate class of license as listed in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Fire sprinkler contractor” means a person that inspects, tests, performs maintenance on, installs, repairs, modifies, or lays out a fire sprinkler system in accordance with standards incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Fire sprinkler system” means a sprinkler system for fire protection purposes which:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Is an integrated system of piping laid out in accordance with standards adopted in COMAR 29.06.01;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Includes, as the portion of the fire sprinkler system above ground, a network of specially sized or hydraulically designed piping and associated equipment installed in a building, structure, or area, generally overhead, and to which fire sprinklers are connected in a systematic pattern;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Is activated by a device capable of detecting heat or combustion byproducts produced by a fire, and which discharges water over the fire area;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Does not include the first connection to a potable water supply that is downstream of a backflow preventer, and the final connection that discharges indirectly into a public or private disposal system, sanitary drainage facility, or storm drainage facility; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>Includes potable water multipurpose piping systems as defined in NFPA 13D.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“International Building Code” means the edition of the International Business Code, with amendments, which is incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Layout” means the preparation of shop drawings implementing engineering contract documents and applicable codes and standards.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>“Limited area fire sprinkler system” means a:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Fire sprinkler system, except a system installed in a townhouse or other single family dwelling, which is laid out within one fire area, and which is enclosed within approved separation assemblies, with no more than 20 sprinklers based on the spacing limitations of NFPA 13, and laid out in accordance with the International Building Code, and which has a water supply that consists of one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>A standpipe system capable of supplying a 500 gallon/minute (1890 liters/minute) minimum flow and which has an automatic water supply; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A connection in compliance with the Maryland State Plumbing Code to a domestic water system laid out to adequately support the design flow of the largest number of sprinklers required to be hydraulically calculated by NFPA 13 in any fire area plus the domestic demand; or</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A fire sprinkler system consisting of not more than six sprinklers for any isolated hazardous area connected to a domestic water supply having a capacity sufficient to provide 0.15 gallon/minute/square foot (6.1 liter/minute/square meter) of floor area throughout the entire enclosed area installed in accordance with NFPA 101.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>“NFPA” refers to standards produced by the National Fire Protection Association, Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02269, which are incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>“NICET” means the National Institute for the Certification in Engineering Technologies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>“Person” means an individual, receiver, trustee, guardian, personal representative, fiduciary, representative of any kind, partnership, firm, association, corporation, or other entity.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(10)"> <text>“State Fire Marshal” means the Fire Marshal for the State of Maryland or, in the Fire Marshal's absence, an individual who has been specially designated by the State Fire Marshal to enforce this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(11)"> <text>“Workmanlike manner” means a quality of work typical of the standard recognized within the industry and befitting a skilled workman or craftsman.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Licensure."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Each fire sprinkler contractor who performs work in Maryland shall possess a valid license of the appropriate class as listed in this regulation. A fire sprinkler contractor, except a person exempt under this chapter or Public Safety Article, §9-903(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, who inspects, tests, performs maintenance on, installs, repairs, modifies, or lays out a fire sprinkler system in a residential or commercial building in the State shall possess a valid license under this regulation. The following table illustrates the capabilities of each class of the sprinkler contractor license:</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Class I Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the inspection, testing, and performance of maintenance of residential or commercial fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13, NFPA 13D, or NFPA 13R shall possess a class I fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class I fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 3 years experience in the inspection, testing, and performance of maintenance of residential and commercial fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, inspection, and testing of water-based systems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Class IIa Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the installation, repair, or modification of residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R shall possess a class IIa fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIa fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 3 years experience in the installation, repair, or modification of residential fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For potable water multipurpose piping systems, contractors shall also possess a Maryland master plumber license, and shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Class IIb Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the layout of residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R shall possess a class IIb fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIb fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 3 years experience in the layout of residential fire systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>Class IIc Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the installation, repair, modification, and layout of residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R shall possess a class IIc fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIc fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 3 years experience in the installation, repair, modification and layout of residential fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For potable water multipurpose piping systems, contractors shall also possess a Maryland master plumber license, and shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Class IId Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the installation, repair, or modification of residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D shall possess a class IId fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IId fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Possess a Maryland master plumber license and comply with all applicable provisions of Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="G."> <text>Class IIIa Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the installation, repair, or modification of commercial and residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13, 13D, or 13R shall possess a class IIIa fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIIa fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 5 years experience in the installation, repair or modification of commercial and residential fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level II or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For potable water multipurpose piping systems, contractors shall also possess a Maryland master plumber license, and shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="H."> <text>Class IIIb Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the layout of commercial or residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13, 13D, or 13R shall possess a class IIIb fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIIb fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 5 years experience in the layout of commercial and residential fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level III or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="I."> <text>Class IIIc Fire Sprinkler Contractor License.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor engaged in the installation, repair, modification, and layout of commercial or residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13, 13D, or 13R shall possess a class IIIc fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To obtain a class IIIc fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Have not less than 5 years experience in the installation, repair, modification and layout of commercial and residential fire sprinkler systems as determined by the State Fire Marshal; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Employ at least one designated qualified individual who possesses and maintains a NICET Engineering Technician Level III or higher certification or equivalent in the field of fire protection, automatic sprinkler system layout.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>For potable water multipurpose piping systems, contractors shall also possess a Maryland master plumber license, and shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Business Occupations and Professions Article, Title 12, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="J."> <text>A person may not be permitted to serve as a designated qualified individual for more than three licensed fire sprinkler contractors.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="K."> <text>Additional Authorized Work.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor in possession of a class IIIa fire sprinkler contractor license may engage in any fire sprinkler system work covered by a class IIa or class IId fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor in possession of a class IIIb fire sprinkler contractor license may engage in any fire sprinkler system work covered by a class IIb fire sprinkler contractor license.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor in possession of a class IIIc fire sprinkler contractor license may engage in any fire sprinkler system work covered by all other classes of fire sprinkler contractor licenses except class I.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor in possession of a class IIa fire sprinkler contractor license may engage in any fire sprinkler system work covered by a class IId fire sprinkler contractor license only on residential sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor in possession of a class IIc fire sprinkler contractor license may engage in fire sprinkler system work covered by a class IIa, class IIb, or class IId fire sprinkler contractor license only on residential fire sprinkler systems that are in accordance with NFPA 13D or NFPA 13R.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="L."> <text>Fire Sprinkler System Layout.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Layout of plans and preparation for automatic fire sprinkler systems shall be prepared under the supervision of one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The designated qualified individual employed by a fire sprinkler contractor who meets the qualification listed for the appropriate license classification under §D, E, H, or I of this regulation; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A Maryland registered professional engineer, knowledgeable in areas about fire sprinkler systems.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Plans shall be marked with the fire sprinkler contractor license number and one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The designated qualified individual's original signature, NICET level, certification number, and expiration date; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The original signature and seal of a professional engineer who is registered in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Plans submitted utilizing an electronic format shall be marked with the fire sprinkler contractor license number and one of the following:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>The designated qualified individual's digital signature, NICET level, certification number and expiration date; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The digital signature and seal of a professional engineer who is registered in Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="M."> <text>Notification Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Within 14 days of any change of address, the fire sprinkler contractor shall:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Notify the Office of the State Fire Marshal in writing of the change;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Return the license certificate requiring the revision; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Submit the fee as specified in §Q of this regulation for a revised license certificate.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Within 5 business days from the termination of a designated qualified individual, the fire sprinkler contractor shall notify the Office of the State Fire Marshal in writing of the termination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Within 30 days of termination of the designated qualified individual, or prior to the expiration of a current license, whichever occurs first, the fire sprinkler contractor shall submit a new application to the Office of the State Fire Marshal identifying the new designated qualified individual as defined in Regulation .03 of this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Within 14 days of any change to information submitted on the license application, the fire sprinkler contractor shall notify the Office of the State Fire Marshal in writing of the change.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="N."> <text>License Expiration. All fire sprinkler contractor licenses expire 2 years after the date issued.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="O."> <text>Liability Insurance Requirements.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To hold any class fire sprinkler contractor license, a person shall maintain continuous comprehensive general liability insurance coverage and provide proof of this coverage in the form of a certificate of insurance with a 30-day cancellation notification provision. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall be named as the certificate holder. Coverage under this subsection shall include:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>A minimum of $1,000,000 combined single limit bodily injury or death and property damage liability insurance; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Products and completed operations insurance.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Failure to maintain the required coverage is considered sufficient grounds for suspension or revocation of the license.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="P."> <text>Application.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>An application for an initial fire sprinkler contractor license shall be made to the State Fire Marshal on a form designated by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An application for renewal of a fire sprinkler contractor license shall be submitted to the Office of the State Fire Marshal at least 30 days before the expiration date of the license on a form designated by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The application shall be signed by the sole proprietor, by each partner of the partnership, or by an officer of the corporation or organization.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Proof of the required insurance coverage, in the form of a certificate of insurance with a 30-day cancellation notification provision shall be submitted with the application. The Office of the State Fire Marshal shall be named as the certificate holder.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Proof of current NICET qualification or professional engineer registration status shall be submitted with the application.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The appropriate nonrefundable fee as specified in §Q of this regulation shall be submitted with the application.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="Q."> <text>Fees.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>A nonrefundable fee set by the State Fire Prevention Commission shall be paid to the Office of the State Fire Marshal to obtain or renew a fire sprinkler contractor license or for services as follows:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Initial application — $300;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Renewal application — $200; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Duplicate or revised license certificate — $25.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>A fire sprinkler contractor who does not submit a renewal application on or prior to the expiration date of the license shall pay a late fee of $300 in addition to the license renewal fee.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The State Fire Marshal shall collect the fees, keep all records of fees paid, and pay all fees collected to the General Fund of the State.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Denial, Suspension, and Revocation of Applications and Licenses."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The State Fire Marshal may deny a license to an applicant, reprimand a licensee, or suspend or revoke a fire sprinkler contractor license if the applicant or licensee:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Willfully makes any false statement or misrepresentation in an initial or renewal license application;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Assists a person in fraudulently or deceptively obtaining, or attempting to obtain, a license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Fails to satisfy or maintain any of the requirements set forth in Regulation .04 of this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>While unlicensed, performs fire sprinkler work that requires a license under this chapter;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>Signs or affixes the licensee's seal to any plan, print, specification, or report that has not been prepared by the licensee, either personally or under the licensee's immediate supervision;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Violates COMAR 29.06.01 or any other regulation adopted by the State Fire Prevention Commission (by the fire sprinkler contractor or any employee of the fire sprinkler contractor); or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>Is convicted of any felony or misdemeanor violation of the State Fire Code or the fire code of any other state or the District of Columbia (by the fire sprinkler contractor or applicant, or any employee of the fire sprinkler contractor or applicant).</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>In determining whether the criminal conviction may serve as the basis for denial, suspension, revocation, or the issuance of a reprimand, the State Fire Marshal shall consider the following factors:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The nature of the crime;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The relationship of the crime to the activities authorized by the license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The relevance of the conviction to the fitness and qualification of the applicant or licensee to perform work authorized by the license;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Any other crimes of which the applicant or licensee has been convicted;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The length of time since the conviction; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>The conduct of the applicant or licensee before and after the conviction.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Hearings for Denied, Suspended, and Revoked Applications and Licenses."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .07 of this chapter, and before any action is taken under Regulation .05 of this chapter, the State Fire Marshal shall mail to the applicant or fire sprinkler contractor at the last known address of the applicant or fire sprinkler contractor written notice stating:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The basis for the contemplated action; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>That the applicant or fire sprinkler contractor may request a hearing before the State Fire Prevention Commission by mailing or delivering a written request to the Commission within 20 days of the date of the written notice.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>If an applicant or fire sprinkler contractor requests a hearing, the hearing shall be conducted by the State Fire Prevention Commission in accordance with COMAR 29.06.02.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Except as provided in Regulation .07 of this chapter, the State Fire Marshal may not act to deny, suspend, revoke, or reprimand until after the decision of the State Fire Prevention Commission or until after the time for requesting a hearing has expired.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Summary Suspension."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The State Fire Marshal may order summarily the suspension of a license if the State Fire Marshal finds that the public health, safety, or welfare imperatively requires emergency action.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The State Fire Marshal shall promptly give the fire sprinkler contractor licensee:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Written notice of the suspension, the finding, and the reasons that support the finding; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>An opportunity for a hearing before the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Appellate Procedure."> <text>A person aggrieved by a final decision of the State Fire Prevention Commission is entitled to judicial review, as provided in State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Penalties."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Unless otherwise exempt, a person may not inspect, test, perform maintenance on, install, repair, modify, or lay out any fire sprinkler system in a residential or commercial building in the State without first obtaining the appropriate license required under this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A person who violates any provision of this chapter is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, is subject to a fine of $1,000 or imprisonment for not more than 10 days, or both.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§6-206 and 9-901—9-905, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: January 1, 2000 (26:25 Md. R. 1899)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter revised effective May 12, 2003 (30:9 Md. R. 615)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02B amended effective August 11, 2008 (35:16 Md. R. 1392); May 7, 2018 (45:9 Md. R. 463)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective August 11, 2008 (35:16 Md. R. 1392); October 7, 2019 (46:20 Md. R. 847)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04 amended effective August 11, 2008 (35:16 Md. R. 1392)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04L amended effective May 7, 2018 (45:9 Md. R. 463)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A amended effective August 11, 2008 (35:16 Md. R. 1392)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="06" heading="Repealed"> <annotations> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: November 15, 1999 (26:23 Md. R. 1778)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Chapter repealed effective January 1, 2010 (36:25 Md. R. 1956)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> <chapter num="07" heading="Ground-Based Sparkling Devices"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Purpose."> <text>This chapter establishes minimum requirements for the wholesale, retail sale, and distribution of ground-based sparkling devices.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Application and Scope."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>This chapter applies to the wholesale, retail sale, and distribution of ground-based sparkling devices.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This chapter does not apply to a municipal corporation or county which has adopted more stringent regulations.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>“Class C mercantile occupancy” means a mercantile occupancy of not more than 3,000 square feet gross area used for sales purposes on one story only, excluding mezzanines.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Ground-based sparkling device” means a device that is:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Nonaerial;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Nonexplosive;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>Labeled in accordance with the requirements of the U.S. Consumer Products Safety Commission; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Considered consumer fireworks as defined in NFPA 1 Fire Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Open-air mercantile operation” means an operation conducted outside of all structures, with the operations area devoid of all walls and roofs except for small, individual, weather canopies.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“Prepackaged ground-based sparkling device merchandise” means ground-based sparkling device items or groups of ground-based sparkling device items that have been packaged by the manufacturer or distributor before they are offered for sale to the consumer.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Registration of Distributors and Wholesalers."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A distributor or wholesaler of sparklers or sparkling devices that intends to conduct business in the State, or sells, ships, or assigns for sale in the State the products of the distributor or wholesaler, shall register annually with the Office of the State Fire Marshal on forms prescribed by the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Registration forms may be obtained at the Office of the State Fire Marshal Headquarters, 1201 Reisterstown Road, Building C, Pikesville, MD 21208 and at State Fire Marshal installations throughout the State.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Completed registration forms and a nonrefundable annual fee of $750 shall be forwarded to the Office of the State Fire Marshal Headquarters.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Upon confirmation of registration, the registrant shall submit to the Office of the State Fire Marshal a list of all retail sales facilities located in the State receiving ground-based sparkling devices for sale to the general public and the locations of the facilities.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Sales and Storage of Ground-Based Sparkling Devices."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Wholesalers and distributors of ground-based sparkling devices shall comply with the permits and approvals requirements and Chapter 65 “Explosives, Fireworks, and Model Rocketry” of NFPA 1 Fire Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01, unless otherwise modified by this chapter.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Ground-based sparkling devices may be sold or distributed in any of the following buildings or structures:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Permanent buildings or structures constructed in accordance with the codes enforced by the authority having jurisdiction;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Tents, canopies, or temporary membrane structures comply with NFPA 1 Fire Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Temporary structures measuring 800 square feet or less, constructed in accordance with this chapter; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Temporary ground-based sparkling device sales or distribution stands greater than 800 square feet in area which meet the requirements for a permanent structure.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All storage of ground-based sparkling devices:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Shall be secured to prevent unauthorized access by the public;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>May not be located in direct sunlight; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>May not exceed 5 percent of the basement floor area if located in a basement.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Ground-based sparkling devices sales and distribution facilities may not be located in basements.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".06" heading="Quantities."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except for permanent buildings and structures used exclusively for sale and distribution of ground-based sparkling devices, permanent buildings and structures may not have more than 5 percent of their gross sales or distribution floor area for ground-based sparkling devices display.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Open-air mercantile operations may not exceed:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>200 pounds pyrotechnic composition; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>If the pyrotechnic composition weight is not known, 800 pounds gross weight.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".07" heading="Displays."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>All ground-based sparkling devices merchandise offered for sale or distribution shall be prepackaged with a packaging arrangement which completely encapsulates the ground-based sparkling device item or items with paperboard, cardboard, plastic wrap, or similar materials or combinations of materials. The encapsulation shall ensure that an individual must puncture, tear, unseal, or break open the package, or otherwise damage or destroy the packaging materials in order to gain access to, and directly handle, each individual ground-based sparkling device item to expose its fuse.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>A display may not exceed 3,000 square feet unless the building or structure in which it is located is protected throughout by an approved automatic sprinkler system.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Height and Clearance. Ground-based sparkling devices on display or located on shelves, counters, or other fixtures may only be displayed with at least an 18-inch clearance from the ceiling and in temporary sales or distribution stands where the interior is not accessible to the general public, not higher than 8 feet from the floor surface.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".08" heading="Fire Protection."> <text>Portable fire extinguishers shall be installed as required for extra-hazard occupancy protection and shall comply with NFPA 1 Fire Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".09" heading="Means of Egress."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Means of egress in ground-based sparkling devices sales or distribution facilities shall comply with the requirements of NFPA 101 Life Safety Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01, unless otherwise modified by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Means of egress in tents and membrane structures used for the sales or distribution of ground-based sparkling devices shall comply with NFPA 101 Life Safety Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01 and NFPA 102 Standard for Grandstands, Folding and Telescopic Seating, Tents, and Membrane Structures, unless otherwise modified by this regulation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>An approved fire safety and evacuation plan shall:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Be in writing;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be maintained current; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Be posted in a conspicuous location that is accessible to the public as well as to persons employed or otherwise working in the facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Exit openings from tents shall have a clear opening width of at least 44 inches.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".10" heading="Sources of Ignition."> <text>Electrical wiring shall be in accordance with NFPA 1 Fire Code as incorporated by reference in COMAR 29.06.01.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".11" heading="Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".12" heading="Temporary Heating Sources."> <text>Temporary heating units shall be listed by a testing laboratory approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and used in accordance with their listing.</text> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".13" heading="Generators."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Scope. This regulation does not limit the type and quantity of fuel for generators and their fuel storage located not less than 50 feet from the exterior of the sales or distribution facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Generators using flammable or combustible liquid or gas fuels supplying power to ground-based sparkling devices sales or distribution facilities may not be located less than 20 feet from the exterior of the sales or distribution facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Combustible and flammable liquid generator fuel may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Exceed 5 gallons; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be stored less than 20 feet from the exterior of a sales or distribution facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Flammable gas generator fuel may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Exceed 20 pounds; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Be stored less than 20 feet from the exterior of a sales or distribution facility.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".14" heading="Personnel."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>At least one individual 18 years old or older shall be:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Present at all times in sales and distribution facilities during the hours of sale and distribution to the public; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Responsible for supervision of the facility and its operation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>All personnel handling ground-based sparkling devices shall be 16 years old or older.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>All personnel handling ground-based sparkling devices shall receive safety training related to the performance of their duties. Training shall include, but not be limited to, safe handling instructions, emergency procedures, and the use of portable fire extinguishers.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>The distributor shall provide detailed safe handling instruction guidelines for sales and distribution personnel with all packing information for ground-based sparkling devices.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="E."> <text>The distributor shall provide the retailer with a list of ground-based sparkling devices approved for sale by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="F."> <text>Personnel may not sell ground-based sparkling devices to a person younger than 16 years old as set forth in Public Safety Article, §10-112, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".15" heading="Signs."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In facilities used exclusively for the sale or distribution of ground-based sparkling devices, a sign reading “PERSONS UNDER 16 MUST BE ACCOMPANIED BY, AND UNDER THE SUPERVISION OF, A RESPONSIBLE PERSON AT LEAST 18 YEARS OLD” shall be conspicuously posted in letters not less than 1 inch high, on a contrasting background, at each entrance to the sales or distribution facility to which the general public has access to the interior.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Where not otherwise required by local or state laws, ordinances, or regulations, a sign reading “NO GROUND-BASED SPARKLING DEVICE SALES OR DISTRIBUTION TO PERSONS UNDER 16 YEARS OLD. PHOTO I.D. REQUIRED” shall be conspicuously posted in letters not less than 1 inch high at:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Each entrance of the sales or distribution facility or in the vicinity of the ground-based sparkling device sales or distribution display; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The point of sale or distribution.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>At least one sign reading “NO SMOKING OR OPEN FLAME DEVICES WITHIN 50 FEET”, in letters at least 2-inches high on a contrasting background, shall be conspicuously posted at each entrance or within 10 feet of every aisle directly serving the ground-based sparkling device sale or distribution display area in the facility.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>At least one sign reading “NO GROUND-BASED SPARKLING DEVICE DISCHARGE WITHIN 300 FEET”, in letters at least 2-inches high on a contrasting background, shall be conspicuously posted in the vicinity of the ground-based sparkling device sales or distribution display, or as otherwise required by the authority having jurisdiction.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".16" heading="Repealed." /> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".17" heading="Penalties."> <text>A person who violates any provision of this chapter is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, is subject to a fine of $1,000, imprisonment for not more than 10 days, or both, as set forth in Public Safety Article, §6-601, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §§6-206 and 10-109, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date:</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.16 adopted as an emergency provision effective April 15, 2002 (29:10 Md. R. 822); emergency status extended at 29:20 Md. R. 1585 and 30:6 Md. R. 417; emergency status expired October 8, 2003</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulations .01—.17 adopted as an emergency provision effective October 8, 2003 (30:22 Md. R. 1575); adopted permanently effective February 16, 2004 (31:3 Md. R. 209)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .03B amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .04B amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .05A, B amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A amended effective January 1, 2016 (42:23 Md. R. 1436)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .07A, C amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .08 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .09 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .10 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .11 repealed effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .12 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .14 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .15 amended effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .16 repealed effective January 1, 2013 (39:23 Md. R. 1533)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="07" heading="Office of the State Fire Marshal"> <chapter num="01" heading="Nongovernmental Electrical Inspectors"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Eligibility."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Except as provided under §B of this regulation, the following are the minimum eligibility qualifications to become a nongovernmental electrical inspector:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Completion of an apprenticeship as an electrician;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>5 years of documented progressive experience in the electrical trade; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Pass a written examination administered by the State Fire Marshal:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>One re-examination shall be permitted per initial application fee; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Re-examination must be scheduled not less than 30 days and not more than 90 days from the original examination date.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Instead of the experience required under §A of this regulation, an electrical engineering degree or accumulated credits in combination with education, training, and experience may be considered by the Office of the State Fire Marshal to meet the qualifications.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Certification."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>An applicant for initial certification shall pay to the State Fire Marshal an application fee of $100 and shall pass a comprehensive written examination.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Initial certifications are valid for varying amounts of time, depending on the date of certification.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Applicants are required to renew their certification before the expiration date by submitting a renewal application and a $50 renewal fee to the State Fire Marshal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="D."> <text>Renewal certifications are valid for 3 years.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §12-605, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: February 12, 2007 (34:3 Md. R. 302)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .01A amended effective April 4, 2011 (38:7 Md. R. 433)</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Regulation .02A, C amended effective April 4, 2011 (38:7 Md. R. 433)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle> <subtitle num="08" heading="Investigations Involving the Exercise of First Amendment Activities"> <chapter num="01" heading="Covert Investigations and Criminal Intelligence"> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".01" heading="Definitions."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>In this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Terms Defined.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Covert Investigation.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Covert investigation” means an infiltration of or attempt to infiltrate a group or organization in a manner that conceals the identity of the law enforcement agency or the identity of an officer or agent of the law enforcement agency.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Covert investigation” does not include the use of plainclothes officers or employees for crowd control and public safety purposes at public events.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>“Criminal intelligence” means information concerning or related to the detection, investigation, deterrence, or prevention of crime or the apprehension and prosecution of a suspected criminal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>“Department” means the Department of State Police.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>“First Amendment activities” means:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>Activities involving constitutionally protected speech or association; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Conduct related to freedom of speech, free exercise of religion, freedom of the press, the right to assemble, or the right to petition the government.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>“Legitimate law enforcement objective” means the detection, investigation, deterrence, or prevention of crime, or the apprehension and prosecution of a suspected criminal.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Reasonable, Articulable Suspicion of Criminal Activity.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>“Reasonable, articulable suspicion of criminal activity” means an objective, factual basis for initiating or pursuing an investigation, which basis is substantially less than that required to establish probable cause.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>“Reasonable, articulable suspicion of criminal activity” is established when information exists which establishes sufficient facts to give a trained law enforcement or criminal investigative agency officer, investigator, or employee a basis to believe that there is a reasonable possibility that an individual or organization is involved in a definable criminal activity or enterprise.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".02" heading="Purposes."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The purposes of this subtitle are:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>To establish the responsibilities of the Department related to investigations involving the exercise of First Amendment activities; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>To recognize and respect the rights of persons, groups, and organizations engaged in First Amendment activities.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>This subtitle applies only to investigations involving First Amendment activities.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".03" heading="Policy."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>The Department shall endeavor to maintain the appropriate balance between the constitutional rights afforded to each citizen and the legitimate needs of law enforcement.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>The Department shall only engage in intelligence gathering, retention, and dissemination activities that may infringe on First Amendment rights to further legitimate law enforcement objectives and in accordance with the procedures and prohibitions set forth in this chapter.</text> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".04" heading="Procedures."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>Covert Investigations Involving First Amendment Activities.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department may not conduct a covert investigation of a person, a group, or an organization engaged in First Amendment activities unless the Secretary or designee makes a written finding that the covert investigation is justified because it is based on a reasonable, articulable suspicion that the person, group, or organization is planning or engaged in criminal activity and a less intrusive method of investigation is not likely to yield satisfactory results.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>The written finding shall, if possible, be made in advance of the initiation of the covert investigation or as soon thereafter as is practicable.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Membership or participation in a group or organization engaged primarily in First Amendment activities does not alone constitute reasonable, articulable suspicion of criminal activity justifying a covert investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>Reports.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It is the responsibility of the sworn Criminal Intelligence Section (CIS) supervisor to ensure that all activities are properly reported and documented by the covert operative.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>A report shall be prepared on the approved Department form for each and every incident of contact between the covert operative and the target of the investigation.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>A report shall be submitted as soon as possible, but in no case later than 2 working days after the contact. Further delay in the submission of these reports requires the approval from the sworn CIS supervisor.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Each report shall be reviewed and evaluated by the sworn CIS supervisor to determine if there is a continuing need to conduct the covert investigation involving First Amendment activities.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(e)"> <text>The report shall be reviewed not later than 5 working days after its submission, and the decision whether or not to continue with the investigation shall be made in writing and include the reasons for continuing or discontinuing the investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>An investigation involving First Amendment activities shall be terminated when logical leads have been exhausted or no legitimate law enforcement objective justifies the continuation of the investigation.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Collection, Dissemination, Retention, Database Inclusion, Purging and Auditing of Records Involving First Amendment Activities.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department may not collect or maintain information solely about the political beliefs, ideologies, or associations of any person, group, or organization, unless the information is relevant to a criminal investigation or there is a reasonable, articulable suspicion that the person, group, or organization advocates, supports, or encourages the violation of any federal, State, or local criminal law that prohibits acts of terrorism, racketeering activity, as found in 18 U.S.C. §1961, violence, extortion, destruction of property, intimidation, harassment, obstruction of justice, or fraud.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Criminal intelligence related to First Amendment activities shall be reviewed by a supervisor prior to entry into any criminal intelligence file to ensure that:</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>It is being retained in accordance with this regulation;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>It has been classified accurately; and</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>It reflects the purpose for which the information is collected.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>The Department shall evaluate intelligence regarding First Amendment activities with respect to the reliability of the source and the validity and accuracy of the content.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(4)"> <text>A record shall be kept of the source of all information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(5)"> <text>The Department may not knowingly include in its criminal intelligence files any information that has been obtained in violation of Public Safety Article, §3-701, Annotated Code of Maryland.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(6)"> <text>Criminal intelligence gathered and maintained by the Department regarding First Amendment activities may be disseminated only to appropriate persons for legitimate law enforcement objectives. Dissemination of criminal intelligence of the type described in this subtitle shall be recorded in such a manner that the recipient of the intelligence, date of dissemination, manner of dissemination, and information disseminated are known.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(7)"> <text>The Department shall disseminate criminal intelligence information regarding First Amendment activities only to law enforcement authorities who agree to follow procedures regarding information receipt, maintenance, security, and dissemination that are consistent with the principles underlying the procedures and prohibitions of this subtitle and applicable State and federal law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(8)"> <text>Review and Maintenance of Files.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>All criminal intelligence files related to First Amendment activities shall be maintained in accordance with the goals and objectives of this subtitle and to ensure that these files include information that is accurate, timely, and relevant.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>Reclassifying and purging information in the criminal intelligence files shall be done on an ongoing basis as documents are reviewed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>All information retained as a result of this review shall reflect the name of the reviewer, date of the review, and an explanation of the decision to retain the information.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(d)"> <text>Purging Files.</text> <paragraph num="(i)"> <text>If a file has no further informational value or meets the purging criteria of any applicable law, it shall be destroyed.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(ii)"> <text>A record of purged files shall be maintained by the Department.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(iii)"> <text>Any information that is misleading, obsolete, or otherwise unreliable shall be purged.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(9)"> <text>Audit; Report.</text> <paragraph num="(a)"> <text>An audit of these criminal intelligence files is to be undertaken annually.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(b)"> <text>The audit shall reflect whether documents have been created, retained, disseminated, and purged in accordance with State and federal law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(c)"> <text>The audit report shall be submitted to the Director, Criminal Intelligence Section, for review and implementation of any needed corrective actions.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </paragraph> <paragraph num="C."> <text>Training and Review of Regulations.</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>The Department shall ensure that all members assigned to the section receive training regarding this subtitle and applicable federal and State law.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Training shall be documented in the member's training records.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>An annual review of this subtitle shall be conducted and new proposals made based on recent court decisions, changes in federal or State law, and national best practices.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <regulation prefix="Regulation" num=".05" heading="Prohibited Practices."> <paragraph num="A."> <text>A member of the Department may not investigate, prosecute, disrupt, interfere with, harass, or discriminate against a person engaged in a First Amendment activity for the purpose of punishing a person for, retaliating against a person for, or preventing or hindering a person from exercising constitutional rights.</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="B."> <text>Members of the Department may not:</text> <paragraph num="(1)"> <text>Collect or disseminate information that becomes known to them through covert investigations or through access to criminal intelligence, except as specifically provided by this subtitle and State and federal law;</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(2)"> <text>Employ or direct an individual to obtain intelligence data in a manner that is inconsistent with this subtitle or State and federal law; or</text> </paragraph> <paragraph num="(3)"> <text>Use any information that becomes known to them through covert surveillance, covert investigations, or access to criminal intelligence for political or economic purposes or for personal gain.</text> </paragraph> </paragraph> </regulation> <annotations> <annotation type="Authority">Public Safety Article, §3-701, Annotated Code of Maryland</annotation> <annotation type="History" subtype="Administrative History">Effective date: March 8, 2010 (37:5 Md. R. 432)</annotation> </annotations> </chapter> </subtitle>